front 1 1) All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT A) it is also known as "sleeping sickness." B) all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts. C) it is transmitted by the tsetse fly. D) death ultimately occurs without proper treatment. E) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is the more common cause of disease. | back 1 B) all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts. |
front 2 2) Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because A) no medications exist for treatment of these infections. B) antibiotics damage nervous tissue. C) many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier. D) the infections move along peripheral nerves. E) it is very difficult to determine the causative microbe. | back 2 C) many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier. |
front 3 3) All of the following organisms cause meningitis EXCEPT A) Neisseria meningitidis. B) Haemophilus influenzae. C) Cryptococcus neoformans. D) Streptococcus pneumoniae. E) Mycobacterium leprae. | back 3 E) Mycobacterium leprae. |
front 4 4) All of the following organisms are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT A) Neisseria meningitidis. B) Haemophilus influenzae. C) Listeria monocytogenes. D) Cryptococcus neoformans. E) None of the answers is correct; all of these organisms are transmitted by the respiratory route. | back 4 C) Listeria monocytogenes. |
front 5 5) Which of the following statements about rabies is FALSE? A) It is caused by Lyssavirus. B) Hydrophobia is associated with the disease. C) Most infections in the U.S. are the result of bites from infected dogs. D) Diagnosis is based on immunofluorescent techniques. E) Average incubation period is 30 to 50 days after initial infection. | back 5 C) Most infections in the U.S. are the result of bites from infected dogs. |
front 6 6) The symptoms of tetanus are due to A) endospore formation. B) systemic infection. C) sustained relaxation of muscles. D) tetanospasmin. E) inflammation. | back 6 D) tetanospasmin. |
front 7 7) All of the following diseases are caused by arbovirus EXCEPT A) St. Louis encephalitis. B) eastern equine encephalitis. C) West Nile encephalitis. D) primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM). E) None of the answers is correct; all of these diseases are caused by arbovirus. | back 7 D) primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM). |
front 8 8) A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Any of the following organisms could be responsible for her symptoms EXCEPT A) Clostridium botulinum. B) Listeria monocytogenes. C) Haemophilus influenza. D) Streptococcus pneumoniae. E) Any of these organisms could be the causative agent. | back 8 A) Clostridium botulinum. |
front 9 9) The most effective control of mosquito-borne disease is A) treatment of infected humans. B) treatment of infected wild animals. C) elimination of the mosquito population. D) avoidance of endemic areas. E) treatment of uninfected humans. | back 9 C) elimination of the mosquito population. |
front 10 10) Initial treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person with a puncture wound is A) tetanus toxoid. B) tetanus immune globulin. C) penicillin. D) none; no action is necessary. E) debridement. | back 10 B) tetanus immune globulin. |
front 11 11) Initial treatment for tetanus in a fully immunized person with a puncture wound is A) tetanus toxoid. B) tetanus immune globulin. C) penicillin. D) DTaP. E) debridement. | back 11 A) tetanus toxoid. |
front 12 12) The most common route of central nervous system invasion by pathogens is through A) the skin. B) the circulatory system. C) the gastrointestinal system. D) the parenteral route. E) direct penetration into nerves. | back 12 B) the circulatory system. |
front 13 13) A pathologist detects Negri bodies while examining a brain section taken at autopsy. What was the cause of death? A) rabies B) meningococcal meningitis C) eastern equine encephalitis D) Hansen's disease E) poliomyelitis | back 13 A) rabies |
front 14 14) Encephalitis is more common in the summer months because A) pathogens are present in swimming pools and lakes. B) ameba populations increase in swimming pools. C) ticks are encountered while hiking in the woods. D) mosquito populations increase. E) people encounter more bats during warm summer evenings. | back 14 D) mosquito populations increase. |
