front 1 the cardiovascular system delivers oxygenated blood to | back 1 tissues |
front 2 the cardiovascular system delivers deoxygenated blood to | back 2 heart |
front 3 when are some times that cardiac output will increase? | back 3
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front 4 what makes up the vascular system? | back 4
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front 5 what are the functions of the vascular system? | back 5
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front 6 arteries carry oxygenated blood, except the | back 6 pulmonary artery |
front 7 veins carry deoxygenated blood, except the | back 7 pulmonary vein |
front 8 workhorse of the vascular system? | back 8 capillary bed |
front 9 the amount of blood ejected from the left heart | back 9 cardiac output (CO) |
front 10 what is delivered to the tissues and what is removed in the capillary bed? | back 10
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front 11 what is the blood flow through a capillary bed? | back 11 artery to arteriole to metarteriole into the capillary |
front 12 what controls the blood flow through the capillary bed? | back 12 precapillary sphincter |
front 13 what are the layers of the heart? | back 13
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front 14 the thin outer layer of the heart that is continuous with the inner layer of the pericardial sac | back 14 epicardium |
front 15 thick middle layer of the heart that is the muscular layer responsible for the mechanical, contractile function of the heart | back 15 myocardium |
front 16 thin inner layer of the heart that is continuous with the inner layer, or endothelium, of the blood vessels | back 16 endocardium |
front 17 what are the chambers of the heart? | back 17
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front 18 which side of the heart has deoxygenated blood? | back 18 right |
front 19 which side of the heart has oxygenated blood? | back 19 left |
front 20 the heart needs valves to facilitate: | back 20 one-way flow |
front 21 there are ______________ between the atria and ventricles on the right and left | back 21 atrioventricular (AV) valves |
front 22 the AV valve between the R atrium and ventricle | back 22 tricuspid valve |
front 23 the AV valve between the L atrium and ventricle | back 23 bicuspid, or mitral valve |
front 24 during diastole, the AV valves are | back 24 open: allowing blood to flow into the ventricles |
front 25 valves present between the ventricles and their respective arteries | back 25 semilunar valves: pulmonary and aortic |
front 26 the pulmonary valve is located between the | back 26 R ventricle and pulmonary artery |
front 27 the aortic valve is located between the | back 27 L ventricle and aorta |
front 28 What is the composition of the heart? A. Four chambers with four valves that control flow through the heart and lungs through changes in pressure B. Four chambers and four valves that control flow through the heart and lungs through changes in oxygen levels C. Two chambers on the right receiving blood from the high-pressure venous system and two chambers on the left sending blood into the low-pressure arterial system D. Two chambers on the right receiving oxygenated blood from the venous system and two chambers on the left receiving deoxygenated blood from the pulmonary circuit | back 28 A |
front 29 what is the blood flow through the heart? | back 29
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front 30 what are the major vessels that supply blood to the heart? | back 30 left and right coronary arteries |
front 31 if the left coronary artery (LCA) is clogged, it is called | back 31 widow maker |
front 32 table 28.1 | back 32 no data |
front 33 if the right coronary artery is clogged, you will have problems with? | back 33 heart rate |
front 34 the normal pacemaker that has an inherent rate of 60 to 100 beats per minute | back 34 sinoatrial (SA) node |
front 35 in the absence of an impulse from the SA node, the ____________ can generate impulses at rates of 40 to 60 bpm | back 35 atrioventricular (AV) node |
front 36 the cells of the cardiac electrical conduction system that generate and conduct the action potential follow this pathway: | back 36
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front 37 what happens with the impulse at the Purkinje fibers? | back 37 fibers extend the impulse into the ventricular tissue, facilitating ventricular contraction |
front 38 if the SA and AV nodes fail, _____________ can generate impulses at a rate of 20 to 40 bpm | back 38 ventricular cells |
front 39 process in which the membrane potential changes or goes up and down in a consistent pattern | back 39 cardiac action potential |
front 40 difference in charge between the interior and exterior of the cell | back 40 membrane potential |
front 41 movement of ions preceding and facilitating cardiac mechanical contraction | back 41 depolarization |
front 42 movement of ions back to the resting state to allow for the initiation of another action potential | back 42 repolarization |
front 43 occurs during and immediately following depolarization; during this time, the cell is unresponsive to any stimulus | back 43 absolute refractory period |
