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Exam #4 Chapters 14-18 Microbiology

front 1

A reservoir is _

back 1

a source of microbial contamination.

front 2

The condition known as microbial antagonism may be defined as

back 2

an unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes.

front 3

An axenic environment is one

back 3

that is free of microbes.

front 4

Commensalism is best described as a(n)

back 4

relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits and the other is unharmed.

front 5

A new influenza strain appears and is spreading rapidly. What measures might be taken by public health agencies to stop the spread?

back 5

Educate the public, promote vaccination, and treat those who are infected.

front 6

Organisms that are resident microbiota are best described as

back 6

microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life.

front 7

Infectious diseases can be classified on the basis of

back 7

disease severity and duration, organ system affected or type of microbe.

front 8

Microbes known as transient microbiota are

back 8

organisms that remain in the body for a short time.

front 9

Which of the following virulence factors directly contributes to severe inflammation?

back 9

lipid A

front 10

Koch's postulates were used to demonstrate the relationship between

back 10

Haemophilus influenzae and meningitis.

front 11

The person known to history as "Typhoid Mary" never had typhoid fever but was identified by public health officials as a source of Salmonella enterica Typhi. Which of the following is the most accurate description of her in this scenario?

back 11

both a human carrier and a reservoir

front 12

A strain of Neisseria gonorrhea has a mutation which has caused it to lose the ability to produce fimbriae and become less virulent as a consequence. What function has this pathogen lost?

back 12

the ability to adhere to cells of the body

front 13

A person is exposed to rotten wood with fungal growth and develops blastomycosis. No one taking care of him/her becomes ill. Blastomycosis is an example of a ________ disease.

back 13

noncommunicable

front 14

Sebum contains ________ which contributes to creating an inhospitable environment on the surface of the body.

back 14

acids

front 15

TLRs are

back 15

phagocyte receptors that detect PAMPs.

front 16

Microbial molecules detected by phagocytes are called

back 16

PAMPs.

front 17

A type of lymphocyte called a(n) ________ detects cells with abnormal surface proteins and kills them.

back 17

NK cell

front 18

The alternative pathway of complement cascade activation begins with ________ binding to the surface of a microbe.

back 18

c3b

front 19

What are NOD proteins?

back 19

cytoplasmic receptors of microbial molecules

front 20

Which of the following statements regarding phagocyte recognition of pathogens is true?

back 20

TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmic membrane bind surface structures of microbes.

front 21

Opsonization is

back 21

the coating of a pathogen by complement to facilitate phagocytosis.

front 22

The phenomenon known as chemotaxis is defined as

back 22

the movement of a cell toward or away from a chemical stimulus

front 23

Alpha and beta interferons

back 23

are produced by infected fibroblasts and macrophages.

front 24

Which of the following is an iron-binding protein produced by pathogens to access the body's store of iron?

back 24

siderophores

front 25

Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders?

back 25

the mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells.

front 26

Which of the following is the result when a CTL interacts with a virally infected cell?

back 26

The cell undergoes apoptosis.

front 27

How is the development of autoimmunity normally prevented?

back 27

Clonal deletion of T cells, lack of necessary cytokine signals, and regulatory T cell suppression prevent activation of autoreactive T cells.

front 28

IgE antibodies are best described as

back 28

a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation.

front 29

What is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytizes a microbe and processes it?

back 29

display of microbial epitope-MHC II complexes on the cell surface

front 30

The immunological synapse refers to the

back 30

interaction between a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell to produce a specialized cell-to-cell contact area.

front 31

The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because

back 31

red blood cells do not produce MHC and, therefore, do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigen.

front 32

Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE?

back 32

They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens.

front 33

Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE?

back 33

B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated using a bright-field light microscope.

front 34

Infection with influenzavirus is commonly diagnosed using

back 34

both immunochromatographic assay and viral hemagglutination inhibition test.

front 35

Serologic tests may be used to detect ________ for diagnosis of disease.

back 35

antigen-specific antibodies

front 36

A new virus is discovered that causes cells to lyse. Which of the following types of assay would be useful for diagnosing infection with this virus?

back 36

viral neutralization

front 37

A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent?

back 37

an immunochromatographic assay

front 38

The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be

back 38

a cloudy solution in the tube.

front 39

Tuberculosis may be diagnosed using a(n) ________ on sputum (lung fluid) samples.

back 39

direct fluorescent antibody test

front 40

a person who has been exposed to rabies receives both HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) injected near the bite site and the rabies vaccine. What does this strategy represent?

