Print Options

Card layout: ?

← Back to notecard set|Easy Notecards home page

Instructions for Side by Side Printing
  1. Print the notecards
  2. Fold each page in half along the solid vertical line
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal dotted line
  4. Optional: Glue, tape or staple the ends of each notecard together
  1. Verify Front of pages is selected for Viewing and print the front of the notecards
  2. Select Back of pages for Viewing and print the back of the notecards
    NOTE: Since the back of the pages are printed in reverse order (last page is printed first), keep the pages in the same order as they were after Step 1. Also, be sure to feed the pages in the same direction as you did in Step 1.
  3. Cut out the notecards by cutting along each horizontal and vertical dotted line
To print: Ctrl+PPrint as a list

113 notecards = 29 pages (4 cards per page)

Viewing:

MAP Chapter 17 Blood

front 1

differentiate into macrophages

A. lymphocytes
B. neutrophils
C. monocyte
D. basophils
E. platelets

back 1

C. monocyte

front 2

form a temporary plug at the site of bleeding

A. lymphocytes
B. neutrophils
C. monocyte
D. basophils
E. platelets

back 2

E. platelets

front 3

increase in number significantly during bacterial infections

A. lymphocytes
B. neutrophils
C. monocyte
D. basophils
E. platelets

back 3

B. neutrophils

front 4

play a critical role in immunity

A. lymphocytes
B. neutrophils
C. monocyte
D. basophils
E. platelets

back 4

A. lymphocytes

front 5

contain the anticoagulant heparin granules

A. lymphocytes
B. neutrophils
C. monocyte
D. basophils
E. platelets

back 5

D. basophils

front 6

have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

A. blood group A
B. blood group B
C. blood group AB
D. blood group O

back 6

D. blood group O

front 7

have both antigens A and B

A. blood group A
B. blood group B
C. blood group AB
D. blood group O

back 7

C. blood group AB

front 8

have only anti-A antibody

A. blood group A
B. blood group B
C. blood group AB
D. blood group O

back 8

B. blood group B

front 9

have the antigen A

A. blood group A
B. blood group B
C. blood group AB
D. blood group O

back 9

A. blood group A

front 10

distribution

A. maintaining appropriate body temperature
B. preventing infection
C. delivering oxygen from the lungs

back 10

C. delivering oxygen from the lungs

front 11

regulation

A. maintaining appropriate body temperature
B. preventing infection
C. delivering oxygen from the lungs

back 11

A. maintaining appropriate body temperature

front 12

protection

A. maintaining appropriate body temperature
B. preventing infection
C. delivering oxygen from the lungs

back 12

B. preventing infection

front 13

water

A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate
E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood

back 13

E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood

front 14

albumin

A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate
E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood

back 14

A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues

front 15

globulins

A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate
E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood

back 15

C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response

front 16

non-protein nitrogenous substances
A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate
E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood

back 16

B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)

front 17

electrolytes
A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate
E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood

back 17

D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate

front 18

porphyria

A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids
C. result from bleeding
D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption

back 18

A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules

front 19

hemorrhagic anemias

A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids
C. result from bleeding
D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption

back 19

C. result from bleeding

front 20

aplastic anemia

A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids
C. result from bleeding
D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption

back 20

D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation

front 21

iron-deficiency anemia

A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids
C. result from bleeding
D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption

back 21

E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption

front 22

sickle-cell anemia

A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids
C. result from bleeding
D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption

back 22

B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids

front 23

Neutrophils

A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.
C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.
E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components.

back 23

B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.

front 24

Eosinophils

A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.
C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.
E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components.

back 24

D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.

front 25

basophils

A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.
C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.
E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components.

back 25

C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.

front 26

Agranulocytes

A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.
C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.
E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components.

back 26

A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.

front 27

platelets

A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.
C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.
E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components.

back 27

E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components.

front 28

Von Willebrand factor (VWF)