front 44 immediately following the absolute refractory period is the | back 44 relative refractory period |
front 45 represents a time when a greater-than-normal stimulus may initiate an impulse | back 45 relative refractory period |
front 46 steps of the action potential? | back 46
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front 47 waveforms can be amplified and viewed on a paper tracing called | back 47 electrocardiogram (ECG) |
front 48 what are the parts of an ECG? | back 48
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front 49 the P wave corresponds to | back 49 atrial depolarization |
front 50 the PR interval is from the beginning of the _________ to the beginning of the ______ | back 50 from the beginning of the p wave to the beginning of the QRS complex (size measurement) |
front 51 what does the PR interval reflect? | back 51 time required for atrial depolarization and the delay of the impulse at the AV node (time measurement) |
front 52 the PR segment is the time immediately following _______ to beginning of ______ | back 52 immediately following P wave to beginning of QRS |
front 53 the QRS complex corresponds to | back 53 ventricular depolarization |
front 54 ventricular contraction occurs after the ______ in the ________ | back 54 occurs after the QRS complex in the ST segment |
front 55 the QRS interval reflects the time required for | back 55 ventricular depolarization |
front 56 the T wave corresponds to | back 56 ventricular repolarization |
front 57 the QT interval reflects time required for _______ and ______ | back 57 ventricular depolarization and repolarization |
front 58 Which is true of the electrical conduction system of the heart? A. It is primarily controlled by the movement of uncharged ions B. It has a positive resting membrane potential C. It is reflected in the waveforms on the electrocardiogram D. It requires cells that respond only to a stimulus from the autonomic nervous system | back 58 C. |
front 59 ventricular relaxation (filling of ventricles is first 2/3 of cycle) | back 59 diastole |
front 60 ventricular contraction (ejection of blood from the ventricles, last 1/3 of cycle) | back 60 systole |
front 61 reflection of the pressure generated during the cardiac cycle; represent the force exerted against the vessel wall by blood flow | back 61 blood pressure |
front 62 how is cardiac output calculated? | back 62 heart rate X stroke volume |
front 63 amount of blood ejected with each ventricular contraction | back 63 stroke volume |
front 64 stroke volume is affected by what 3 variables? | back 64
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front 65 amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole; also refers to the amount of stretch of the muscle tissue at the end of filling | back 65 preload |
front 66 resistance to flow the ventricle must overcome to open the semilunar valves and eject its contents | back 66 afterload |
front 67 refers to the force of the mechanical contraction | back 67 contractility |
front 68 contractility decreases in the face of | back 68
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front 69 A patient with hypertension has which physical symptom? A. Decreased resistance, which may increase CO B. Increased resistance, which may decrease CO C. Increased resistance, which may increase CO Decreased resistance, which may decrease CO | back 69 B |
front 70 what are some risk factors for cardiovascular disease (CVD)? | back 70
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front 71 closing of the AV valves; signifies the beginning of the ventricular systole | back 71 S1 |
front 72 closing of the semilunar valves; signifies the beginning of diastole | back 72 S2 |
front 73 what is the cause of the S1 heart sound? | back 73 closure of AV valves |
front 74 what is the description of the S1 heart sound? | back 74 lubb |
front 75 what is the cause of the S2 heart sound? | back 75 closure of semilunar valaves |
front 76 what is the description of the S2 heart sound? | back 76 dubb |
front 77 what is the cause of a systolic murmur? | back 77 valvular dz such as aortic stenosis |
front 78 what is the description of the systolic murmur sound? | back 78 turbulent flow heart |
front 79 when do we hear the systolic murmur? | back 79 systole between S1 and S2 |
front 80 what is the cause of a diastolic murmur? | back 80 valvular dz such as aortic or pulmonic regurgitation |
front 81 what is the description of a diastolic murmur? | back 81 turbulent flow heard |
front 82 when do we hear a diastolic murmur? | back 82 diastole after S2 |
front 83 what is the cause of a friction rub? | back 83 pericarditis |
front 84 what is the description of friction rub? | back 84 harsh, scratching sound |
front 85 when do we hear a friction rub sound? | back 85 anywhere during the cardiac cycle |
front 86 where is the aortic point? | back 86 R 2nd ICS |
front 87 where is the pulmonic point? | back 87 L 2nd ICS |
front 88 where is Erb's point? | back 88 L 3rd ICS |
front 89 where is the tricuspid point? | back 89 L 4th ICS |
