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A&P 2 Final study guide

front 1

A deficiency of which hormone can lead to diabetes insipidus?

back 1

Antidiuretic hormone

front 2

The hormone that plays a pivotal role in setting the metabolic rate and thus impacting body temperature is

back 2

Thyroxine

front 3

The effects of this hormone oppose aldosterone.

back 3

Atrial natriuretic peptide

front 4

Cushing's disease results from an excess of

back 4

Glucocorticoids

front 5

Hormonal actions on cells affect all of the following except

back 5

Thickness of the plasma membrane

front 6

The hypothalamus acts as both a neural and a(n) ________ organ.

back 6

Endrocrine

front 7

The humoral control of hormone release may be triggered which of the following factors?

back 7

blood level of an ion like calcium

front 8

The interstitial endocrine cells of the testes produce

back 8

testosterone

front 9

The pituitary hormone that triggers the release of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland is

back 9

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

front 10

Which of the following substances activates protein kinases and thus acts as a second messenger?

back 10

cyclic AMP

front 11

Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called

back 11

Megakararyocytes

front 12

Tissue factor is a factor in the ________ pathway.

back 12

Extrinsic

front 13

A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to

back 13

Cause clot dissolution to proceed faster

front 14

Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood?

back 14

reticulocytes

front 15

A fibrin network that contains trapped blood cells and platelets is called a(n)

back 15

Blood clot

front 16

The function of hemoglobin is to

back 16

Carry dissolved blood gases

front 17

Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate?

back 17

Vitamin B12 deficiency

front 18

A moving blood clot is called a(n)

back 18

Embolus

front 19

Blood that has clotting proteins removed is termed

back 19

Serum

front 20

Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes?

back 20

Produce antibodies in response to antigens

front 21

Each of the following is true of the pineal gland except that it

back 21

is a component of the hypothalamus

front 22

The majority of thyroid hormones are secreted as ________ but small amounts of ________ is also secreted from the follicle.

back 22

T4;T3

front 23

Membrane receptors are used by which of the following types of hormones?

back 23

catecholamines, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids

front 24

Increased aggressive and assertive behavior is associated with an increase in which of the following hormones?

back 24

androgens

front 25

Which of the following is true of the endocrine system?

back 25

It responds slowly but effectively for maintaining homeostatic functions.

front 26

The pituitary hormone that promotes ovarian secretion of progesterone and testicular secretion of testosterone is

back 26

LH

front 27

If a patient is administered a powerful glucocorticoid (such as prednisone) to suppress the immune system, what unintended effects might this have on blood chemistry?

back 27

both an increase in insulin and an increase in glucose

front 28

The hormone related to appetite control is

back 28

Leptin

front 29

Which is not a component of the RAAS and does not contribute to blood volume and electrolyte homeostasis?

back 29

Androgens

front 30

The condition known as seasonal affective disorder (SAD) may be caused by

back 30

increased levels of melatonin

front 31

Hormones known as "catecholamines" are

back 31

<span>derivitives of the amino acid tyrosine</span>

front 32

Abnormally low production of LH and FSH results in

back 32

hypogonadism.

front 33

A kinase is an enzyme that performs

back 33

<span>phosphorylation</span>

front 34

After a steroid hormone binds to its receptor to form an active complex,

back 34

gene transcription is initiated.

front 35

The humoral control of hormone release may be triggered which of the following factors?

back 35

blood level of an ion like calcium

front 36

A hormone might

back 36

alter a membrane channel by changing its shape, thereby affecting what can go through it

front 37

One cause for insulin resistance in non-insulin dependent (Type II) diabetes is

back 37

insulin receptor down-regulation

front 38

Adipocytes produce a peptide hormone called ________ that acts on the hypothalamus.

back 38

Leptin

front 39

A patient is receiving exogenous cortisol in the form of hydrocortisone shots for a sinus infection. Their natural adrenal secretion of cortisol will decrease due to negative feedback on the ________ reducing the secretion of ________.

back 39

anterior pituitary; ACTH

front 40

The interstitial endocrine cells of the testes produce

back 40

Testosterone

front 41

Type 2 diabetes

back 41

can usually be controlled by diet and exercise rather than with medication.