front 15 15) Each of the following is caused by prions EXCEPT A) sheep scrapie. B) kuru. C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. D) bovine spongiform encephalopathy. E) rabies. | back 15 E) rabies. |
front 16 16) All of the following are true of chronic fatigue syndrome EXCEPT A) it may have a genetic component. B) it is also known as myalgic encephalomyelitis. C) it is a psychological disorder. D) it often begins with flu-like symptoms that do not go away. E) it may be triggered by a viral infection. | back 16 C) it is a psychological disorder. |
front 17 17) A physician diagnoses a patient with lepromatous Hansen's disease. All of the following pertain to the patient EXCEPT A) disfiguring nodules form all over the body. B) the disease has progressed from the tuberculoid stage. C) a skin biopsy will be taken to aid diagnosis. D) treatment will include injections of penicillin. E) infection probably occurred as a result of prolonged contact with another infected individual. | back 17 D) treatment will include injections of penicillin. |
front 18 18) Arboviruses cause ________ and are transmitted by ________. A) meningitis; bee stings B) meningitis; mosquitoes C) encephalitis; dog bites D) encephalitis; mosquitoes E) both meningitis and encephalitis; mosquitoes | back 18 D) encephalitis; mosquitoes |
front 19 19) Naegleria fowleri meningoencephalitis is commonly acquired by A) exposure to bird droppings. B) mosquito bites. C) swimming in warm ponds or streams. D) ingestion of water contaminated with fecal material. E) exposure to body fluids of a contaminated individual. | back 19 C) swimming in warm ponds or streams. |
front 20 20) Which one of the following causes the most severe illness in humans, with a mortality rate of 30 percent? A) western equine encephalitis B) eastern equine encephalitis C) St. Louis encephalitis D) California encephalitis E) West Nile encephalitis | back 20 B) eastern equine encephalitis |
front 21 21) Which of the following is/are a free-living amoeba that can cause encephalitis? A) Acanthamoeba B) Naegleria C) Entamoeba D) Naegleria and Acanthamoeba E) Entamoeba and Naegleria | back 21 D) Naegleria and Acanthamoeba |
front 22 22) Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. What is the organism? A) Haemophilus B) Listeria C) Naegleria D) Neisseria E) Streptococcus | back 22 B) Listeria |
front 23 23) Which of the following statements about sepsis is FALSE? A) Symptoms include fever and decreased blood pressure. B) Lymphangitis may occur. C) It can be treated with antibiotics. D) It usually is caused by gram-positive bacteria. E) It may be aggravated by antibiotics. | back 23 D) It usually is caused by gram-positive bacteria. |
front 24 24) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) subacute bacterial endocarditis — alpha-hemolytic streptococci B) acute bacterial endocarditis — Staphylococcus aureus C) pericarditis — Streptococcus pyogenes D) puerperal sepsis — Staphylococcus aureus E) Burkitt's lymphoma — Epstein-Barr virus | back 24 D) puerperal sepsis — Staphylococcus aureus |
front 25 25) Which of the following is NOT a recognized form of anthrax? A) cutaneous B) inhalationial C) septic D) gastrointestinal E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are recognized forms of anthrax. | back 25 C) septic |
front 26 26) Which of the following is NOT typically treated with penicillin? A) serious wounds at risk for gas gangrene B) tularemia C) patients at risk for rheumatic fever D) puerperal sepsis E) rat-bite fever | back 26 B) tularemia |
front 27 27) Which of the following statements about tularemia is FALSE? A) It is caused by Francisella tularensis. B) The most common reservoir is rabbits. C) It may be transmitted by arthropods. D) It may be transmitted by direct contact. E) It occurs only in California. | back 27 E) It occurs only in California. |
front 28 28) Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis? A) gastroenteritis B) relapsing fever C) undulant fever D) pneumonia E) jaundice | back 28 C) undulant fever |
front 29 29) Which of the following is NOT transmitted in raw milk? A) toxoplasmosis B) anthrax C) brucellosis D) listeriosis E) All of these can be transmitted in raw milk. | back 29 A) toxoplasmosis |
front 30 30) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis? A) is aerobic B) is gram-positive C) forms endospores D) found in soil E) produces endotoxins | back 30 E) produces endotoxins |
