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Exam 3

front 1 The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the skin parental route mucous membrane All of these portals are used equally	back 1 mucous membrane
front 2 The ability of some microbes such as Trypanosoma or Giardia to alter their surface molecules and evade destruction by the host's antibodies is called cytopathic effect antigenic variation virulence cytocidal effect lysogenic conversion	back 2 antigenic variation
front 3 Siderophores are bacterial proteins that complete with the host's receptors red blood cells white blood cells iron-transport proteins antibodies	back 3 iron-transport proteins
front 4 Bacterium - ID50 E.coli O157:H7 - 20 Legionella pneumophilia - 1 Shigella - 10 Treponema pallidum - 57 Which organism in Table 15.2 most easily causes an infection? Shigella E.coli O157:H7 Treponema pallidum Legionella pneumophilia The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided	back 4 Legionella pneumophila

front 5 All of the following are used by bacteria to attach to host cells EXCEPT A-B toxins fimbriae M protein ligands capsules	back 5 A-B toxins
front 6 Bacteria such as E.coli and Salmonella produce invasins that bind host cells, thus causing the cells to release TNF destroy the bacteria engulf the bacteria produce iron-binding proteins release cytokines	back 6 engulf the bacteria
front 7 The best descriptions of direct damage by a pathogen is poisonous substances secreted by viruses kill cells host cells destroyed when pathogens metabolize and multiply protein synthesis is interrupted by toxins capsule components of pathogen kill cells superantigens cause cytokine release which then cause symptoms of disease	back 7 host cells destroyed when pathogens metabolize and multiply
front 8 Many pathogens use the same portal for entry and exit from the body True False	back 8 True

front 9 For each of the following statements, select whether the statement BEST applies to exotoxins or endotoxins. Lipid portions of the outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria - Superantigens are a type of - Low LD50 - Can trigger low blood pressure and fever -	back 9 Endotoxin Exotoxin Exotoxin Endotoxin
front 10 All of the following are examples of entry via the parenteral route EXCEPT surgery bite injection skin cute ingestion	back 10 ingestion
front 11 Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce exotoxins cytokines interferons leukocidins endotoxins	back 11 cytokines
front 12 Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages kill the bacteria, causing the release of endotoxins produce toxins carry plasmids give new gene sequences to the host bacteria kill human cells	back 12 give new gene sequences to the host bacteria

front 13 Polio is transmitted by ingestion of water contaminated with feces containing the polio virus. What portal of entry does the polio virus use? skin, parenteral and mucous membranes parenteral only skin and parenteral mucous membranes only skin only	back 13 mucous membranes only
front 14 Most pathogens that gain access through the skin enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate must be injected just infect the skin itself can penetrate intact skin	back 14 enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts
front 15 Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat viral infections Gram-positive bacterial infections protozoan infections gram-negative bacterial infections helminth infestations	back 15 gram-negative bacterial infections
front 16 Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect of viruses? toxin production inclusion bodies forming in the cytoplasm or nucleus cell death host cells fusing to form multinucleated syncytia increased cell growth	back 16 toxin production

front 17 The table shows the ID50 for Staphylococcus aureus in wounds with and without the administration of ampicillin before surgery. Based on the data, the administration of ampicillin before surgery decrease the risk of staphylococcal infection has no effect on risk of infection increases the risk of staphylococcal infection replaces tetracycline The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided	back 17 decreases the risk of staohylococcal infection
front 18 Patients developed inflammation a few hours following eye surgery. Instruments and solutions were sterile, and the Limulus assay was positive. The patients' inflammation was due to bacterial infection exotoxin endotoxin viral infection The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided	back 18 endotoxin
front 19 Match each of the following virulence factor with its effect Capsules - M protein - Coagulase - Ligands -	back 19 Evade phagocytosis Evade phagocytosis Forms fibrinogen clots Adhere to host cells
front 20 A commensal bacterium does not receive any benefit from its host isn't capable of causing disease in its host is beneficial to its host may become an opportunistic pathogen always cause disease in its host	back 20 may become an opportunistic pathogen