A. plasma minus the clotting proteins
B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
C. inactive form of thrombin
D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers

back 28

E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers

front 29

tissue factor (TFIII), or tissue thromboplastin

A. plasma minus the clotting proteins
B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
C. inactive form of thrombin
D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers

back 29

D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway

front 30

prothrombin

A. plasma minus the clotting proteins
B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
C. inactive form of thrombin
D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers

back 30

C. inactive form of thrombin

front 31

thrombin

A. plasma minus the clotting proteins
B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
C. inactive form of thrombin
D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers

back 31

B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands

front 32

serum

A. plasma minus the clotting proteins
B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
C. inactive form of thrombin
D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers

back 32

A. plasma minus the clotting proteins

front 33

buffy coat

A. erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood
B. thin, white-colored area in centrifuged blood that contains WBC and
C. the liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else

back 33

B. thin, white-colored area in centrifuged blood that contains WBC and

front 34

hematocrit

A. erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood
B. thin, white-colored area in centrifuged blood that contains WBC and
C. the liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else

back 34

A. erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood

front 35

Plasma

A. erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood
B. thin, white-colored area in centrifuged blood that contains WBC and
C. the liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else

back 35

C. the liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else

front 36

True or False

Each hemoglobin molecule has four polypeptide chains

back 36

two alpha chains and two beta chains.:
True
A hemoglobin molecule is composed of the protein globin bound to the iron-containing heme pigments. Each globin molecule has four polypeptide chains.

front 37

True or False
Eosinophils are erythrocytes that fight parasitic infection or allergic reaction.

back 37

False
Eosinophils are leukocytes that defend the body against parasitic infections and lessen the severity of allergic reactions.

front 38

True or False
Hemoglobin serves to transport oxygen, but NOT carbon dioxide.

back 38

False
About 20% of carbon dioxide is transported bound to hemoglobin.

front 39

True or False
Plasma contains water, proteins, nutrient molecules, and hormones.

back 39

True
Plasma contains water, proteins, nutrient molecules, and hormones.

front 40

True or False

Reticulocytes are sometimes found in circulating blood and are filled with hemoglobin and some ribosomes.

back 40

True
Reticulocytes are precursors of RBC that are sometimes found in circulating blood.

front 41

True or False

The buffy coat in centrifuged blood contains RBC and platelets.

back 41

False
The buffy coat contains leukocytes and platelets.

front 42

True or False

The RBC count in both men and women is between 5.1 and 5.8 million per microliter of blood.

back 42

False
Women have a slightly lower RBC count than men - 4.2-5.4 million cells per microliter (women); 4.7-6.1 million cells per microliter (men).

front 43

True or False

Vitamin D is essential for the synthesis of RBC.

back 43

False
B-complex vitamins are essential for the production of RBC.

front 44

True or False

When oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, it becomes oxyhemoglobin.

back 44

True
When oxygen is bound to the iron in hemoglobin, it becomes oxyhemoglobin.

front 45

True or False

One of the regulatory functions of blood is to maintain normal temperatures in body tissues.

back 45

True
The blood does this by absorbing and distributing heat throughout the body and to the skin to encourage heat loss.

front 46

True or False

The most abundant component of plasma is protein.

back 46

False
The most abundant component of plasma is water.

front 47

True or False

Formed elements of blood include erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.

back 47

True
These are called formed elements rather than "cells" because RBCs lack a nucleus at maturity, and platelets are fragments of a larger cell.

front 48

True or False

Hemoglobin is the protein that makes red blood cells red.

back 48

True
Hemoglobin is bright red when combined with oxygen and dark red when NOT combined with oxygen.

front 49

True or False

Blood cell formation is referred to as hemostasis.

back 49

False
Blood cell formation is referred to as hemopoiesis (or hematopoiesis).

front 50

True or False

Dissolved proteins are an important part of blood clotting.

back 50

True
Dissolved proteins are involved in coagulation, which is part of the clotting process.

front 51

True or False

Blood is NOT important in the regulation of the body's pH.

back 51

False
Plasma proteins and bicarbonate ions are very important in maintaining pH.

front 52

A healthy adult male has approximately __________ liters of blood.

A) 1-2
B) 2-3
C) 3-4
D) 5-6
E) 7-8

back 52

D) 5-6

front 53

A major plasma protein that maintains the blood osmotic pressure is __________.

A) angiotensinogen
B) fibrin
C) globulin
D) fibrinogen
E ) albumin

back 53

E ) albumin

front 54

Diapedesis refers to __________.