front 42

A hormone that can lower blood levels of calcium ion is

back 42

Parathyroid hormone

front 43

Which of the following hormones increases production of red blood cells?

back 43

erythropoietin

front 44

The function of red blood cells is to

back 44

carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide

front 45

When carbon dioxide is bound to hemoglobin it is termed

back 45

carbaminohemoglobin

front 46

In an emergency situation, a patient may be given plasma expanders while blood typing occurs. The plasma expanders are used to

back 46

increase blood volume and maintain osmolarity.

front 47

Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein?

back 47

metalloprotein (carries metal ion)

front 48

Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations.

back 48

colony-stimulating factors

front 49

When hemoglobin does not have oxygen bound to hemoglobin it is termed

back 49

no data

front 50

Type AB blood has which of the following characteristics?

back 50

RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies

front 51

Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron?

back 51

Ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin

front 52

The hormone that stimulates platelet formation is

back 52

Thrombopoietin

front 53

Plasma is closest in composition to

back 53

interstitial fluid

front 54

A cross-match test is performed between donor blood and recipient blood, even though the ABO and Rh blood types match between the two because

back 54

here are many more surface antigens on red blood cells other than A, B and Rh.

front 55

A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because

back 55

the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin.

front 56

The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is

back 56

Plasminogen

front 57

________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells.

back 57

Monocytes

front 58

Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins?

back 58

Liver

front 59

A small white blood cell with a large round nucleus would be a

back 59

lymphocyte (monocyte is a large cell)

front 60

Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is

back 60

recycled to the red bone marrow.

front 61

How would removal of calcium ions from a blood sample affect coagulation?

back 61

Coagulation would be prevented (needed in both extrinsic and intrinsic pathways)

front 62

The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if

back 62

a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal

front 63

The primary reason males have a higher hematocrit than females is because

back 63

Males have androgens.

front 64

Which feature of WBCs makes them particularly important in tissue injury?

back 64

They can squeeze out through blood vessel walls into tissues.

front 65

Surgical removal of the stomach could cause

back 65

pernicious anemia.

front 66

Reticulocytes complete their development into ________ in the circulation.

back 66

erythrocytes

front 67

The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the

back 67

Neutrophils

front 68

If there is a complete block between the SA node and the AV node, how would the ECG be affected?

back 68

The rate of P waves will be faster than the rate of QRS complexes.

front 69

Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with a heart rate of 100 beats/minute and a stroke volume of 75 ml.

back 69

7500 ml/min

front 70

A patient has an end-diastolic volume of 125 ml. A heart attack has weakened her left ventricle so it can pump a stroke volume of only 40 ml. Calculate her end-systolic volume.

back 70

85 ml

front 71

Positive inotropic drugs such as glucagon and thyroid hormone cause

back 71

increased contractility.

front 72

The heart pumps approximately ________ liters of blood each day.

back 72

8,000

front 73

Which of the following describes what is directly measured by an ECG?

back 73

electrical conduction

front 74

The left ventricle pumps blood to the

back 74

systemic circuit, lungs

front 75

These structures keep the aortic valve cusps from sticking to the wall of the aorta.

back 75

no data

front 76

Hypertension increases ________ causing stroke volume to ________.

back 76

afterload;decrease

front 77

Stroke volume depends on all of the following factors except

back 77

end-systolic volume

front 78

At the level of the first rib, the axillary vein becomes the ________ vein.

back 78

Subclavian

front 79

The blood vessel that supplies blood to the cerebral arterial circle from the posterior is the ________ artery.

back 79

basilar

front 80

Which of the following contributes to the formation of the popliteal vein?

back 80

anterior and posterior tibial and fibular

front 81

The large vessels that return blood to the heart are called

back 81

veins

front 82

Blood colloid osmotic pressure is produced by

back 82

large non-diffusible proteins in blood plasma

front 83

The most common site of a stroke is the

back 83

no data

front 84

The regulation of blood flow by local mechanisms within a capillary bed is called

back 84

autoregulation

front 85

In response to hemorrhage, there is

back 85

mobilization of the venous reserve

front 86

Venoconstriction ________ the amount of blood within the venous system, which ________ the volume in the arterial and capillary systems.