front 21 The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can be directly attributed to None of the answers is correct vaccinations antibiotic-resistant microorganisms improved handwashing increased use of antibiotics	back 21 vaccinations
front 22 Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of healthcare-associated infections? antibiotic resistance lapse in aseptic techniques gram-negative cell walls lack of disinfecting surfaces lack of handwriting	back 22 gram-negative cell walls
front 23 Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease? AIDS typhoid fever tuberculosis tetanus malaria	back 23 tetanus
front 24 Which of the following is a fomite? droplets from a sneeze pus insects water a hypodermic needle	back 24 a hypodermic needle

front 25 Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE? The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector The pathogen reproduces in the vector The pathogen may require the vector as a host The pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces Houseflies are an important vector for biological transmission	back 25 Houseflies are an important vector for biological transmission
front 26 Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms are changes felt by the patient are specific for a particular disease are changes observed by the physician always occur as part of a syndrome	back 26 are changes felt by the patient
front 27 Shows the incidence of influenza during a typical year in the northern hemisphere. Which letter on the graph indicates the endemic level? a b c d	back 27 d
front 28 Which level indicates the gradual end of the epidemic outbreak? c d b a	back 28 c

front 29 A healthcare-associated infection (traditionally known as a nosocomial infection) is always caused by pathogenic bacteria always caused by medical personnel only a result of surgery always present, but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization acquired during the course of hospitalization	back 29 acquired during the course of hospitalization
front 30 When is the prevalence the highest? February January July March	back 30 February
front 31 A disease in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time before producing symptoms is referred to as subacute latent subclinical acute zoonotic	back 31 latent
front 32 In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor? salmonellosis anthrax urinary tract infections pneumonia tetanus	back 32 urinary tract infections

front 33 The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that microorganisms cause disease diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another microorganisms can be cultured microorganisms are present in a diseased animal microorganisms are the result of disease	back 33 microorganisms cause disease
front 34 The yeast Candida albicans does NOT normally cause disease because of parasitic bacteria commensal bacteria other fungi symbiotic bacteria mutualistic bacteria	back 34 mutualistic bacteria
front 35 If a prodromal period exists for a certain disease , it should occur prior to decline incubation convalescence illness	back 35 illness
front 36 The graph shows the incidence of polio in the United States. The period 1945 and 1955 indicates a(n) epidemic level communicable disease sporadic infection pandemic endemic level	back 36 epidemic level

front 37 Interpreting this graph, can we conclude that polio has been eradicated globally? Why or why not? No, because the graph only depicts incidence of polio in the United States No, because polio is part of the normal microbiota, and could become resurgent if vaccination efforts lapse Yes, because a zero incidence rate for over 40 years clearly indicates there are no longer any susceptibles left in the global population Yes, as the number of reported cases goes to zero around 1965	back 37 No, because the graph only depicts incidence of polio in the United States
front 38 Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection? HIV measels diphtheria tuberculosis the common cold	back 38 HIV
front 39 Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission involves reproduction of a pathogen in an arthropod vector prior to transmission works only with noncommunicable disease requires direct contact involves fomites occurs when a pathogen is carried on the feet of an insect	back 39 involves reproduction of a pathogen in an arthropod vector prior to transmission
front 40 Focal infections initially start out as septicemia sepsis local infections bacteremia systemic infections	back 40 local infections

front 41 Which of the following statements about the human microbiome is false? The relationship between a person and their normal microbiota can be categorized as parasitism A person's microbiome begins to be established at birth The normal microbiota can produce substances that keep out pathogenic microbes The composition of the microbiome can change over the course of a person's lifetime Babies born vaginally may have a different microbiome than babies born via C-section	back 41 The relationship between a person and their normal microbiota can be categorized as parasitism
front 42 The etiologic agent of COVID-19 is bacterium True False	back 42 False
front 43 Match the following terms with the correct definition Communicable disease - Contagious disease - Endemic disease - Pandemic disease - Acute disease -	back 43 A disease that can be spread from A communicable disease that is A disease that is always present A disease that is present as an e A disease where symptoms develope
front 44 Match the following terms with the BEST example endemic disease - syndrome - pandemic disease - acute disease - secondary infection -	back 44 malaria in some regions of Africa irritable bowel syndrome COVID-19 the common cold pneumonia