A) the secretion of chemicals that trigger the inflammatory process
B) the type of movement erythrocytes use in the tissue spaces
C) the chemical attraction leukocytes use to reach the site of tissue damage
D) the engulfing of foreign bodies by leukocytes
E) the movement of leukocytes from blood vessels into tissue spaces

back 54

E) the movement of leukocytes from blood vessels into tissue spaces

front 55

Granulocytes do NOT include __________.

A) basophils
B) PMNs
C) monocytes
D) neutrophils
E) eosinophils

back 55

C) monocytes

front 56

Mature red blood cells in the circulating blood are filled with __________.

A) nuclei and all other cellular organelles
B) mitochondria
C) lysosomes
D) hemoglobin molecules
E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

back 56

D) hemoglobin molecules

front 57

Pernicious anemia may result from __________.

A) abnormal production of hemoglobin caused by genetic defect
B) excessive bleeding
C) rupture of red blood cells caused by parasites
D) the lack of vitamin B12 in the diet or a deficiency of the intrinsic factor needed to absorb B12
E) the absence or depressed synthesis of globin chains

back 57

D) the lack of vitamin B12 in the diet or a deficiency of the intrinsic factor needed to absorb B12

front 58

The final step in clot formation is __________.

A) prothrombin → thrombin
B) formation of prothrombin activator
C) fibrinogen → fibrin
D) platelet plug formation
E) the release of chemical by platelets

back 58

C) fibrinogen → fibrin

front 59

The most numerous leukocyte is the __________.

A) neutrophil
B) monocyte
C) lymphocyte
D) basophil
E) eosinophil

back 59

A) neutrophil

front 60

The terms biconcave and anucleated apply to __________.

A) white blood cells
B) platelets
C) leukocytes
D) red blood cells
E) thrombocytes

back 60

D) red blood cells

front 61

Which leukocyte contains histamine in its granules?

A) neutrophils
B) monocytes
C) eosinophils
D) basophils
E) lymphocytes

back 61

D) basophils

front 62

Which of the following is a protective function of blood?

A) preventing infection
B) transporting hormones from endocrine organs to target tissues
C) delivering oxygen from the lungs to all body tissues
D) maintaining normal body temperature
E) maintaining normal pH in the body

back 62

A) preventing infection

front 63

Which of the following statements about platelets is INCORRECT?

A) The formation of platelets is regulated by the hormone thrombopoietin.
B) Platelets are essential for the clotting process.
C) The life span of platelets is between 30 to 60 days.
D) Platelets contain serotonin, ADP, calcium, and PDGF.
E) Platelets are fragments of a larger cell called a megakaryocyte.

back 63

C) The life span of platelets is between 30 to 60 days.

front 64

Which property do white blood cells have in common?

A) All WBCs are granulocytes.
B) WBCs are nucleated and have a protective function.
C) WBCs transport oxygen.
D) All WBCs have a phagocytic function.

back 64

B) WBCs are nucleated and have a protective function.

front 65

Individuals with malaria have a better chance of surviving if they have which type of anemia?

A) iron-deficiency anemia
B) aplastic anemia
C) hemorrhagic anemia
D) sickle-cell anemia
E) renal anemia

back 65

D) sickle-cell anemia

front 66

Which of the following types of white blood cells kills parasitic worms, destroys antibody complexes, and inactivates some inflammatory chemicals of allergy?

A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) lymphocytes
D) basophils
E) monocytes

back 66

B) eosinophils

front 67

Which of the following is a function of neutrophils?

A) mount immune response by direct cell attack or via antibodies
B) kill parasitic worms
C) release histamine and other mediators of inflammation
D) seal small tears in blood vessels
E) phagocytize bacteria

back 67

E) phagocytize bacteria

front 68

Which of the following is a function of erythrocytes?

A) transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
B) phagocytize bacteria
C) mount immune response
E) release histamine
D) kill parasitic worms

back 68

A) transport oxygen and carbon dioxide

front 69

Which of the following is a function of basophils?

A) phagocytize bacteria
B) release histamine during allergic reaction
C) transport blood gases
D) kill parasites
E) mount immune response

back 69

B) release histamine during allergic reaction

front 70

Which of the following is a function of lymphocytes?

A) carry oxygen
B) destruction of virus-containing cells
C) regulate pH
D) produce albumin
E) maintain body temperature

back 70

B) destruction of virus-containing cells

front 71

The percentage of total volume used to determine the number of erythrocytes in a blood sample is referred to as the __________.