back 86

reduces; increases

front 87

The blood vessel that supplies blood to the cerebral arterial circle from the posterior is the ________ artery.

back 87

basilar

front 88

Which of the following is not a cardiovascular modification present during fetal development?

back 88

ligamentum arteriosum

front 89

Arteries that supply the plantar portion of the foot branch from the posterior ________ artery.

back 89

tibial

front 90

The ________ carries nutrient-rich blood into the liver.

back 90

hepatic portal vein

front 91

The smallest arterial branches are called the

back 91

precapillary arterioles

front 92

Blood from the dorsal venous arch is drained by the ________ vein(s).

back 92

small saphenous

front 93

Blood pressure is determined by

back 93

estimating the pressure needed to close off an artery with an external pressure cuff

front 94

The blood vessel that carries blood to the arm and shoulder is the ________ artery.

back 94

subclavian

front 95

Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood will result in decreased

back 95

parasympathetic stimulation of the heart

front 96

Distension of the superficial veins caused by weakened valves is termed

back 96

varicose veins

front 97

Elderly individuals are more prone than younger individuals to have all of the following, except

back 97

Increased elasticity of vessel walls

front 98

Which of the following vessels changes diameter most readily to local conditions or SNS stimulation?

back 98

arterioles

front 99

Which of the following are the smallest venous vessels?

back 99

venules

front 100

Near the level of vertebra L 4, the aorta branches to form the ________ arteries.

back 100

common iliac

front 101

What is the primary reason cardiovascular disease affects older women and not younger women?

back 101

Older women lack estrogen

front 102

Which of the following contributes to the formation of the popliteal vein?

back 102

anterior and posterior tibial and fibular

front 103

Multiple arteries joined in order to serve a single capillary network are called

back 103

collaterals

front 104

An important pulse point in the neck on the lateral sides of the trachea is the

back 104

brachial

front 105

The ________ receives blood from the diaphragm.

back 105

no data

front 106

All of the following conditions change peripheral resistance by affecting blood viscosity except

back 106

atherosclerosis

front 107

Which of the these blood vessels is not a visceral branch of the thoracic aorta?

back 107

3 branches are

Esophageal Arteries
Bronchial Arteries
Pericardial Arteries

front 108

The ________ valve prevents backward flow into the left atrium.

back 108

bicupsid valve (mitral)

front 109

The bicuspid or mitral valve is located

back 109

between the left atrium and left ventricle

front 110

The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle when the semilunar valve closes is the

back 110

end-systolic volume (ESV)

front 111

The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from

back 111

depolarization of the atria

front 112

The ________ is a remnant of an important fetal blood vessel that once linked the pulmonary and systemic circuits.

back 112

ligamentum arteriosum

front 113

Which of the following are involved in the pulmonary circuit?

back 113

right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, left atrium

front 114

The following are structural components of the conducting system of the heart.
1. Purkinje fibers
2. AV bundle
3. AV node
4. SA node
5. bundle branches

The sequence in which excitation would move through this system is

back 114

SA node

AV node

AV bundle

bundle branches

Purkinje fibers

front 115

A slower-than-normal heart rate is called

back 115

bradycardia

front 116

The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the

back 116

interatrial septum

front 117

The superior portion of the heart where major blood vessels enter and exit is the

back 117

Base

front 118

The atrioventricular valves permit blood flow

back 118

In one direction only

front 119

The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is the

back 119

foramen ovale

front 120

Activation of which kind of receptor causes heart rate to increase?

back 120

beta-one receptor

front 121

The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the

back 121

Lungs

front 122

Positive inotropic drugs such as glucagon and thyroid hormone cause

back 122

increased contractility

front 123

There are ________ pulmonary veins.

back 123

4

front 124

The heart pumps approximately ________ liters of blood each day.