front 45 Which of the following might violate (go against) Koch's postulates? Some cattle that died of anthrax had the pathogen Bacillus anthracis while others did not When the healthy cow that contracted anthrax and died of anthrax was examined, Bacillus anthracis was found in its bloodstream When the lab-cultured Bacillus anthracis was inculated into a healthy cow, the cow contracted anthrax Bacillus anthracis was grown in pure culture in the lab	back 45 Some cattle that died of anthrax had the pathogen Bacillus anthracis while others did not.
front 46 Innate immunity is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens is nonspecific and present at birth involves a memory component inloves T cells and B cells provides increased susceptibility to disease	back 46 is nonspecific and present at birth
front 47 Innate immunity includes all of the following except production of antibody phagocytosis production of interferon inflammation activation of complement	back 47 production of antibody
front 48 All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection except the "cillary escalator" tears multiple layers of cells hydrochloric acid saliva	back 48 hydrochloric acid

front 49 All of the following increase blood vessels permeability except kinins lysozymes leukotrienes histamine prostaglandins	back 49 lysozymes
front 50 A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skinn and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes? normal skin flora mucociliary escalator phagocytosis in the inflammatory response acidic skin secretions lysozyme	back 50 phagocytosis in the inflammatory response
front 51 Which of the following is mismatched? pus- tissue debris and dead phagocytes in a white or yellow fluid diapedesis - movement of leukocytes between capillary walls cells out of blood and into tissue abscess - a cavity created by tissue damage and filled with pus chemotaxis - chemical degradation inside a phagolysosome scab - dried blood clot over injured tissue	back 51 chemotaxis - chemical degradation inside a phagolysosome
front 52 A chill is a sign that the metabolic rate is decreasing blood vessels are dilating body temperature is not changing body temperature is rising body temperature is falling	back 52 body temperature is rising

front 53 Normal microbiota provide protection from infection in each of the following ways except they make the chemical environment unsuitable for nonresident bateria they produce lysozyme they compete with pathogens for nutrients they produce antibacterial chemicals they change the pH of the environment	back 53 they produce lysozyme
front 54 Each of the following is an effect of complement activation except increased phagocytic activity increased blood vessel permeability bacterial cell lysis interference with viral replication opsonization	back 54 interference with viral replication
front 55 Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths? basophils eosinophils monocytes lymphocytes neutrophils	back 55 eosinophils
front 56 Which non-specific defense mechanism is mismatched with its associated body structure or body fluid? lacrimal apparatus - eye mucocillary escalator - intestines keratin and tightly packed cells - skin very acidic pH - stomach lysozyme - tears and saliva	back 56 mucocillary escalator - intestines

front 57 Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they both cause damge to the bacterial cell membrane capsule ribosomes cell wall DNA	back 57 cell wall
front 58 All of the following are iron-binding proteins found in humans except lactoferrin ferritin siderophorin transferrin	back 58 siderophorin
front 59 Please match the following terms with the correct description margination - alpha and beta-interferons - ciliary escalator - opsonization - cytokines -	back 59 gathering of phagocytic white blood stimulates unifected cells to produce antiviral proteind propels trapped microorganisms away from the lungs increases adherence of phagocy signals the hypothalamus to pro
front 60 Place the steps in the right order. Fill in the blanks with numbers 1-6.	back 60

front 61 An abnormally high body temperature is called a ________. hypothermia fever cytokine storm shock response	back 61 fever
front 62 Which of the following is an effect of opsonization? cytolysis increased diapedesis of phagocytes inflammation increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms increased margiation of phagocytes	back 62 increased adherence of phagocyres to microorganisms
front 63 All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection except multiple layers of cells the "ciliary escalator" saliva HCI tears	back 63 HCI
front 64 All of the following are effects of kinins except drawing in neutrophils to infected or injure area increased blood vessels permeability chemotaxis of phagocytic granulocytes production of antibodies vasodilation	back 64 production of antibodies