front 90 where is the mitral point? | back 90 L 5th ICS/midclavicular line |
front 91 A nurse is providing care for a patient newly diagnosed with heart disease. Which dietary, activity, or lifestyle modification(s) should be included in the plan of care? (Select all that apply). A. Stopping smoking B. Drinking lots of water C. Limiting sedentary lifestyle D. Eating a diet rich in red meat and protein E. Limiting alcohol intake | back 91 A, C, and E |
front 92 auscultation of _______, ________, or ______ in the lung fields indicates the presence of fluid | back 92
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front 93 a lipid panel includes? | back 93
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front 94 normal value for LDL? | back 94 less than 100 |
front 95 normal value for cholesterol? | back 95 <200 |
front 96 normal value for HDL? | back 96 >40-60 |
front 97 normal value for triglycerides? | back 97 <150 |
front 98 what are the markers of heart disease? | back 98
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front 99 normal value for CK-MB? | back 99 0-3 |
front 100 normal value for trop? | back 100 less than 0.4 |
front 101 normal value for BNP? | back 101 <100 |
front 102 general marker of cellular injury | back 102 creatine kinase (CK) |
front 103 preferred method for diagnosing cardiac injury | back 103 trop |
front 104 released from overstretched ventricular tissue | back 104 BNP |
front 105 what does a CXR tell us in regards to heart disease? | back 105 CXR cannot diagnose heart disease but can highlight complications such as cardiac enlargement |
front 106 uses US to provide information on the size and pumping function of the heart, blood-volume status, and valve function and integrity | back 106 echocardiography |
front 107 is done to evaluate heart functioning during time of increased workload | back 107 cardiac stress test |
front 108 what is the alternate form of cardiac stress test done in which the radioisotope becomes bound to damaged tissue, creating "hot spots" | back 108 isotope (nuclear) stress test |
front 109 invasive x-ray procedure during which a radiopaque catheter is advanced through an artery or vein to the heart under fluoroscopy in order to evaluate cardiac filling pressures, CO, and valvular function | back 109 cardiac catheterization |
front 110 primary reason cardiac catheterization is performed | back 110 coronary angiography |
front 111 What is the most likely procedure to determine the cause of severe chest pain in the patient newly admitted to the hospital? A. Coronary angiography B. Nuclear stress testing C. Right heart catheterization D. TEE | back 111 A |
front 112 What is an important nursing action following a cardiac catheterization intervention? A. Early mobilization to prevent clot formation B. Fluid restriction to avoid fluid overload C. Bedrest to avoid stress on cannula insertion site D. Head of bed at 30 degrees for respiratory support | back 112 C. |
front 113 Physical deconditioning with age leads to: | back 113
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front 114 what can happen to the heart valves with age? | back 114 stenosis |
front 115 what can happen to the arterial walls with age? | back 115 narrow |
front 116 the conduction system begins with the | back 116 SA node |
front 117 the conduction system gives us waveforms which are: | back 117
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front 118 what are some risk factors for dysrhythmias? | back 118
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front 119 disruptions in the cardiac conduction pathway or disorders of the electrical impulse conduction within the heart | back 119 dysrhythmias |
front 120 what are some clinical manifestations of dysrhythmias? | back 120
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front 121 As the nurse, you know that the following can cause rhythm disorders: (Select all that apply.) A. Exercise B. Electrolyte imbalances C. Myocardial hypertrophy D. Myocardial damage E. Eating red meat | back 121 B, C, and D |
front 122 the height of the boxes on an ECG represent? | back 122 amplitude (each little box = 1mm) |
front 123 the small boxes on an ECG are _____ sec | back 123 0.04 |
front 124 the bigger boxes on an ECG are ____sec | back 124 0.2 |
front 125 15 of the bigger boxes is _______ sec | back 125 3 |
front 126 list the waveforms in order as they normally appear on the ECG: | back 126
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front 127 the P wave represents the SA node sending out an electrical impulse and represents | back 127 atrial depolarization |
front 128 the QRS complex represents | back 128 ventricular depolarization |
front 129 the T wave represents | back 129 ventricular repolarization |
front 130 the U wave represents | back 130 Purkinje fiber repolarization & is rarely seen |
front 131 measure the amount of time it takes for the impulse to travel from one waveform to the next | back 131 intervals |
front 132 what are the different intervals? | back 132
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front 133 measure of time it takes an electrical impulse to depolarize the atria and travel to the ventricles | back 133 PR interval |