back 124

8000

front 125

The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart. What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering from the systemic circulation?
1. right atrium
2. left atrium
3. right ventricle
4. left ventricle
5. venae cavae
6. aorta
7. pulmonary trunk
8. pulmonary veins

back 125

Venae cava

right atrium

right ventricle

pulmonary trunk

pulmonary vein

left atrium

left ventricle

aorta

front 126

The ________ is the volume of blood in a ventricle at the beginning of systole.

back 126

end-diastolic volume

front 127

Which of the following is occurring during ventricular diastole?

back 127

The ventricles are passively filling and atria are contracting

front 128

Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing.

back 128

QRS complex

front 129

Considering the left ventricle, why does isovolumetric ventricular contraction occur during ventricular systole?

back 129

Aortic pressure is higher than ventricular pressure and the ventricle must pressurize the blood to open the aortic valve

front 130

Cardiac output is increased by

back 130

Sympathetic stimulation

front 131

Which of the following statements is true concerning differences between the right and left ventricles?

back 131

The efficiency of the right ventricle is increased by the left ventricle because the wall of the left ventricle pushes into the right ventricle.

front 132

Each IgG has ________ binding sites for attachment to antigenic determinants.

back 132

2

front 133

The movement of phagocytes through the capillary wall is called

back 133

diapedesis.

front 134

________ exists when the immune system does not respond to a particular antigen.

back 134

tolerance

front 135

Various types of macrophages are derived from

back 135

Monocytes

front 136

________ are fixed macrophages found in the liver.

back 136

Kupffer cells

front 137

________ are clusters of lymphatic nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine.

back 137

Peyer's patches

front 138

Martha had a heart transplant. In order to keep her body from rejecting the transplant she takes

back 138

immunosuppressive drugs

front 139

Immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth is called ________ immunity.

back 139

Innate

front 140

Class II MHC molecules are found on which of the following?

back 140

macrophages AND dendritic cells.

front 141

The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are the

back 141

alveoli

front 142

The respiratory portion of the respiratory tract includes the

back 142

Alveoli

front 143

The ________ fissure separates the lobes of the left lung.

back 143

oblique

front 144

The laryngeal cartilage which is not composed of hyaline cartilage is the

back 144

epiglottis.

front 145

The ________ is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.

back 145

oropharynx

front 146

Under quiet conditions, blood returning to the heart retains about ________ of its oxygen content.

back 146

75%

front 147

The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the

back 147

Pharynx

front 148

The apneustic centers of the pons

back 148

no data

front 149

The auditory tubes open into the

back 149

Nasopharynx

front 150

Lymphatic capillaries are not found in

back 150

central nervous system, red bone marrow, vascular tissue, or portion of the spleen.

front 151

If the thymus shrank and stopped making thymosins, we would expect to see an immediate decrease in the number of

back 151

T-cells

front 152

Which of the following is not a lymphocyte?

back 152

Monocytes

front 153

An infection and inflammation of the aggregated lymphatic nodules in the pharynx is called

back 153

tonsillitis.

front 154

CD8 markers are to ________ T cells as CD4 markers are to ________ T cells.

back 154

cytoxic; helper

front 155

The portions of an antigen to which antibodies bind are the

back 155

antigenic determinant sites

front 156

Large lymphatic vessels have a wall structure most similar to which blood vessel?

back 156

Veins

front 157

Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the

back 157

thoracic duct.

front 158

Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins are

back 158

IgG

front 159

Immunoglobulins, formed of five subunits, that are the first antibodies to be produced in response to infection, are

back 159

IgM

front 160

Various types of macrophages are derived from

back 160

monocytes

front 161

Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection except

back 161

Complement (body hair, epithelium, secretions, basement membranes)

front 162

Martha had a heart transplant. In order to keep her body from rejecting the transplant she takes

back 162

immunosuppressive drugs

front 163

Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by

back 163

adaptive immunity

front 164

An accumulation of lymph in a region where lymphatic drainage has been blocked is called

back 164

lymphedema

front 165

An important protein in the activation of the alternative pathway of complement activation is

back 165

no data

front 166

Helper T cells do all of the following except

back 166

provide a rapid response to a future exposure to the antigen.

