5) Comparative advertising works best when ________. A) it elicits cognitive and behavioral motivations simultaneously B) the firm is trying to minimize brand dilution C) consumers are processing advertising in a detailed, analytical mode D) it elicits affective motivation, followed by cognitive motivation E) the advertising message uses negative fear appeals

C

6) ________ advertising aims to stimulate repeat purchase of products and services. A) Reinforcement B) Comparative C) Persuasive D) Informational E) Reminder

E

7) The "Got Milk" campaign was intended to boost sagging milk consumption among Californians in the 1990s. The campaign ads highlighted the inconvenience of running out of milk when intended to be used with certain foods, such as cookies or muffins, advising consumers to stock up on milk to avoid such inconveniences. The "Got Milk?" campaign is an example of ________ advertising. A) informational B) reminder C) institutional D) comparative E) reinforcement

B

8) ________ advertising aims to convince current purchasers that they made the right choice. A) Persuasive B) Informational C) Reinforcement D) Reminder E) Comparative

C

9) The predominant response function for advertising is often concave, but when it is S-shaped, ________. A) sales are flat, and advertising does not generate any sales impact B) any increase in advertising spending results in a proportionally positive increase in sales C) any increase in advertising spending results in a proportionally negative decrease in sales D) some positive amount of advertising is necessary to generate any sales impact, but sales increases eventually flatten out E) advertising is not necessary to generate any sales impact

D

10) Which of the following conditions necessitates that the objective of advertising should be to stimulate more usage of a product? A) The advertised product belongs to a nascent product category. B) The company is not the market leader. C) The advertised brand is superior to the market leader. D) The product class is mature. E) Brand usage for the product is very high.

D

11) Which of the following statements is true of the factors that affect an advertising budget? A) High-market-share brands usually require proportionately high advertising expenditure as a percentage of sales to maintain share. B) Brands in less-differentiated or commodity-like product classes require less advertising to establish a unique image. C) New products typically merit large advertising budgets to build awareness and to gain consumer trial. D) In a market with few competitors and moderate advertising spending, a brand must advertise more heavily to be heard. E) Established brands usually are supported with high advertising budgets, measured as a ratio to sales.

C

12) Marketers often cut the cost of advertising dramatically by using consumers as their creative team. This strategy is known as ________. A) disintermediation B) public relations C) vertical integration D) reintermediation E) crowdsourcing

E

13) An advertising objective is a specific communications task and achievement level to be accomplished with a specific audience in a specific period of time.

TRUE

14) Persuasive advertising aims to create brand awareness and knowledge of new products or new features of existing products.

FALSE

15) Reinforcement advertising aims to stimulate repeat purchase of products and services.

FALSE

16) When Staples introduced a new $69.99 paper-shredding device called the MailMate in 2006 by striking a two-episode deal with NBC's popular television program, The Office, it was using product placement.

TRUE

17) If the product class is mature, then the advertising objective is to convince the market of the brand's superiority.

FALSE

18) Puffery refers to simple exaggerations in advertisements that are not meant to be believed and are considered illegal.

FALSE

19) Advertising elasticities were estimated to be higher for established (0.3) than for new (0.1) products.

FALSE

20) What you say (ad copy) is more important than the number of times you say it (ad frequency).

TRUE

21) Kraft utilized customers to name its new flavor of its iconic Vegemite product, and their selection, iSnack 2.0, increased sales dramatically.

FALSE

30) Place advertising, or out-of-home advertising, is a broad category that includes many creative and unexpected forms to grab consumers' attention, including all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) billboards B) yellow pages C) public spaces D) product placement E) point of purchase

B

31) Which of the following is generally acknowledged as the most powerful advertising medium and reaches a broad spectrum of consumers at low cost per exposure? A) television B) radio C) newspapers D) magazines E) billboards

A

32) TV advertising is considered to be particularly advantageous because ________. A) the low volume of nonprogramming material on television makes it difficult for consumers to ignore or forget ads B) it provides detailed product information and effectively communicates user and usage imagery C) it can vividly demonstrate product attributes and persuasively explain their corresponding consumer benefits D) TV channels are very targeted, ads are relatively inexpensive to produce and place, and short closings allow for quick response E) it lets companies achieve a balance between broad and localized market coverage

C

33) According to researchers, which of the following is the correct order in which content of print advertisements matter? A) picture-headline-copy B) copy-picture-headline C) headline-copy-picture D) picture-copy-headline E) copy-headline-picture