A) reticulocyte count
B) hematocrit
C) ESR
D) red blood cell count

back 71

B) hematocrit

front 72

The buffy coat that appears after a sample of blood has been centrifuged contains __________.

A) RBCs
B) serum
C) WBCs
D) plasma

back 72

C) WBCs

front 73

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on making RBCs very efficient oxygen transporters?

A) They represent most of the formed elements in the blood.
B) They carry 20% of the carbon dioxide released by tissues back to the lungs.
C) They don't contain a nucleus.
D) They generate ATP by anaerobic mechanisms and do not consume any of the oxygen they carry.

back 73

D) They generate ATP by anaerobic mechanisms and do not consume any of the oxygen they carry.

front 74

Another term for reduced hemoglobin is __________.

A) deoxyhemoglobin
B) hemoglobin S
C) oxyhemoglobin
D) carbaminohemoglobin

back 74

A) deoxyhemoglobin

front 75

Which type of anemia results from the destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by drugs, chemicals, ionizing radiation, or viruses?

A) pernicious anemia
B) aplastic anemia
C) iron-deficiency anemia
D) renal anemia

back 75

B) aplastic anemia

front 76

The process of actively metabolizing oxygen by neutrophils to produce bleach and hydrogen to kill bacteria is known as __________.

A) chemotaxis
B) diapedesis
C) the respiratory burst
E) amoeboid movement

back 76

C) the respiratory burst

front 77

Which of the following substances is responsible for limiting a platelet plug to the immediate area of damage?

A) prostacyclin
B) adenosine diphosphate
C) thromboxane A2
D) serotonin

back 77

A) prostacyclin

front 78

Erythroblastosis fetalis is caused by __________.

A) a loss of blood by the fetus
B) an Rh incompatibility between an Rh-negative mother and her Rh-positive baby during pregnancy
C) a malfunction of the thymus during fetal development
D) an increase in the number of erythrocytes in the newborn

back 78

B) an Rh incompatibility between an Rh-negative mother and her Rh-positive baby during pregnancy

front 79

Which of the following plasma expanders would be associated with the LEAST complications?

A) Ringer's solution
B) hetastarch
C) dextran
D) human serum albumin

back 79

A) Ringer's solution

front 80

Eighty-five percent of Americans carry the __________ Rh agglutinogen on their RBCs.

A) D
B) K
C) E
D) C

back 80

A) D

front 81

Which antibodies would be found in the serum of a person with AB blood?

A) anti-A antibodies
B) anti-B antibodies
C) neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies
D) both anti-B and anti-A antibodies

back 81

C) neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies

front 82

The percentage of blood volume occupied by erythrocytes is called the __________.

A) hematocrit
B) blood volume
C) hemostat
D) buffy coat

back 82

A) hematocrit

front 83

Which of the following is NOT a role of albumin?

A) It acts as a carrier molecule.
B) It contributes to plasma osmotic pressure.
C) It serves an immune system function.
D) It acts as a blood buffer.

back 83

C) It serves an immune system function.

front 84

Which of the following is a characteristic of a mature erythrocyte?

A) It has a biconcave disc shape.
B) It has mitochondria.
C) It is composed mostly of albumin and water.
D) It has a nucleus.

back 84

A) It has a biconcave disc shape.

front 85

One molecule of hemoglobin can bind a maximum of __________ oxygen molecules.

A) two
B) four
C) six
D) eight

back 85

B) four

front 86

Erythropoiesis is best defined as __________.

A) platelet production.
B) red blood cell production
C) leukocyte production
D) albumin production

back 86

B) red blood cell production

front 87

Erythropoietin is made primarily by the __________.

A) spleen
B) pancreas
C) kidneys
D) pituitary gland

back 87

C) kidneys

front 88

Aging red blood cells are fragmented and trapped in the __________.

A) spleen
B) intestines
C) kidneys
D) liver

back 88

A) spleen

front 89

A patient who lacks intrinsic factor would likely develop __________.

A) sickle-cell anemia
B) hemorrhagic anemia
C) aplastic anemia
D) pernicious anemia

back 89

D) pernicious anemia

front 90

The migration of white blood cells out of the capillary blood vessels is called __________.