back 40

active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy

front 41

What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine?

back 41

a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus

front 42

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE or lupus) is distinct from other autoimmune disorders because

back 42

multiple organs and tissues are affected.

front 43

The syndrome known as AIDS is characterized

back 43

by one or more opportunistic diseases and the presence of HIV.

front 44

Antigen-antibody complexes trapped in tissues and triggering complement activation or mast cell degranulation are characteristic of

back 44

autoimmunity.

front 45

Treatment with glucocorticoids to suppress type IV hypersensitivity may result in

back 45

acquired immunodeficiency.

front 46

A child has a history of recurring serious bacterial infections. A blood sample shows lymphocyte levels are a little below normal, and no antibodies to the pathogens are detected in serologic tests. Based on this information, which of the following is the likeliest diagnosis for this child?

back 46

Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia

front 47

Which of the following statements concerning rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is TRUE?

back 47

Accumulations of antibody complexes lead to inflammation in and destruction of the joints.

front 48

Hypotheses explaining the development of autoimmune disease include

back 48

molecular mimicry and genetic factors

front 49

A small amount of antigen is injected under the skin of a patient. After 30 minutes there is no apparent change at the injection site, but 36 hours later the patient reports that the area is red and swollen. This type of response is due to

back 49

type IV hypersensitivity.

front 50

Parasitic worms, even meters-long tapeworms, are studied in microbiology because

back 50

diagnosis usually involves microscopic examination of patient samples.

front 51

A reaction requires water as a reactant and produces heat. What type of reaction is likely to be involved?

back 51

a synthesis reaction

front 52

Which of the following is an accurate description of ATP?

back 52

ATP serves as a recyclable energy for cells.

front 53

Lipid A is a component of

back 53

the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria.

front 54

ATP is expended in which of the following processes?

back 54

both active transport and group translocation

front 55

Which of the following statements concerning endocytosis is TRUE?

back 55

Endocytosis produces a structure called a food vesicle.

front 56

An important function of nomenclature is to

back 56

facilitate unambiguous communication.

front 57

The Apicomplexa are named for their apical complexes which allow them to

back 57

penetrate the cytoplasmic membranes of host cells.

front 58

The process in which the cytoplasm is divided between daughter cells is known as

back 58

cytokinesis.

front 59

Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage?

back 59

the genetic material of the bacteriophage is amplified many times over that seen in a lytic phage.

front 60

Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs during which of the following stage(s) of glucose catabolism?

back 60

energy-conservation stage of glycolysis

front 61

The metabolic processes called fermentation

back 61

use an organic molecule as a final electron acceptor.

front 62

Nitrogen is a growth-limiting nutrient for many organisms because

back 62

only a few microbes can extract it from the atmosphere, but all organisms require it for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis.

front 63

Obligate anaerobes may be cultured in the laboratory

back 63

in a reducing medium.

front 64

An epidemiologist is investigating a new disease and observes what appear to be bacteria inside tissue cells in clinical samples from victims. The scientist wants to try to isolate the bacteria in the lab. What culture conditions are most likely to be successful?

back 64

inoculation of cell cultures

front 65

DNA is composed of four nucleotides, A, C, G and T. Each codon is composed of three nucleotides. The number of possible codons is

back 65

64

front 66

Amino acids are delivered in their appropriate order by

back 66

tRNAs

front 67

The natural role of restriction enzymes in bacteria is to

back 67

protect the cell from invading phages.

front 68

What is the function of the high temperature step in PCR (polymerase chain reaction)?

back 68

break hydrogen bonds for strand separation

front 69

The enzyme reverse transcriptase

back 69

synthesizes DNA from an RNA template.

front 70

Which of the following is an example of pasteurization?

back 70

synthesizes DNA from an RNA template.

front 71

You notice a sign in a public restroom that states "Sanitized for your safety." This means

back 71

methods of disinfection that meet minimum standards of microbial removal have been used.

front 72

The process of filtration is a(n)

back 72

sterilizing method.

front 73

The mechanism of action of ciprofloxacin is

back 73

inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.

front 74

How does resistance to drugs spread in bacterial populations?

back 74

Horizontal gene transfer between bacteria spreads R (resistance) plasmids.

front 75

The therapeutic range of an antimicrobial is the

back 75

range of concentrations at which the antimicrobial is both effective and non-toxic.

front 76

Which of the following statements concerning transcription in bacteria is FALSE?

back 76

Different RNA polymerases are required for synthesis of mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA.

front 77

The production of NADH takes place during the ________ stage(s) of glycolysis.

back 77

energy-conservation