front 134 measure of time to depolarize the ventricles | back 134 QRS interval |
front 135 measure of time that it takes the ventricle to depolarize and then repolarize | back 135 QT interval |
front 136 to measure the PR interval, start from the ____________ and count the number of small boxes to the beginning of the _________ | back 136 start from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex |
front 137 the normal PR interval is from _______ to ______ in length | back 137 0.12 (3 small boxes) to 0.2 (five small boxes) sec |
front 138 the QRS interval is measured from where to where? | back 138 from where the QRS complex waveform leaves the baseline to where the QRS returns to the baseline |
front 139 the normal interval for QRS interval is | back 139 0.06 to 0.1 sec |
front 140 to measure a QT interval start where and measure to where? | back 140 start where the QRS leaves baseline and measure to where the T wave returns to baseline |
front 141 the QT interval is ______ dependent | back 141 heart rate |
front 142 the QT interval should never be more than? | back 142 half the distance from one QRS to the next |
front 143 a normal QT is usually less than or equal to | back 143 0.52 sec |
front 144 steps in ECG interpretation? | back 144
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front 145 6 seconds on an ECG equals ______ boxes | back 145 30 large |
front 146 regularity can be determined by counting? | back 146 the waveforms being measured, such as P wave (P to P) or QRS complex to QRS complex (R to R) |
front 147 determining the regularity on an ECG can also be called? | back 147 marching out the waveforms |
front 148 As the nurse caring for a patient on a cardiac monitor, you understand that which of the following steps are necessary to correctly identify the rhythm? (Select all that apply.) A. Determine the rate B. Determine the regularity C. Determine if there is a QRS for every P wave D. Determine if there is a P wave for every QRS E. Determine if there is a U wave for every QRS | back 148 A, B, C, and D |
front 149 regular rhythm that has the same characteristics as NSR except the HR is <60bpm | back 149 sinus bradycardia |
front 150 what are some causes of sinus bradycardia? | back 150
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front 151 when do we treat dysrhythmias? | back 151 if the patient is symptomatic |
front 152 how do we treat sinus bradycardia if the pt is symptomatic? | back 152 atropine (0.5mg IVP) |
front 153 regular rhythm that has the same characteristics as NSR except the HR is greater than 100 bpm | back 153 sinus tachycardia (ST) |
front 154 what are some causes of ST? | back 154
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front 155 treatment for ST? | back 155 treatment depends on the cause, but could be:
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front 156 non-life-threatening dysrhythmias that can be seen in NSR | back 156 premature atrial contractions (PACs) |
front 157 in a premature atrial contraction, what has happened with a pacemaker cell? | back 157 a pacemaker cell close to the SA node fires earlier than expected |
front 158 what are some causes of PACs? | back 158
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front 159 treatment for PACs? | back 159
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front 160 has no P waves; best described as multiple pacemaker cells generating independent electrical impulses and causing chaos within the atria; characterized as irregularly irregular | back 160 atrial fibrillation (AF) |
front 161 what are some causes of a-fib? | back 161
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front 162 treatment for a-fib? | back 162
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front 163 what are some possible complications of a-fib? | back 163
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front 164 dysrhythmia produced by a pacemaker cell other than the SA node; does not have any P waves | back 164 atrial flutter (AFL) |
front 165 what are some causes of atrial flutter? | back 165
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front 166 treatment for atrial flutter? | back 166
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front 167 controlled electrical discharge of energy at the peak of the R wave | back 167 cardioversion |
front 168 uncontrolled electrical discharge of energy anywhere during the cardiac cycle | back 168 defibrillation |
front 169 when is cardioversion indicated? | back 169 symptomatic tachy dysrhythmias with a pulse:
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front 170 when is defibrillation indicated? | back 170 tachy dysrhythmias without a pulse:
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front 171 think saw tooth with atrial flutter | back 171 no data |
front 172 rapid heart rhythm that originates above the ventricles; appears as a regular, narrow QRS complex tachycardia | back 172 supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) |
front 173 treatment for supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)? | back 173