A

34) Which of the following is the main advantage of radio as an advertising medium? A) low competition B) more attention than television C) longer duration of ad exposure D) flexibility E) standardized rate structures

D

35) ________ refers to simple exaggerations in advertisements that are not meant to be believed and that are permitted by law. A) Puffery B) Boosterism C) Astroturfing D) Doublethink E) Subliminal advertising

A

36) ________ is finding the most cost-effective media to deliver the desired number and type of exposures to the target audience. A) Media scheduling B) Content analysis C) Media selection D) Communication design E) Copy testing

C

37) The number of different persons or households exposed to a particular media schedule at least once during a specified time period is known as ________. A) range B) impact C) intensity D) reach E) frequency

D

38) The number of times within a specified time period that an average person or household is exposed to an advertising message is known as ________. A) impact B) frequency C) amplitude D) reach E) depth

B

39) The qualitative value of an exposure through a given medium is known as ________. A) frequency B) reach C) amplitude D) impact E) range

D

40) Which of the following equations accurately describes the total number of exposures (E) of an advertising message through a given medium? A) E = reach × frequency B) E = (reach × frequency) / impact C) E = reach × frequency × impact D) E = (reach + frequency) / impact E) E = frequency / reach

A

41) The weighted number of exposures (WE) of an advertising message over a given medium is given by ________. A) WE = reach × frequency B) WE = (reach × frequency) / impact C) WE = reach × frequency × impact D) WE = (reach + frequency) / impact E) WE = frequency / reach

C

42) Under which of the following conditions is the reach of media the most important factor in media selection? A) when introducing frequently purchased brands B) when going into a defined target market C) when launching extensions of well-known brands D) when there are strong competitors to a brand E) when there is high consumer resistance to the product

C

43) Under which of the following conditions is the frequency the most important factor in media selection? A) when introducing flanker brands B) when launching infrequently purchased brands C) when going into undefined target markets D) when there is high consumer resistance to the product E) when there is modest competition to the brand in the market

D

44) What is the gross rating points (GRP) for a media schedule that reaches 60 percent of homes with an average exposure frequency of 4 and impact of 1.5? A) 10 B) 15 C) 160 D) 240 E) 360

D

45) What is the weighted number of exposures of a media schedule that reaches 80 percent of the target audience, with an exposure frequency of 4 and impact value of 2? A) 10 B) 160 C) 240 D) 320 E) 640

E

46) Which of the following is an advantage of using newspapers as an advertising medium? A) long lifespan B) high reproduction quality C) huge "pass-along" audience D) high level of targeting E) good local market coverage

E

47) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using newspapers as an advertising medium? A) lack of flexibility B) high costs of advertisement space C) poor reproduction quality D) low believability E) absence of local market coverage

C

48) Which of the following is an advantage of using television as an advertising medium? A) high attention and reach B) low absolute cost C) absence of clutter D) long duration of ad exposure E) high audience selectivity

A

49) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using television as an advertising medium? A) high absolute cost B) low audience attention C) lack of reach among audience D) high audience selectivity E) absence of clutter

A

50) Which of the following is an advantage of using radio as an advertising medium? A) higher attention than television B) standardized rate structures C) long duration of ad exposure D) high quality reproduction E) high geographic selectivity

E

51) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using direct mail as an advertising medium? A) low audience selectivity B) lack of flexibility C) high competition within same medium D) relatively high cost E) lack of personalization of advertising message

D

52) Which of the following is an advantage of using magazines as an advertising medium? A) high-quality reproduction B) short ad purchase lead time C) high efficiency in circulation D) no ad competition in same medium E) low cost of advertising

A

53) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using magazines as an advertising medium? A) low geographic and demographic selectivity B) long ad purchase lead time C) low-quality reproduction D) small "pass-along" readership E) lack of credibility

B

54) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using outdoor media for advertising? A) low flexibility B) low repeat exposure C) limited audience selectivity D) high costs E) greater competition

C

55) Which of the following is an advantage of using Yellow Pages as an advertising medium? A) low competition B) high believability C) short ad purchase lead time D) greater scope for creativity E) lack of clutter

B

56) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using Yellow Pages as an advertising medium? A) high competition B) poor local market coverage C) low believability D) lack of adequate reach E) high total costs

A

57) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using the Internet as an advertising medium? A) limited audience selectivity B) increasing clutter C) lack of interactive possibilities D) relatively high costs involved E) fleeting ad exposure time