front 65 Which non-specific defense mechanism is mismatched with its associated body structure or body fluid? cilary escalator - intestines very acidic pH - stomach cerumen and sebum - ear lysozyme - tears and saliva keratin and tightly packed cells - skin	back 65 cilary escalator - intestines
front 66 TLRs attach to all of the following except PAMPs lipopolysaccharide outer membrane antimicrobial peptides flagellin peptidogylcan	back 66 antimicrobial peptides
front 67 Match the following leukocytes with the correct description Monocytes - Lymphocytes - Basophils - Eosinophils -	back 67 Mature into phagocytic macrop Play a role in adaptive immunity Play a role in allergic responses Target parasites and helminths
front 68 The body has two circulatory systems, the lymphatic system and the blood circulatory system True False	back 68 True

front 69 Fill in the following table with the information about phagocytosis	back 69
front 70 Which of the following is the best definition of epitope? specfic regions on antigens that interact with MHC class molecules specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies specific regions on antigens that interact with haptens specific regions on antigens that interact with perforins specific regions on antigens that interact with T-cell receptors	back 70 specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies
front 71 Which areas are different for all IgM antibodies? c and d b and c a and c a nd b	back 71 a and b
front 72 Which of the follwoing is the best defintion of antigen? a pathogen a chemical taht elicts an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies a chemical that combines with antibodies a protein that combines with antibodies something foreign in the body	back 72 a chemical that elicts an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies

front 73 Which of the following statements is NOT a possible outcome of antigen-antibody reaction? neutralization opsonization agglutination clonal deletion activation of complement	back 73 clonal deletion
front 74 When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as opsonization agglutination neutralization apoptosis	back 74 neutralization
front 75 Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II? basophil TH cell natural killer cell TC cell B cell	back 75 TH cell
front 76 Which of the following destroys virus-infected cells? TH CTL B cells T reg dendritic cells	back 76 CTL

front 77 The specificity of an antibody is due to the H chains the constant portions of the H and L chains its valence the variable portions of the H and L chains the L chains	back 77 the variable portions of the H and L chains
front 78 Which one of the following causes transmembrane channels in target cells? IL-1 IL-2 granzymes hapten perforin	back 78 perforin
front 79 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells? They have antibodies on their surfaces They recognize antigens associated with MHC I. They originate in bone marrow. They are responsible for the memory response. They are responsible for antibody formation.	back 79 They recognize antigens associated with MHC I.
front 80 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity? Response to abnormal cells The cells originate in bone marrow Cells mature in the thymus gland B cells make antibodies T cells interact with epitiopes in MHC molecules	back 80 B cells make antibodies

front 81 Which areas are similar for all IgG antibodies? a and c b and c a and b c and d b an d	back 81 c and d
front 82 Which letter on the graph indicates the patient's secondary response to a repeated exposure with the identical antigen? b c a d	back 82 c
front 83 Which of the following is not a professional antigen-presenting cell? T cells Dendritic cells B cells Macrophages	back 83 T cells
front 84 Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II? natural killer cell Cytotoxin T cell Helper T cell basophil regulatory T cell	back 84 Helper T cell

front 85 ADCC is a process that is most effective in destroying bacterial toxins eukaryotic pathogens extracellular viruses prions bacterial pathogens	back 85 eukaryotic pathogens
front 86 Which of the following WBCs are not lymphocytes? macrophages helper t cells NK cells B cells cytotoxic t cells	back 86 macrophages
front 87 Which of the following is involved in ensuring that a mother's antibodies do not react against her fetus? Helper T cells Cytotoxic T lymphocytes Treg cells Antigen presenting cells	back 87 Treg cells
front 88 Which of the following is the best definition of antigen? a molecule that can bind to antibodies and cause more antibodies to be produced something foreign in the body a pathogen a virus a protein that combines with antibodies	back 88 a molecule that can bind to antibodies to be produced

front 89 Please match the type of immunity with correct example Naturally acquired active immunity - Naturally acquired passive immunity - Artificially acquired active immunity - Artificially acquired passive immunity	back 89 Recovery from mumps A baby receives antibodies from Vaccination A susceptible individual recieving
front 90 PLease match each of the following descriptions to the right class of antibodies Large antibodies that cause agglutination of pathogens Found in mucus, tears and saliva Respond and bind to parasitic worms First to respond to an infection Able to cross the placenta	back 90 IgM IgA IgE IgM IgG
front 91 The secondary immune response takes longer to be activated compared to primary immune response. True False	back 91 False
front 92 Arrange the following steps of B cell activation in the right order.	back 92