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front 174 patients receiving adenosine may experience prolonged periods of _________ after administration | back 174 asytole |
front 175 prior to the administration of adenosine, the pt should be on a ? | back 175 cardiac monitor |
front 176 what should be readily available for patients who have been given adenosine? | back 176 transcutaneous pacemaker; should pacing of the pt be necessary |
front 177 similar to ST except the electrical impulse is not generated from the sinus node, it's generated somewhere in the atria and can have uniform or nonuniform appearance | back 177 atrial tachycardia (AT) |
front 178 rhythms that begin with the AV node at a rate of 40-60 bpm and have an inverted P wave | back 178 junctional rhythms |
front 179 Which of the following is not an appropriate intervention for all atrial dysrhythmias? A. An ECG B. A pulse check C. Blood pressure D. Cardioversion | back 179 D. Cardioversion |
front 180 wide and atypical (or bizarre-looking) QRS complexes that fire earlier than expected from within the ventricles | back 180 premature ventricular contraction (PVCs) |
front 181 what are the causes of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)? | back 181
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front 182 uniform appearance | back 182 unifocal |
front 183 nonuniform appearance | back 183 multifocal |
front 184 3 or more PVCs (wide and fast impulses originating from the ventricles) in a row | back 184 ventricular tachycardia (VT) |
front 185 a PVC that occurs every other beat | back 185 bigeminy |
front 186 PVC falling every third beat | back 186 trigeminy |
front 187 what are some causes of ventricular tachycardia (VT)? | back 187
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front 188 the treatment for VT is based on the patient's presentation, which is either: | back 188
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front 189 VT with a pulse treatment? | back 189
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front 190 pulseless VT treatment? | back 190
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front 191 lethal dysrhythmia requiring immediate treatment; occurs when the ventricle has multiple chaotic impulses firing rapidly | back 191 ventricular fibrillation (VF) |
front 192 what are some causes of ventricular fibrillation? | back 192
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front 193 how is ventricular fibrillation treated? | back 193
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front 194 when the SA and AV nodes fail; rate will be 20-40 | back 194 idioventricular rhythm (IVR) |
front 195 no measurable electrical activity from the heart | back 195 asystole |
front 196 treatment for asystole? | back 196 start CPR |
front 197 The nurse understands that rhythms originating in the ventricle have which of the following characteristics? (Select all that apply) A. Wide QRS complexes B. Narrow QRS complexes C. Only QRS complexes D. Only fast rates E. Only slow rates | back 197 A and C |
front 198 delay or blockage of electrical conduction at the AV node | back 198 heart blocks |
front 199 causes of heart blocks? | back 199
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front 200 looks very similar to an NSR except the PR interval is prolonged (>0.2 sec or 5 blocks long) | back 200 first-degree AV block |
front 201 treatment for first-degree AV block? | back 201 monitor |
front 202 more P waves than QRS complexes and the PR interval gets progressively longer until a QRS complex is dropped | back 202 type I second-degree AV block |
front 203 also drops QRS complexes but the PR intervals are exactly the same length with each complex | back 203 type II second-degree AV block |
front 204 what is the treatment for second-degree AV block type I and II? | back 204 temporary pacing |
front 205 when the AV node is completely blocked and prevents any impulses from entering or exiting; ECG records more P waves than QRS complexes | back 205 third-degree AV block |
front 206 treatment for third-degree AV block? | back 206
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front 207 What do second-degree and third-degree heart blocks have in common? A. Wide QRS complexes B. Narrow QRS complexes C. Dropped QRS complexes D. No commonalities | back 207 D |
front 208 Transcutaneous pacing should be considered for which of the following dysrhythmias? A. VF B. VT C. Symptomatic heart block D. AF | back 208 C |
front 209 symptoms of cardiac dysrhythmias? | back 209
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front 210 what are some modifiable risk factors of coronary artery disease? | back 210
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front 211 what are some nonmodifiable risk factors of coronary artery disease? | back 211
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front 212 atherosclerosis forms and occludes _____________ | back 212 coronary arteries |
front 213 what can occur as a result of atherosclerosis? | back 213
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front 214 chest pain that occurs at rest | back 214 unstable angina |