B

58) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using newsletters as an advertising medium? A) low audience selectivity B) high chances of runaway costs C) lack of adequate control D) relatively high costs E) lack of interactive possibilities

B

59) Pepe Homes manufactures a range of bathroom accessories and fittings that include bathtubs, shower stalls, etc. While deciding on an effective advertising media vehicle for its planned advertising campaign, the marketing department decides that its advertising objectives would be best achieved if they used a medium that would portray their brand as prestigious and a symbol of luxury. To this effect, the medium should offer marketers a high degree of audience selectivity and high-quality reproduction. Which of the following advertising media would best serve the advertising purposes of Pepe Homes? A) outdoor media B) radio C) magazines D) television E) newspapers

C

60) Moonburst is a newly launched brand of energy drinks, one among many other recently introduced competing brands. The advertising agency handling Moonburst's account decides that to better promote Moonburst, it has to zero in on an advertising medium that would offer immunity from the clutter of other brands, flexibility to alter its advertising message, and the ability to fit in with the modest advertising budget. Also, the medium has to provide a high repeat exposure of the advertising message to the target audience. The advertising agency would be happy to trade-off audience selectivity and creative possibilities if the medium satisfies the above criteria. Which of the following would be the best option for Moonburst? A) outdoor media B) radio C) magazines D) television E) Yellow Pages

A

61) Which of the following advertising practices involves advertisers paying filmmakers to have their products make cameo appearances in movies and television shows? A) brand extension B) flyposting C) co-branding D) product placement E) ambush marketing

D

62) The popular music talent show American Idol has been generally acknowledged as the most profitable TV series in US history, in terms of advertising and merchandising revenue. Major sponsors of the show include Coca-Cola, AT&T Wireless, and iTunes, among others. Cups bearing the Coca-Cola logo were a prominent prop found on the show's judges' tables. The show also urged viewers to vote for contestants using AT&T's sms service. Contestants were routinely shown rehearsing for their performances with the help of Apple iPods. Which of the following advertising practices is apparent in this example? A) ambush advertising B) product placement C) angel dusting D) co-branding E) subliminal advertising

B

63) Which of the following media timing factors expresses the rate at which new customers enter the market? A) buyer turnover B) purchase frequency C) media reach D) weighted number of exposures E) advertising impressions

A

64) ________ is the number of times the average buyer buys a product during the period. A) Buyer turnover B) Purchase frequency C) Customer retention rate D) Advertising impressions E) Total number of exposures

B

65) In which of the following types of advertising timing patterns do exposures appear evenly throughout a given period? A) concentration B) pulsing C) flighting D) continuity E) frequency capping

D

66) Which of the following types of advertising timing patterns calls for spending all advertising dollars in a single period? A) frequency capping B) flighting C) concentration D) pulsing E) continuity

C

67) Dante is a media buyer with Shelvey Partners, an ad agency in San Francisco. He is currently working on charting a media plan for the ads of a department store chain to target the upcoming Thanksgiving weekend. Which of the following advertising timing patterns is best suited for running these ads? A) continuity B) flighting C) pulsing D) concentration E) frequency capping

D

68) Advertisements for which of the following product categories would merit a continuous advertising timing pattern the most? A) air conditioners B) life insurance C) breakfast cereal D) automobiles E) holiday package tours

C

69) ________ is an advertising timing pattern that calls for advertising during a certain period, followed by a period with no advertising, followed by a second specific period of advertising activity. A) Pulsing B) Continuity C) Flighting D) Concentration E) Frequency capping

C

70) Flighting as an advertising timing pattern is most useful when ________. A) purchase cycle is rather frequent B) substantial advertising budget is available C) items are seasonal D) tightly defined buyer categories exist E) there are expanding market situations

C

71) Advertisements for which of the following product categories would be most effective when used with a flighting pattern? A) breakfast cereal B) detergents C) beer D) electric bulbs E) refrigerator

E

72) ________ is continuous advertising at low levels, reinforced periodically by waves of heavier activity. A) Flighting B) Frequency capping C) Pulsing D) Concentration E) Session capping

C

73) ________ seeks to determine whether an ad is communicating effectively. A) Copy testing B) Flighting C) Pulsing D) Frequency capping E) Square inch analysis

A

74) Share of ________ represents the proportion of company advertising of a product to all advertising of that product. A) wallet B) mind C) voice D) market E) cost

C

75) Established brands usually are supported with lower advertising budgets, measured as a ratio to sales.

TRUE

76) Brands in highly differentiated product classes require heavy advertising to establish a unique image.