front 31 31) The symptoms of gas gangrene are due to all of the following EXCEPT A) microbial fermentation. B) necrotizing exotoxins. C) proteolytic enzymes. D) hyaluronidase. E) endocarditis | back 31 E) endocarditis |
front 32 32) Which of the following bacterial infections CANNOT be transmitted by dog or cat bites? A) Pasteurella multocida B) Streptobacillus C) Bartonella henselae D) Fusobacterium E) None of the answers is correct; all of these bacterial infections can be transmitted by dog or cat bites. | back 32 B) Streptobacillus |
front 33 33) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) malaria — Anopheles (mosquito) B) dengue — Aedes (mosquito) C) epidemic typhus — Pediculus (louse) D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever — Dermacentor (tick) E) encephalitis — Ixodes (tick) | back 33 E) encephalitis — Ixodes (tick) |
front 34 34) Unsanitary and crowded conditions increase the incidence of all of the following diseases EXCEPT A) plague. B) epidemic typhus. C) endemic murine typhus. D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E) relapsing fever. | back 34 D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever. |
front 35 35) Which of the following statements about toxoplasmosis is FALSE? A) It is caused by a protozoan. B) The reservoir is cats. C) It is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route. D) It is a severe illness in adults. E) It can be congenital. | back 35 D) It is a severe illness in adults. |
front 36 36) Which of the following pairs does NOT apply to Chagas' disease? A) causative agent — Trypanosoma cruzi B) vector — kissing bug C) reservoir — rodents D) diagnosis of acute phase — serological tests for antibodies E) treatment — nifurtimox | back 36 D) diagnosis of acute phase — serological tests for antibodies |
front 37 37) Which of the following is NOT caused by a bacterium? A) epidemic typhus B) tickborne typhus C) malaria D) plague E) relapsing fever | back 37 C) malaria |
front 38 38) A patient presents with inflammation of the heart valves, fever, malaise, and subcutaneous nodules at joints. The recommended treatment is A) supportive care. B) streptomycin. C) chloroquine. D) hyperbaric chamber. E) praziquantel. | back 38 A) supportive care. |
front 39 39) Which of the following statements about puerperal sepsis is FALSE? A) It is transmitted from mother to fetus. B) It is caused by health care personnel. C) It begins as a focal infection. D) It is a complication of abortion or childbirth. E) Its frequency of occurrence has decreased because of antibiotics and aseptic techniques. | back 39 A) It is transmitted from mother to fetus. |
front 40 40) Which of the following statements about schistosomiasis is FALSE? A) The cercariae penetrate human skin. B) They symptoms are caused by immune reactions to the eggs shed in the human host. C) The intermediate host is an aquatic snail. D) It is caused by a roundworm. E) The female worm lives in a groove that runs down the body of the male. | back 40 D) It is caused by a roundworm. |
front 41 41) Which of the following statements about rheumatic fever is FALSE? A) It is a complication of a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection. B) It is an inflammation of the heart. C) It is an inflammation of the joints. D) It is rarely fatal, even when untreated. E) The incidence has declined in the last ten years. | back 41 D) It is rarely fatal, even when untreated. |
front 42 42) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Rickettsia — intracellular parasite B) Brucella — gram-negative aerobic rods C) Francisella — gram-positive facultatively anaerobic pleomorphic bacillus D) Bacillus — gram-positive endospore-forming rods E) None of the pairs is mismatched. | back 42 C) Francisella — gram-positive facultatively anaerobic pleomorphic bacillus |
front 43 43) The lower respiratory tract is protected by all of the following EXCEPT A) competition with the normal flora of the lungs. B) IgA antibodies. C) mucous secretions. D) the ciliary escalator. E) alveolar macrophages. | back 43 A) competition with the normal flora of the lungs. |
front 44 44) Which of the following is mismatched? A) pharyngitis — sore throat B) laryngitis — voice loss C) epiglottitis — sore throat D) sinusitis — headache and nasal mucous E) otitis media — earache | back 44 C) epiglottitis — sore throat |