front 167

If the disulfide bonds in IgG were broken, how many peptide chains would be set free?

back 167

4

front 168

Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells.

back 168

cytotoxic T

front 169

Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals are

back 169

necessary for the transport of dietary lipids

front 170

In passive immunity, the

back 170

no data

front 171

Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called ________ immunity.

back 171

naturally acquired active

front 172

Dividing lymphocytes can be found in the ________ of the lymphatic nodule.

back 172

Germinal Center

front 173

A substance that provokes an immune response is called an

back 173

Antigen

front 174

During exercise, which of the following contract for active exhalation?

back 174

rectus abdominis and internal

front 175

Which pressure remains negative throughout the respiratory cycle?

back 175

Intrapleural

front 176

JJ is suffering from laryngitis. He will most likely experience which of the following symptoms?

back 176

Hoarseness

front 177

Which of these is not part of the upper respiratory system?

back 177

Trachea

front 178

conchae

back 178

divide the nasal cavity into right and left sides.

front 179

________ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle.

back 179

Tidal volume

front 180

Which of the following descriptions best matches the term external intercostal?

back 180

Primary muscle of inspiration

front 181

The chloride shift occurs in order to

back 181

Transport bicarbonate ions into the blood plasma

front 182

The pneumotaxic center of the pons

back 182

modifies the rate and depth of breathing

front 183

The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the

back 183

oropharynx

front 184

Alveolar ventilation refers to the

back 184

movement of air into and out of the alveoli

front 185

Henry's law states that

back 185

the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure.

front 186

Roughly ________ terminal bronchioles arise from each segmental bronchus.

back 186

6500

front 187

Which of the following descriptions best matches the term bronchiolar smooth muscle?

back 187

contraction increases airway resistance

front 188

A pair of ligaments covered by laryngeal epithelium that function in sound production are the

back 188

Vocal folds

front 189

A condition that increases lung compliance is

back 189

emphysema

front 190

An important component of the lamina propria in the upper respiratory system is

back 190

Mucus glands

front 191

Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known?

back 191

minute volume

front 192

Carbon dioxide and water combine to form

back 192

Carbonic acid

front 193

Prolonged inspirations can result from stimulating the ________ center.

back 193

Apneustic

front 194

How does the pressure "P4" at label "4" compare to the pressure "P5" at label "5"?

back 194

P4 is always lower than P5

front 195

A SCUBA diver has been deep underwater and suddenly rises to the surface too fast. Why does the diver get decompression sickness?

back 195

Pressure decreases to fast and nitrogen gas in the blood forms bubbles.

front 196

The superior region of the pharynx is called the

back 196

Nasopharynx

front 197

Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is high is

back 197

Less than hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low

front 198

The entire array of protective mechanisms in the respiratory system is called the

back 198

Respiratory defense system

front 199

G cells of the stomach secrete

back 199

gastrin

front 200

Muscles known as the pharyngeal constrictors function in

back 200

Swallowing

front 201

Motility in the small intestines is controlled in part by all of the following except

back 201

VIP

front 202

The space between the cheeks or lips and the teeth is called the

back 202

Vestibule

front 203

An intestinal hormone that stimulates the release of insulin from the pancreatic islet cells is

back 203

Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)

front 204

If digestion of a carbohydrate results in equal amounts of glucose and galactose, this carbohydrate is probably

back 204

Lactose

front 205

________ are also known as canines.

back 205

Cuspids

front 206

The formation of GTP from GDP in the citric acid cycle is an example of

back 206

substrate-level phosphorylation

front 207

Intermediary molecules that accept electrons and transfer them to another molecule are called

back 207

coenzymes

front 208

Lipids

back 208

no data

front 209

In glycolysis, each molecule of glucose that is catabolized gives a net yield of how many molecules of ATP?

back 209

2

front 210

Lipogenesis is common for organic molecules because the intermediate ________ is formed in most nutrient metabolic processes.

back 210

acetyl-CoA

front 211

The strategy of eating starchy foods for several days before an athletic event is known as

back 211

carbohydrate loading.

front 212

Fatty acids that are necessary for proper health but cannot be synthesized by the body are called ________ fatty acids.