FALSE

77) Print advertising, newspapers and magazines, is generally acknowledged as the most powerful advertising medium.

FALSE

78) Although newspapers are timely and pervasive, magazines are typically more effective at building user and usage imagery.

TRUE

79) Researchers studying print advertisements report that the picture, headline, and copy matter in that order.

TRUE

80) Reach of an advertising message is most important when launching new products, flanker brands, extensions of well-known brands, or infrequently purchased brands.

TRUE

81) The higher the forgetting rate associated with a brand, product category, or message, the lower the warranted level of repetition.

FALSE

82) The rationale behind place advertising is that marketers are better off reaching people where they work, play, and shop.

TRUE

83) Outdoor advertising is more effective at creating new brand associations than enhancing brand awareness or brand image.

FALSE

84) The macroscheduling decision calls for allocating advertising expenditures within a short period to obtain maximum impact.

FALSE

85) The forgetting rate is the rate at which the buyer forgets the brand; the higher the forgetting rate, the more continuous the advertising should be.

TRUE

86) Concentrated advertising is well suited for products with one selling season or related holiday.

TRUE

87) An advertiser makes "local buys" when it buys TV time in just a few markets or in regional editions of magazines.

FALSE

92) Which of the following elements of the marketing communications mix consists of a collection of incentive tools, mostly short term, designed to stimulate quicker or greater purchase of particular products or services by consumers, or the trade? A) advertising B) public relations C) sales promotion D) events and experiences E) personal selling

C

93) Which of the following is an example of a trade promotion? A) free samples B) discount coupons C) display allowances D) contests for sales reps E) premiums

C

94) Which of the following is an example of a business and sales force promotion? A) advertising allowance B) free samples C) contests for sales reps D) display allowance E) discount coupons

C

95) Sales promotion expenditures increased as a percentage of budget expenditure for a number of years. Growth has, however, recently slowed. Which of the following is a factor that has contributed to the growth of sales promotion expenditures? A) Many brands have come to be seen as dissimilar. B) The efficiency of advertising as a promotion has improved. C) The trade demands more deals from manufacturers. D) Consumers have become less price-oriented. E) The number of brands in the market has decreased.

C

96) According to consumer-packaged goods companies, which of the following effects is attributed to the heavy use of sales promotion? A) increased brand loyalty B) focus on long-run marketing planning C) improved brand-quality image D) increased price sensitivity E) greater coupon redemption rates

D

97) Which of the following is an example of a manufacturer promotion? A) price cuts B) feature advertising C) retailer coupons D) high-value trade-in credit E) retailer contests or premiums

D

98) Which of the following is a sales promotion tool that is consumer franchise building in nature? A) price-off packs B) contests and sweepstakes C) consumer refund offers D) trade allowances E) frequency awards

E

99) Which of the following is a sales promotion tool that typically does NOT build brand image? A) consumer refund offers B) free samples C) premiums related to the product D) frequency awards E) coupons that include a selling message

A

100) When Fred sends in the box top from his cereal to receive a free DVD of a cartoon featuring one of his favorite characters, he is responding to a ________. A) self-liquidating premium B) with-pack premium C) reduced-price pack D) banded pack E) free in-the-mail premium

E

101) Which of the following consumer promotion tools offers a free amount of a product or service delivered door-to-door, sent in the mail, picked up in a store, attached to another product, or featured in an advertising offer? A) coupons B) rebates C) premiums D) samples E) price packs

D

102) ________ are certificates that entitle the bearer to a stated saving on the purchase of a specific product. A) Samples B) Coupons C) Rebates D) Price packs E) Premiums

B

103) ________ are consumer promotion tools that provide a price reduction after purchase rather than at the retail shop. A) Rebates B) Cents-off deals C) Price packs D) Coupons E) Premiums

A

104) Premiums, as a consumer promotion tool, are defined as ________. A) offers to consumers of savings off the regular price of a product, flagged on the label or package B) certificates entitling the bearer to a stated saving on the purchase of a specific product C) programs providing rewards related to the consumer's frequency and intensity in purchasing the company's products or services D) merchandise offered at a relatively low cost or free as an incentive to purchase a particular product E) values in cash or in other forms that are proportional to patronage of a certain vendor or group of vendors

D

105) ________ is a consumer promotion tool that involves inviting prospective purchasers to try the product without cost in the hope that they will buy. A) Sampling B) Premium C) Cross-promotion D) Free trial E) Rebate