front 45 45) Members of the group A streptococci (GAS) cause all of the following EXCEPT A) strep throat. B) scarlet fever. C) rheumatic fever. D) pharyngitis. E) epiglottitis. | back 45 E) epiglottitis. |
front 46 46) Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of influenza? A) fever B) chills C) headache D) diarrhea E) muscle aches | back 46 D) diarrhea |
front 47 47) Which of the following is mismatched? A) Corynebacterium — gram-positive rod B) Mycobacterium — acid-fast rod C) Mycoplasma — gram-positive pleomorphic rod D) Bordetella — gram-negative pleomorphic rod E) Haemophilus — gram-negative rod | back 47 C) Mycoplasma — gram-positive pleomorphic rod |
front 48 48) Which of the following microorganisms causes symptoms most like tuberculosis? A) Histoplasma B) Coccidioides C) Legionella D) Mycoplasma E) Influenza virus | back 48 A) Histoplasma |
front 49 49) All of the following can lead to a positive tuberculin skin test EXCEPT A) vaccination. B) current tuberculosis infection. C) previous tuberculosis infection. D) immunity to tuberculosis. E) being near someone with tuberculosis. | back 49 E) being near someone with tuberculosis. |
front 50 50) Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its vaccine? A) tuberculosis — toxoid B) whooping cough — heat-killed bacteria C) diphtheria — toxoid D) influenza — viruses grown in embryonated eggs E) pneumococcal pneumonia — capsular polysaccharides | back 50 A) tuberculosis — toxoid |
front 51 51) Which of the following diseases has a cutaneous form, especially in individuals over 30 years of age? A) coccidioidomycosis B) diphtheria C) legionellosis D) scarlet fever E) psittacosis | back 51 B) diphtheria |
front 52 52) Which of the following requires treatment with both antibiotics and antitoxins? A) diphtheria B) tuberculosis C) whooping cough D) scarlet fever E) psittacosis | back 52 A) diphtheria |
front 53 53) Which of the following causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients? A) Pneumocystis B) Aspergillus C) Rhizopus D) Mucor E) All of the answers are correct. | back 53 E) All of the answers are correct. |
front 54 54) All of the following are true of the common cold EXCEPT A) it is caused by rhinoviruses and coronaviruses. B) it is transmitted via aerosols and contact. C) early treatment will drastically reduce the disease symptoms. D) complications include laryngitis and otitis media. E) the duration of symptoms is approximately one week. | back 54 C) early treatment will drastically reduce the disease symptoms. |
front 55 55) The most effective means of preventing influenza is A) annual vaccination. B) isolation of carriers. C) vector control. D) pasteurization of milk. E) administration of amantadine. | back 55 A) annual vaccination. |
front 56 56) All of the following are used as first-line drugs for treating tuberculosis EXCEPT A) ethambutol. B) isoniazid. C) fluoroquinolones. D) rifampin. E) pyrazinamide. | back 56 C) fluoroquinolones. |
front 57 57) Which of the following statements regarding tuberculosis is FALSE? A) Nearly 1/3 of the world's population is infected with tuberculosis. B) Nearly 1/3 of the world's population shows symptoms of tuberculosis. C) It is responsible for nearly 2 million deaths per year. D) At least 1/3 of those who are TB-positive are also HIV-positive. E) Treatment requires at least six months of antibiotic therapy. | back 57 B) Nearly 1/3 of the world's population shows symptoms of tuberculosis. |
front 58 58) A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli, and a positive tuberculin skin test. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most likely has A) tuberculosis. B) influenza. C) pneumococcal pneumonia. D) mycoplasmal pneumonia. E) the common cold. | back 58 C) pneumococcal pneumonia. |
front 59 59) Which of the following is responsible for epidemics of respiratory disease in infants? A) rhinovirus B) adenovirus C) respiratory syncytial virus D) influenza E) Mycoplasma | back 59 C) respiratory syncytial virus |
front 60 60) Legionella is transmitted by A) airborne transmission. B) foodborne transmission. C) person-to-person contact. D) fomites. E) vectors. | back 60 A) airborne transmission. |
front 61 61) It is common for a normal, healthy individual to carry potentially pathogenic organisms in their upper respiratory tract. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 61 A) TRUE |