back 212

Essential

front 213

The condition when excessive fluid loss from sweating disrupts thermoregulatory mechanisms is known as

back 213

heat exhaustion

front 214

What is the role of NADH in metabolism?

back 214

transport hydrogen atoms to coenzymes in the mitochondrial cristae

front 215

Obesity is defined as a body weight more than ________ percent above the ideal body weight for an individual.

back 215

20

front 216

The cells of the macula densa, the juxtaglomerular cells, and the extraglomerular mesangial cells form the

back 216

juxtaglomerular complex

front 217

The portion of the nephron that empties into the collecting duct is the

back 217

Distal convoluted tubule

front 218

One mechanism the kidney uses to raise systemic blood pressure is to

back 218

Increase secretion of renin by the juxtaglomerular complex

front 219

Major calyces are

back 219

the large branches of the renal pelvis

front 220

The efferent arteriole of a nephron divides to form a network of capillaries within the cortex called the ________ capillaries.

back 220

peritubular

front 221

Damage to the glomerular filtration membrane allowing proteins into the capsular space would result in all of the following except

back 221

a decrease in capsular hydrostatic pressure

front 222

The process that transports solutes, including many drugs, into the tubular fluid is called

back 222

secretion

front 223

Which of the following is a not a true statement regarding the countercurrent multiplication system?

back 223

Osmotic concentration in the nephron loop decreases as fluid flows toward the bottom of the loop

front 224

The cavity of the kidney that receives urine from the calyces is called the

back 224

Renal pelvis

front 225

Urine is carried from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body by the

back 225

Urethra

front 226

The structure that marks the division between the right and left lobes of the liver is the

back 226

Falciform ligament

front 227

The oral cavity is also known as the ________ cavity.

back 227

Buccal

front 228

An intestinal hormone that stimulates the release of insulin from the pancreatic islet cells is

back 228

Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)

front 229

A stratified squamous epithelial lining can be found in all of the following except in the

back 229

stomach

front 230

Bile is stored in the

back 230

Gallbladder

front 231

Match the gastric phase on the left (1-3) with the correct description on the right (4-6):

1. intestinal phase4. prepares stomach for arrival of food2. gastric phase5. stomach empties and decreases secretions3. cephalic phase6. stomach secretes juice and mixes food into chyme

back 231

no data

front 232

The part of the stomach that functions as a mixing chamber for food and secretions is the

back 232

Body

front 233

Which organ is responsible for dehydration and compaction of indigestible materials?

back 233

Large Intestine

front 234

The ridge of oral mucosa that surrounds the base of a tooth is the

back 234

Gingiva

front 235

Circular folds are

back 235

no data

front 236

Which of the following is true regarding the production of intestinal juice?

back 236

Local reflects and parasympathetic stimulation increase the production of intestinal juice

front 237

A surgical procedure to promote rapid weight loss is removal of most of the

back 237

Jejunum

front 238

The oral mucosa has ________ epithelium.

back 238

stratified squamous

front 239

There are normally a total of ________ permanent teeth.

back 239

32

front 240

The root of a tooth is covered by

back 240

Cementum

front 241

Peyer's patches are characteristic of the

back 241

small intestine

front 242

Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?

back 242

manufacturing blood cells

front 243

Increased secretion by all the salivary glands results from

back 243

parasympathetic stimulation

front 244

Leptin is to satiety as ________ is to hunger.

back 244

insulin

front 245

All of the following are true of beta-oxidation except that

back 245

lipids are converted into glycogen molecules.

front 246

The study of the flow of energy and its transformations is called

back 246

energetics

front 247

The element that is necessary for the proper function of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase is

back 247

Zinc

front 248

The citric acid cycle occurs in the

back 248

no data

front 249

A high uric acid level (above 7.4 mg/dl) can lead to the painful condition known as

back 249

Gout

front 250

An ion that is a necessary component of high-energy compounds and nucleic acids and a structural component of bone is the ________ ion.

back 250

Phosphate

front 251

The chemical equation that correctly summarizes the overall reaction in oxidative phosphorylation is

back 251

2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O.