D

106) Which of the following consumer promotion tools involves using one brand to advertise another noncompeting brand? A) tie-in promotion B) frequency programs C) specialty advertising D) cross-promotion E) patronage awards

D

107) Which of the following consumer promotion tools refers to explicit or implicit promises by sellers that the product will perform as specified or that the seller will fix it or refund the customer's money during a specified period? A) product warranties B) coupons C) free trials D) rebates E) patronage awards

A

108) Which of the following terms describes the practice of retailers purchasing a greater quantity during a sales promotion period than they can immediately sell? A) diverting B) panic buying C) straight rebuy D) buyout E) forward buying

E

109) Which of the following retailer practices involves buying more units than needed of a product under a sales promotion in a region where the manufacturer offers a promotion deal and shipping the surplus to their stores in non-deal regions? A) diverting B) panic buying C) hoarding D) stockpiling E) forward buying

A

110) A ________ is a sales force promotion tool that aims at inducing the sales force or dealers to increase their sales results over a stated period, with prizes (money, trips, gifts, or points) going to those who succeed. A) trade show B) frequency program C) sales contest D) sweepstake E) patronage award

C

111) ________ time is the time necessary to prepare a promotional program prior to launching it. A) Sell-in B) Link C) Setup D) Lead E) Hold

D

112) ________ time begins with the promotional launch and ends when approximately 95 percent of the deal merchandise is in the hands of consumers. A) Lead B) Hold C) Setup D) Link E) Sell-in

E

113) Rolex calls itself the "Official Timekeeper" of the Wimbledon and Australian Open lawn tennis championships, by virtue of its sponsorships of the marquee events. What is the most likely objective for Rolex's sponsorship deal with these events? A) to permit merchandising or promotional opportunities B) to express commitment to the community or on social issues C) to create experiences and evoke feelings D) to identify with a particular target market or lifestyle E) to increase salience of company or product name

E

114) Sales promotion consists of a collection of incentive tools designed to mainly stimulate long-term brand associations of products or services with consumers or the trade.

FALSE

115) Sales promotions often attract brand switchers, who are primarily looking for low price, good value, or premiums.

TRUE

116) Sales promotions in markets of high brand similarity can produce a high sales response in the short run but little permanent gain in brand preference over the longer term.

TRUE

117) Incessant price reductions, coupons, deals, and premiums can devalue a product in buyers' minds.

TRUE

118) The historical approach correlates past sales to past advertising expenditures using advanced statistical techniques.

TRUE

119) Loyal brand buyers tend to change their buying patterns as a result of competitive promotions.

FALSE

120) Dominant brands offer sales promotion deals less frequently because most deals subsidize only current users.

TRUE

121) Examples of manufacturer promotions include price cuts and feature advertising.

FALSE

122) Sales promotion tools that typically are not brand building include price-off packs, contests and sweepstakes, consumer refund offers, and trade allowances.

TRUE

123) Manufacturers handle forward buying and diverting by producing and delivering less than the full order in an effort to smooth production.

TRUE

124) Additional costs beyond the cost of specific promotions include the risk that promotions might decrease long-run brand loyalty.

TRUE

125) A price-off pack is an example of a consumer franchise building sales promotions.

FALSE

129) Becoming part of a personally relevant moment in consumers' lives through ________ can broaden and deepen a company or brand's relationship with the target market. A) advertisements B) events and experiences C) sales promotions D) public relations E) direct marketing efforts

B

130) Mountain Dew is a brand known for sponsorships of adventure events such as snowboarding and skateboarding competitions. What is the most likely objective of Mountain Dew's sponsorship of these events? A) to enhance corporate image B) to express commitment to the community or on social issues C) to entertain key clients or reward key employees D) to create perceptions of key brand image associations E) to become part of a personally relevant moment in consumers' lives

D

131) Audi models featured prominently in the 2010 blockbuster Iron Man 2, including main character Tony Stark's personal R8 Spyder. Which of the following is the most rational explanation for Audi's decision to associate itself with the movie? A) to express commitment to the community or on social issues B) to identify with a particular target market or lifestyle C) to create experiences and evoke feelings D) to become part of a personally relevant moment in consumers' lives E) to entertain key clients or reward key employees

C

132) JBJ Sports is a leading sporting goods manufacturer from Atlanta. It has recently initiated a program in association with the Food4Kids Foundation, which raises funds to promote nutritional awareness of young children. The company plans to donate $1 for every item it sells in the North American market. Also, JBJ has roped in professional sports teams associated with it to wear the Food4Kids logo on their team gear. Which of the following best describes the motivation for JBJ's involvement in the program? A) entertaining key clients or rewarding key employees B) expressing commitment to the community or on social issues C) permitting merchandising or promotional opportunities D) stimulating quicker or greater purchase of particular brands E) identifying with a particular target market or lifestyle