front 62 62) Most cases of sinusitis and otitis media will not resolve unless they are treated with antibiotics. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 62 B) FALSE |
front 63 63) The symptoms of diphtheria are due to an exotoxin that blocks proteins synthesis in host cells. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 63 A) TRUE |
front 64 64) The most common causative agent of bacterial pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 64 A) TRUE |
front 65 65) A positive tuberculosis skin test indicates that the patient has active tuberculosis. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 65 B) FALSE |
front 66 66) Vaccination with the influenza vaccine confers lifelong immunity to influenza virus. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 66 B) FALSE |
front 67 67) Coccidioides immitis causes Valley fever, a disease that is endemic to the Mississippi Valley. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 67 B) FALSE |
front 68 68) Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes atypical pneumonia, also known as "walking pneumonia." A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 68 A) TRUE |
front 69 69) Risks for Q fever include contact with infected cattle and drinking unpasteurized milk. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 69 A) TRUE |
front 70 70) Infections with Legionella pneumophila are usually transmitted via aerosols from contaminated air conditioning systems, showers, and humidifiers. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 70 A) TRUE |
front 71 71) Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries? A) sucrose B) lysozyme C) lactic acid D) crevicular fluid E) dentin | back 71 C) lactic acid |
front 72 72) Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by A) eating contaminated food. B) a blood transfusion. C) extended use of antibiotics. D) improper food storage. E) travel to an underdeveloped country. | back 72 C) extended use of antibiotics. |
front 73 73) Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE? A) It is a bacterial infection. B) Severity of disease depends on number of organisms ingested. C) A healthy carrier state exists. D) The mortality rate is high. E) It is often associated with poultry products. | back 73 D) The mortality rate is high. |
front 74 74) Disease-causing exotoxins are produced by all of the following organisms EXCEPT A) Clostridium perfringens. B) Vibrio cholerae. C) Shigella dysenteriae. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Clostridium botulinum. | back 74 C) Shigella dysenteriae. |
front 75 75) Which one of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route? A) staphylococcal enterotoxicosis B) mumps C) Vibrio gastroenteritis D) bacillary dysentery E) traveler's diarrhea | back 75 B) mumps |
front 76 76) Which of the following helminthic diseases is a common infestation found in the southeastern United States? A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Ascaris lumbricoides C) Taenia saginata D) Trichuris trichiura E) Echinococcus granulosus | back 76 B) Ascaris lumbricoides |
front 77 77) Poultry products are a likely source of infection by A) Helicobacter pylori. B) Salmonella enterica. C) Vibrio cholerae. D) Shigella E) Clostridium perfringens. | back 77 B) Salmonella enterica. |
front 78 78) All of the following infections can result from drinking contaminated water EXCEPT A) Cyclospora B) giardiasis. C) trichinellosis. D) cholera. E) cryptosporidiosis. | back 78 C) trichinellosis. |
front 79 79) Which of the following organisms feeds on red blood cells? A) Giardia lamblia B) Escherichia coli C) Taenia D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus E) Entamoeba histolytica | back 79 E) Entamoeba histolytica |
front 80 80) In humans, beef tapeworm infestations are acquired by ingesting A) the eggs of Taenia saginata. B) segments of Taenia solium C) water contaminated with Diphyllobothrium latum D) cysticerci of Taenia saginata in undercooked meat. E) cysticerci of Taenia solium in undercooked meat. | back 80 D) cysticerci of Taenia saginata in undercooked meat. |
front 81 81) Which of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning is FALSE? A) It is caused by ingesting an enterotoxin. B) It can be prevented by adequate refrigeration of food. C) It can be prevented by heating foods to 50°C for 15 minutes. D) It is treated by replacing water and electrolytes. E) It is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms. | back 81 C) It can be prevented by heating foods to 50°C for 15 minutes. |