front 215 plaque within the lumen of the vessels | back 215 atherosclerosis |
front 216 initial injury with atherosclerosis? | back 216 injury to the vessel wall & then inflammatory response |
front 217 clinical manifestations of coronary artery disesase? | back 217
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front 218 chest pain alleviated with rest | back 218 stable angina |
front 219 coronary artery spasm that can occur at rest | back 219 Prinzmetal's angina |
front 220 what labs are drawn to diagnoses coronary artery disease diagnosed? | back 220
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front 221 what tests are done to diagnose coronary artery disesae? | back 221
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front 222 possible manifestations of coronary artery disease? | back 222
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front 223 what is the purpose of administering medications to patients with coronary artery disease? | back 223
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front 224 meds on pg. 596 & 597 (17:00) | back 224 statins, anticoagulants, antiplatelet, beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, & vaso-dilators |
front 225 surgical management for coronary artery disease? | back 225
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front 226 complications with coronary artery disease? | back 226
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front 227 what are some lifestyle management things for patients with CAD? | back 227
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front 228 what foods should CAD patients avoid? | back 228
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front 229 complications of CAD? | back 229 MI |
front 230 nonspecific symptoms of CAD? | back 230
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front 231 MONA | back 231
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front 232 when should statins be taken? | back 232 in the evening b/c that's when the liver works to make cholesterol |
front 233 inflammation/infection of the valves (most commonly mitral & aortic) | back 233 infective endocarditis |
front 234 risk factors of infective endocarditis: | back 234
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front 235 infection of endocardium affecting heart valve; usually bacterial in origin | back 235 infective endocarditis |
front 236 clinical manifestations of infective endocarditis? | back 236
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front 237 painful nodes of the pads of the fingers and the toes | back 237 Osler's nodes |
front 238 red painless spots on the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet | back 238 Janeway lesions |
front 239 seen under nails; vertical looking splinters | back 239 splinter hemorrhage |
front 240 how is infective endocarditis diagnosed? | back 240
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front 241 medical management of infective endocarditis? | back 241 IV abx |
front 242 surgical management of infective endocarditis? | back 242 valve repair or replacement |
front 243 complications of infective endocarditis? | back 243
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front 244 what is a big teaching thing for your patients with infective endocarditis? | back 244 good oral hygiene; the mouth is a breeding ground |
front 245 damage to myocardium; usually caused by virus | back 245 myocarditis |
front 246 who is most affected by myocarditis? | back 246 men and young persons |
front 247 clinical manifestations of myocarditis? | back 247
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front 248 how is myocarditis diagnosed? | back 248
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front 249 BNP tells me directly? | back 249 how significant heart failure it |
front 250 treatment for myocarditis? | back 250
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front 251 complications that can arise from myocarditis? | back 251
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front 252 inflammation around the heart | back 252 pericarditis |
front 253 clinical manifestations of pericarditis? | back 253
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front 254 sac around the heart | back 254 pericardium |
front 255 plaque build-up? | back 255 atherosclerosis |
front 256 inflammatory process of the innermost portion of the heart? | back 256 endocarditis |
front 257 inflammation of the outermost portion or the sac of the heart? | back 257 pericarditis |
front 258 stuff in and around the sac of the heart (can be fluid, blood, etc.) | back 258 pericardial effusion |
front 259 how is pericarditis diagnosed? | back 259
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front 260 what do we do for patients who have SOB? | back 260 elevate HOB |
front 261 medications given to pericarditis patients help to? | back 261
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front 262 complications of pericarditis? | back 262 pericardial effusion |
front 263 cardiac tamponade | back 263 squeezing of the parts of the heart which ultimately give us our cardiac output |