B

133) Which of the following factors forms the basis of assessing sponsorship activities through supply-side methods? A) consumers' brand knowledge B) impact on sponsor's bottom line C) extent of media coverage D) brand exposure reported by consumers E) sales pattern of sponsored products

C

134) Which of the following parameters forms the basis for measuring sponsorship effectiveness using demand-side methods? A) impact on market share of sponsor B) amount of time a brand is clearly visible on a television screen C) amount of relevant newsprint mentioning the sponsor D) influence on consumers' brand knowledge of the sponsor E) net impact on the sponsor's bottom line

D

135) An ideal event is unique but not encumbered with many sponsors, lends itself to ancillary marketing activities, and reflects or enhances the sponsor's brand or corporate image.

TRUE

136) The supply-side method identifies the effect sponsorship has on consumers' brand knowledge.

FALSE

137) Although supply-side exposure methods provide quantifiable measures, equating media coverage with advertising exposure ignores the content of the respective communications.

TRUE

138) Media coverage and telecasts only expose the brand and do not necessarily embellish its meaning in any direct way.

TRUE

139) The supply-side measurement method focuses on potential exposure to a brand by assessing the extent of media coverage, and the demand-side method focuses on exposure reported by consumers.

TRUE

140) List the major objectives of events and experiences as promotion tools.

The major objectives of events and experiences as promotion tools are: 1. To identify with a particular target market or lifestyle 2. To increase salience of company or product name 3. To create or reinforce perceptions of key brand image associations 4. To enhance corporate image 5. To create experiences and evoke feelings 6. To express commitment to the community or on social issues 7. To entertain key clients or reward key employees 8. To permit merchandising or promotional opportunities

141) ________ is a marketing communications tool that includes a variety of programs to promote or protect a company's image or individual products. A) Public relations B) Advertising C) Sales promotion D) Personal selling E) Direct marketing

A

142) Which of the following functions of public relations departments involves presenting news and information about the organization in the most positive light? A) corporate communications B) product publicity C) lobbying D) counseling E) press relations

E

143) Which of the following describes the public relations function of lobbying? A) sponsoring efforts to publicize specific products B) advising management about public issues, and company positions and image during good times and bad C) presenting news and information about the organization in the most positive light D) dealing with legislators and government officials to promote or defeat legislation and regulation E) promoting understanding of the organization through internal and external communications

D

144) What function does a company's public relations department perform when it promotes understanding of the organization through internal and external communications? A) lobbying B) corporate communications C) press relations D) product publicity E) counseling

B

145) When a public relations department of a company advises management about public issues, and company positions and image during good times and bad, it is performing the function of ________. A) counseling B) corporate communications C) product publicity D) lobbying E) press relations

A

146) ________ refers to the task of securing editorial space — as opposed to paid space — in print and broadcast media to promote or "hype" a product, service, idea, place, person, or organization. A) Advertising B) Media planning C) Communication design D) Publicity E) Copy testing

D

147) Which of the following is a medium of visual identity for a company? A) annual reports B) dress codes C) press releases D) seminars E) trade shows

B

148) The easiest measure of marketing public relations effectiveness is the ________. A) resultant effect on the company's sales figures B) effect it has on its market capitalization C) number of exposures carried by the media D) changes observed in consumers' brand knowledge E) impact it has on the company's market share

C

149) A public is any group that has an actual or potential interest in or impact on a company's ability to achieve its objectives.

TRUE

150) The public relations function of lobbying involves advising management about public issues as well as company positions and image during good times and bad.

FALSE

151) The main objective of marketing public relations is to secure editorial space in print and broadcast media to promote or "hype" a product, service, idea, place, person, or organization.

FALSE

152) Creative public relations can affect public awareness at a fraction of the cost of advertising.

TRUE

153) MPR can hold down promotion cost because it costs less than direct-mail and media advertising.

TRUE

154) MPR can build credibility by placing stories in the media to bring attention to a product, service, person, organization, or idea.

FALSE

155) MPR is effective in blanketing local communities and reaching specific groups and hence has to be planned separately from the less cost-effective advertising.

FALSE

156) MPR's contribution to a company's bottom line is the easiest to measure among all the available promotion tools.

FALSE