front 252

All of the following occur when the temperature of the preoptic area of the hypothalamus drops below its thermostat setting except

back 252

blood flow to the skin increases.

front 253

In glycolysis, each molecule of glucose that is catabolized gives a net yield of how many molecules of ATP?

back 253

2

front 254

Fatty acids and many amino acids cannot be used for ________ because their catabolic pathways produce acetyl-CoA.

back 254

gluconeogenesis

front 255

Major calyces are

back 255

no data

front 256

Prolonged aldosterone stimulation of the distal convoluted tubule may result in

back 256

hypokalemia

front 257

Urine is carried from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body by the

back 257

urethra

front 258

The proximal convoluted tubule cells are

back 258

cuboidal cells with microvilli.

front 259

Calculate filtration pressure (FP) in a nephron with a glomerular hydrostatic pressure of 55 mm Hg, a blood colloid osmotic pressure of 25 mm Hg, and a capsular hydrostatic pressure of 15 mm Hg.

back 259

FP=15mmHg

front 260

A drug that inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) may lead to all of the following except

back 260

All are correct

front 261

The cells of the macula densa, the juxtaglomerular cells, and the extraglomerular mesangial cells form the

back 261

juxtaglomerular complex

front 262

Glomerulonephritis may occur as a consequence of an infection with the bacterium

back 262

Streptococcus.

front 263

The ________ is a capillary bed that parallels the nephron loop (loop of Henle).

back 263

vasa recta

front 264

The cavity of the kidney that receives urine from the calyces is called the

back 264

renal pelvis

front 265

An important structure for blood pressure regulation is the

back 265

Juxtaglomenlar complex

front 266

A patient excretes a large volume of very dilute urine on a continuing basis.

back 266

absence of ADH.

front 267

The following is a list of the blood vessels that carry blood to the kidney. In what order does blood pass through these vessels starting at the renal artery?
1.afferent arteriole2.arcuate artery3.interlobar artery4.segmental artery5.glomerulus6.cortical radiate artery7.efferent arteriole8.peritubular capillary

back 267

4, 3, 2, 6, 1, 5, 7, 8

front 268

Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule and the glomerulus make up the

back 268

Renal corpuscle

front 269

The inability of the kidneys to excrete adequately to maintain homeostasis is

back 269

renal failure

front 270

Glomerular blood flow is unique because it flows

back 270

From arteriole to capillary bed to arteriole

front 271

The concentration at which all of the carriers in renal tubules for a given substance are saturated is the

back 271

no data

front 272

Functions of the urinary system include all of the following except

back 272

regulating body temperature

front 273

The principal ions in extracellular fluid are sodium, chloride, and

back 273

sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate

front 274

Which of the following statements regarding fluid and electrolyte balance is true?

back 274

water and electrolytes occur in compartments in which the composition of fluid varies

front 275

A person with emphysema will exhibit signs of

back 275

chronic respiratory acidosis.

front 276

The two major subdivisions of the ECF are the

back 276

interstitial fluid and plasma

front 277

Amino acids in solution contain both a negative and positive charge and thus are termed a(n)

back 277

Zwitterions

front 278

Calcium reabsorption by the kidneys is promoted by the hormone

back 278

parathyroid hormone

front 279

The normal pH range for ECF is

back 279

7.35-7.45

front 280

When pure water is consumed,

back 280

osmolarities of the two-fluid

front 281

When the pH of the extracellular fluid drops, the kidneys

back 281

kidneys excrete more hydrogen ions AND kidneys excrete fewer bicarbonate ions

front 282

The principal cation in intracellular fluid is

back 282

potassium

front 283

The vulva includes all of the following except the

back 283

Vagina

front 284

The space bounded by the labia minora is the

back 284

Vestibule

front 285

Which of the following statements concerning the vagina is false?

back 285

It loses a portion of its lining during menses.