front 264 what is one of the most common manifestations seen with pericarditis? | back 264 pericardial friction rub |
front 265 HOB with pericarditis? | back 265 elevated |
front 266 chest pain relieved by sitting up and leaning forward is found in? | back 266 pericarditis |
front 267 necessary teaching with steroids? | back 267
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front 268 L or R sided heart failure; regurgitation & stenosis | back 268 valvular disease |
front 269 clinical manifestations of valvular disease? | back 269
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front 270 how is valvular disease diagnosed? | back 270
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front 271 medications to treat valvular disease? | back 271
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front 272 what are the valves of the heart? | back 272
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front 273 possible complications of valvular disease? | back 273
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front 274 surgical management for valvular disease? | back 274
you will need to be on anticoagulants for a lifetime with one of these*** |
front 275 failure of the valves to work properly can lead to: (in regards to VS) | back 275
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front 276 what should we monitor for in patients taking -prils? | back 276
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front 277 what should we monitor for in patients taking beta blockers? | back 277
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front 278 risk factors of heart failure? | back 278
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front 279 myocardial cell dysfunction; inability of heart to meet needs of body | back 279 heart failure |
front 280 clinical manifestations of heart failure? | back 280
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front 281 R sided heart failure manifestations? * think R ventricle not working appropriately | back 281
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front 282 L sided heart failure manifestations? * think L ventricle not working appropriately | back 282
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front 283 how is heart failure diagnosed? | back 283
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front 284 percentage of blood that is able to be ejected from ventricles (50-70% is normal) | back 284 ejection fraction |
front 285 treatment for heart failure? | back 285
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front 286 medical management for heart failure? | back 286
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front 287 surgical management of heart failure? | back 287
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front 288 the amount or what is before the ventricles | back 288 preload |
front 289 what the ventricles have to overcome to get the blood out of the heart and into the body | back 289 afterload |
front 290 how well the ventricles pump | back 290 contractility |
front 291 a gain of 1 kg is equivalent to _______ mL of fluid | back 291 1,000 |
front 292 appropriate diet for heart failure patients? | back 292 fluid and sodium restriction |
front 293 complications R/T heart failure? | back 293
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front 294 hallmark manifestation of pulmonary/flash edema? | back 294 pink, frothy sputum |
front 295 affects the afterload by decreasing BP | back 295 ACE inhibitors |
front 296 block sympathetic nervous system response | back 296 beta blockers |
front 297 biggest side effect of beta blockers? | back 297 bradycardia |
front 298 patients taking spironolactone are at risk for hyper/hypokalemia? | back 298 hyperkalemia |
front 299 patients taking hctz or furosemide, patients are at risk for hyper/hypokalemia? | back 299 hypokalemia |
front 300 patients taking dig have increased risk for? | back 300 dig toxicity |
front 301 vessels contribute to overall healthy by transporting: | back 301
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front 302 risk factors for atherosclerosis/arteriosclerosis? | back 302
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front 303 normal cardiac output range? | back 303 4-8L |
front 304 L/min that your heart ejects in order for the body to function | back 304 cardiac output |
front 305 plaque buildup | back 305 atherosclerosis |
front 306 hardening/thickening of vessels | back 306 arteriosclerosis |
front 307 total cholesterol range? | back 307 <200 |
front 308 triglyceride range? | back 308 <150 |
front 309 LDL range? | back 309 <100 |
front 310 HDL range? | back 310 >40-60 |
front 311 most significant cause of atherosclerosis? | back 311 injury to the vessel wall |
front 312 clinical manifestations of atherosclerosis/arteriosclerosis? | back 312
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front 313 atherosclerosis leads to many other disorders such as | back 313
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front 314 risk factors for HTN? | back 314
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front 315 cigarettes are a vaso? | back 315 vasoconstrictor |
front 316 aldosterone controls? | back 316 sodium and water |