A) diapedesis
B) transcytosis
C) leukocytosis
D) active transport

back 90

A) diapedesis

front 91

Neutrophil

A) the most numerous type of white blood cell
B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades
D) has a role in killing parasitic worms
E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus

back 91

A) the most numerous type of white blood cell

front 92

Macrophage

A) the most numerous type of white blood cell
B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades
D) has a role in killing parasitic worms
E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus

back 92

E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus:

front 93

Basophil

A) the most numerous type of white blood cell
B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades
D) has a role in killing parasitic worms
E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus

back 93

B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules

front 94

Lymphocyte

A) the most numerous type of white blood cell
B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades
D) has a role in killing parasitic worms
E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus

back 94

C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades

front 95

Eosinophil

A) the most numerous type of white blood cell
B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades
D) has a role in killing parasitic worms
E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus

back 95

D) has a role in killing parasitic worms

front 96

Which of the following is considered a type of lymphocyte?

A) basophil
B) B cell
C) neutrophil
D) macrophage

back 96

B) B cell

front 97

Overproduction of white blood cells is called __________.

A) leukopenia
B) polycythemia
C) leukocytosis
D) leucopoiesis

back 97

C) leukocytosis

front 98

Platelets are derived from __________.

A) band cells
B) megakaryocytes
C) lymphocytes
D) monocytes

back 98

B) megakaryocytes

front 99

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of hemostasis from start to end?

A) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation
B) vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation
C) platelet plug formation, vascular spasm, coagulation
D) coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation

back 99

B) vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation

front 100

Which of the following is true regarding the extrinsic pathway of blood clotting?

A) The extrinsic pathway is triggered by tissue factor.
B) The extrinsic pathway does not involve calcium ions.
C) The extrinsic pathway is slower than the intrinsic pathway of blood clotting.
D) The extrinsic pathway is independent of procoagulants.

back 100

A) The extrinsic pathway is triggered by tissue factor.

front 101

heparin

A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B) generates thrombin
C) fibrin-digesting enzyme
D) inhibits coagulation
E) stimulates blood vessel healing

back 101

D) inhibits coagulation

front 102

Thrombin

A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B) generates thrombin
C) fibrin-digesting enzyme
D) inhibits coagulation
E) stimulates blood vessel healing

back 102

A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin

front 103

prothrombin activator

A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B) generates thrombin
C) fibrin-digesting enzyme
D) inhibits coagulation
E) stimulates blood vessel healing

back 103

B) generates thrombin

front 104

plasmin

A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B) generates thrombin
C) fibrin-digesting enzyme
D) inhibits coagulation
E) stimulates blood vessel healing

back 104

C) fibrin-digesting enzyme

front 105

platelet-derived growth factor

A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B) generates thrombin
C) fibrin-digesting enzyme
D) inhibits coagulation
E) stimulates blood vessel healing

back 105

E) stimulates blood vessel healing

front 106

True or False

A free-floating blood clot is called a thrombus.

back 106

False

front 107

Blood type is determined by __________.

A) antibodies present in the plasma
B) glycoproteins present in the plasma
C) glycoproteins present on the surface of erythrocytes
D) antibodies present on the surface of erythrocytes

back 107

C) glycoproteins present on the surface of erythrocytes

front 108

True or False

Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can develop when an Rh+ woman is pregnant with an Rh- baby.

back 108

False

front 109

would make antibodies to the A agglutinogen but not the B agglutinogen

A) person with type B blood
B) person with type A blood
C) person with type O blood
D) person with type AB blood

back 109

A) person with type B blood

front 110

would make antibodies to the B agglutinogen but not the A agglutinogen

A) person with type B blood
B) person with type A blood
C) person with type O blood
D) person with type AB blood

back 110

B) person with type A blood

front 111

would have type A and B agglutinogens

A) person with type B blood
B) person with type A blood
C) person with type O blood
D) person with type AB blood

back 111

D) person with type AB blood

front 112

would make antibodies to the A and B agglutinogens

A) person with type B blood
B) person with type A blood
C) person with type O blood
D) person with type AB blood

back 112

C) person with type O blood

front 113

Choose the true statement about fetal hemoglobin.

A) Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.
B) Fetal hemoglobin contains four alpha chains.
C) Fetal hemoglobin is produced until the baby is one year old.
D) Fetal hemoglobin is called hemoglobin A.

back 113

A) Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.