front 82 82) The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is A) Shigella B) Salmonella enterica. C) Giardia lamblia. D) Escherichia coli. E) Campylobacter jejuni. | back 82 D) Escherichia coli. |
front 83 83) Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of two to three days and commonly affects children is probably caused by A) Giardia. B) rotavirus. C) Salmonella. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Trichinella. | back 83 B) rotavirus. |
front 84 84) Which of the following is mismatched? A) hydatid disease — humans are the definitive host B) Taenia infestation — humans are the definitive host C) trichinellosis — humans eat larva of parasite D) pinworm infestation — humans ingest parasite's eggs E) hookworm infestation — parasite bores through skin | back 84 A) hydatid disease — humans are the definitive host |
front 85 85) Thorough cooking of food will prevent all of the following EXCEPT A) trichinellosis. B) beef tapeworm. C) staphylococcal food poisoning. D) salmonellosis. E) shigellosis. | back 85 C) staphylococcal food poisoning. |
front 86 86) Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the A) mouth. B) stomach. C) stomach and small intestine. D) small intestine and large intestine. E) accessory structures. | back 86 D) small intestine and large intestine. |
front 87 87) Gums bleeding while brushing one's teeth is most commonly associated with A) halitosis. B) cavities. C) gingivitis. D) periodontitis. E) trench mouth. | back 87 C) gingivitis. |
front 88 88) Which of the following causes inflammation of the liver? A) Salmonella enterica B) Shigella C) hepatitis A virus D) Vibrio cholerae E) Escherichia coli | back 88 C) hepatitis A virus |
front 89 89) "Rice water stools" are characteristic of A) salmonellosis. B) cholera. C) bacillary dysentery. D) amebic dysentery. E) tapeworm infestation. | back 89 B) cholera. |
front 90 90) Epidemics related to bacterial infection of the digestive system are typically caused by A) biological vectors. B) contaminated food and water. C) unpasteurized milk. D) the respiratory route. E) exposure to contaminated soil. | back 90 B) contaminated food and water. |
front 91 91) Many bacterial infections of the lower digestive tract are treated with A) antitoxin. B) penicillin. C) water and electrolytes. D) quinacrine. E) thorough cooking. | back 91 C) water and electrolytes. |
front 92 92) Dental plaque is an example of A) a pellicle. B) a biofilm. C) gingivitis. D) dentin. E) tooth enamel. | back 92 B) a biofilm. |
front 93 93) Which of the following correctly lists the stages of tooth decay? A) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp B) decay in dentin, plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in tooth pulp C) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, decay in tooth pulp, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin D) destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, plaque accumulation, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp E) destruction of enamel, plaque accumulation, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp | back 93 A) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp |
front 94 94) Campylobacter gastroenteritis is the leading cause of foodborne illness in the United States. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 94 A) TRUE |
front 95 95) Dental caries can also be referred to as periodontal disease. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 95 B) FALSE |
front 96 96) Bacterial infections, but not intoxications, can cause diarrhea. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 96 B) FALSE |
front 97 97) An outbreak of viral gastroenteritis occurs in a pediatrics ward. Rotavirus is the most likely causative agent. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 97 A) TRUE |
front 98 98) Aflatoxin poisoning is associated with liver cancer. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 98 A) TRUE |
front 99 99) Approximately 30 percent of the body's immune system is located in the intestinal tract. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 99 B) FALSE |
front 100 100) Lactic acid, an end product of fructose fermentation, causes breakdown of tooth enamel and, eventually, cavities. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 100 A) TRUE |