front 317 clinical manifestations of HTN? | back 317
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front 318 primary or essential HTN? | back 318 HTN with no identifiable cause |
front 319 secondary HTN? | back 319 HTN as a result of some cause |
front 320 how is HTN diagnosed? | back 320 two or more BP readings in more than 2 office visits |
front 321 medications prescribed for HTN? | back 321
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front 322 lifestyle management for HTN? | back 322
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front 323 possible complications of HTN? | back 323
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front 324 what labs do we assess with HTN? | back 324
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front 325 modifiable risk factors for peripheral arterial disease? | back 325
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front 326 nonmodifiable risk factors for peripheral arterial disease? | back 326
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front 327 obstruction of blood flow through large peripheral arteries cause partial or total occlusion | back 327 peripheral arterial disease |
front 328 stage 1 PAD clinical manifestations? | back 328
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front 329 stage 2 PAD clinical manifestations? | back 329
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front 330 stage 3 (rest pain) PAD clinical manifestations? | back 330
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front 331 stage 4 PAD clinical manifestations? | back 331
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front 332 how is PAD diagnosed? | back 332
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front 333 medications for PAD? | back 333
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front 334 surgical management for PAD? | back 334
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front 335 non-surgical management for PAD? | back 335
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front 336 complications of PAD? | back 336
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front 337 risk factors for carotid artery disease? | back 337
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front 338 vessel wall thickening and plaque formation occluding blood in carotid artery | back 338 carotid artery disease |
front 339 clinical manifestations of carotid artery disease? | back 339
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front 340 how is carotid artery disease diagnosed? | back 340
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front 341 surgical management for carotid artery disease? | back 341
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front 342 medications for carotid artery disease? | back 342
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front 343 symptoms of stroke? | back 343
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front 344 following a CEA or CAS if the pt becomes hypotensive, what position should we put them in? | back 344 flat with the HOB down to increase the blood flow which increases cerebral perfusion |
front 345 risk factors for aortic artery disease (aneurysm)? | back 345
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front 346 middle layer(media) of artery is weakened, stretching inner layer (intima); artery widens, tension increases, further widening occurs | back 346 aortic artery disease (aneurysm) |
front 347 clinical manifestations of aortic artery disease (aneurysm)? | back 347 asymptomatic until dissection or rupture
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front 348 how is aortic artery disease diagnosed? | back 348
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front 349 medical management of aortic artery disease? | back 349
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front 350 complications that can occur from aortic artery disease? | back 350
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front 351 risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? | back 351
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front 352 Virchow's triad? | back 352
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front 353 clinical manifestations of DVT? | back 353
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front 354 how is a DVT diagnosed? | back 354
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front 355 medical management prevention for DVT? | back 355
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front 356 medical management for development of DVT? | back 356
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front 357 what labs have to be checked when on heparin? | back 357 PTT |
front 358 what labs have to be checked when on warfarin? | back 358 PT/INR |
front 359 antidot for warfarin? | back 359 vit. K |
front 360 antidote for heparin? | back 360 no data |
front 361 surgical management for DVT? | back 361 rarely used
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front 362 possible complications from DVT? | back 362
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front 363 medications to know:
| back 363 no data |