front 101 101) Gastroenteritis due to ingestion of food contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus is due to intoxication by enterotoxins. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 101 A) TRUE |
front 102 102) EHEC is a major cause of diarrhea in developing countries and may result in the death of small children. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 102 B) FALSE |
front 103 103) H. pylori is able to survive the acidic environment of the stomach as a result of adaptations that allow it to increase the pH of the immediate environment. A) TRUE B) FALSE | back 103 A) TRUE |
front 104 104) Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of A) Lactobacillus. B) Streptococcus. C) Mycobacterium. D) Neisseria. E) Candida. | back 104 A) Lactobacillus. |
front 105 105) Cystitis is most often caused by A) Escherichia coli. B) Leptospira interrogans. C) Candida albicans. D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. | back 105 A) Escherichia coli. |
front 106 106) Pyelonephritis may result from A) urethritis. B) cystitis. C) ureteritis. D) systemic infections. E) All of the answers are correct. | back 106 E) All of the answers are correct. |
front 107 107) Which of the following is NOT primarily a sexually transmitted infection (STI)? A) lymphogranuloma venereum B) genital herpes C) gonorrhea D) chancroid E) trichomoniasis | back 107 E) trichomoniasis |
front 108 108) Which of the following is treated with penicillin? A) genital herpes B) genital warts C) candidiasis D) syphilis E) trichomoniasis | back 108 D) syphilis |
front 109 109) All of the following can cause congenital infection or infections of the newborn EXCEPT A) syphilis. B) gonorrhea. C) nongonococcal urethritis. D) genital herpes. E) lymphogranuloma venereum. | back 109 E) lymphogranuloma venereum. |
front 110 110) Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection? A) gonorrhea B) syphilis C) genital herpes D) chancroid E) LGV | back 110 C) genital herpes |
front 111 111) Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen? A) trichomoniasis B) genital herpes C) candidiasis D) gonorrhea E) chancroid | back 111 C) candidiasis |
front 112 112) The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ________ to ________ by bacteria. A) glucose; ethanol B) protein; acetic acid C) glycogen; lactic acid D) mucosal cells; lactic acid E) urine; lactic acid | back 112 C) glycogen; lactic acid |
front 113 113) A urine sample collected directly from the urinary bladder A) is sterile. B) contains fewer than 100 pathogens/ml. C) contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml. D) contains more than 100,000 pathogens/ml. E) has leukocyte esterase. | back 113 C) contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml. |
front 114 114) Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by A) Escherichia coli. B) Enterococcus. C) Proteus. D) Klebsiella. E) Pseudomonas. | back 114 A) Escherichia coli. |
front 115 115) The most common reportable disease in the United States is A) cystitis. B) lymphogranuloma venereum. C) gonorrhea. D) syphilis. E) candidiasis. | back 115 C) gonorrhea. |
front 116 116) Which of the following is NOT a complication of gonorrhea? A) arthritis B) pelvic inflammatory disease C) endocarditis D) meningitis E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are potential complications of gonorrhea. | back 116 E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are potential complications of gonorrhea. |
front 117 117) Which one of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE? A) It is transmitted by direct contact. B) It is caused by papillomaviruses. C) It is always precancerous. D) It is treated by removing them. E) It can lead to cervical cancer in women. | back 117 C) It is always precancerous. |
front 118 118) Which one of the following does NOT cause nongonococcal urethritis? A) Chlamydia B) Mycoplasma C) Neisseria D) Ureaplasma E) None of the answers is correct; all of these cause NGU. | back 118 C) Neisseria |
front 119 119) Infants born to asymptomatic mothers with recurrent genital herpes are less likely to acquire herpesvirus at birth than infants born to newly infected mothers because A) maternal antibodies offer protection. B) the disease cannot be transmitted to newborns. C) the disease is not communicable. D) prophylactic antibiotics are administered to the newborn. E) the virus is not growing. | back 119 A) maternal antibodies offer protection. |