front 286

The portion of the uterus that projects into the vagina is called the

back 286

Cervix

front 287

The delicate layer of serous membrane that covers the testis is called the

back 287

tunica vaginalis

front 288

The pigmented skin that surrounds the nipple is the

back 288

aerola

front 289

The spermatic cord is

back 289

a bundle of tissue that contains the ductus deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that serve the testis

front 290

Ovarian cancer is the deadliest of the reproductive cancers because it

back 290

is usually not diagnosed early

front 291

The hormone that stimulates spermatogenesis in males is

back 291

FSH

front 292

During gastrulation,

back 292

two layered embryo (epiblast and hypoblast) is converted into 3 primary embryonic germ layers

front 293

The ________ is formed by the allantois, blood vessels, and yolk sac.

back 293

Umbilical cord

front 294

The stage of labor during which the fetus emerges from the vagina is called the ________ stage.

back 294

Expulsion

front 295

If fertilization occurs, the ________ is maintained because the embryo secretes ________.

back 295

corpus luteum; human chorionic gonadotrophin

front 296

If an individual carries two different alleles for the same trait, the individual is ________ for the trait.

back 296

heterozygous

front 297

Which of the following places the stages of labor in the correct order?

back 297

Dilation, Expulsion,

front 298

In ________, implantation occurs somewhere other than in the uterus.

back 298

ectopic pregnancy

front 299

After fertilization, the first cell division is completed

back 299

more than a day later 32 hours

front 300

The clear liquid secreted by the mammary glands before milk production begins is called

back 300

Colostrum

front 301

The placenta is a source of all of the following hormones, except

back 301

hCG
relaxin
placental lactogen
progesterone

front 302

The uterine epithelium is broken down by which structure of the blastocyst?

back 302

syncytiotrophoblast

front 303

How many chromosomes do human somatic cells contain?

back 303

46

front 304

How many chromosomes do human gametes contain?

back 304

23

front 305

Oxygenated blood from the placenta returns to the fetus in the

back 305

umbilical vein

front 306

The primary nutrient source for early embryonic development that later becomes an important site for blood formation is the

back 306

Yolk sac

front 307

The cell that directly results from the fusion of a secondary oocyte and a single sperm is called a(n)

back 307

zygote.

front 308

The first stage of labor is the ________ stage.

back 308

Dilation

front 309

The ________ is the portion of the endometrium not in contact with the chorion.

back 309

parietal decidua

front 310

During gestation, contraction of the myometrium is inhibited by ________, produced by the corpus luteum.

back 310

progesterone

front 311

The uterine epithelium is broken down by the enzyme,

back 311

hyaluronidase.

front 312

The ________ is formed by the allantois, blood vessels, and yolk sac.

back 312

umbilical cord

front 313

The space bounded by the labia minora is the

back 313

Vestibule

front 314

The ________ of a sperm contains the enzymes essential for fertilization.

back 314

acrosome

front 315

The organ that delivers semen into the female reproductive tract is the

back 315

Penis

front 316

Which of the following statements about oogenesis is false?

back 316

The polar body is the egg cell which is then fertilized by the sperm cell.

front 317

Arrange the four structures listed below into the order in which sperm pass from the testis to the external urethral orifice.
1. ductus deferens
2. urethra
3. ejaculatory duct
4. epididymis

back 317

4,1,3,2

front 318

The fold of skin that covers the glans penis is the

back 318

Foreskin

front 319

Semen contains all of the following except

back 319

spermatogonia

front 320

Why are inguinal hernias generally associated with males?

back 320

Males have a canal through the abdominal wall that the testes move through, and it often does not close up properly

front 321

Contraction of the dartos muscle

back 321

tightens the scrotal sac.

front 322

In a 28 day cycle, ovulation typically occurs around day

back 322

Day 14

front 323

The pocket formed between the uterus and the posterior wall of the bladder is the

back 323

Rectourterine Pouch

front 324

Which region of the uterine tube captures the ovum?

back 324

infundibulum

front 325

Which of the following statements concerning the vagina is False

back 325

It loses a portion of its lining during menses.

front 326

Painful menstruation is called

back 326

Dysmenorrhea

front 327

The subsidence of an erection after ejaculation is known as

back 327

Detumescence

front 328

The main portion of the uterus is called the corpus or

back 328

Body

front 329

The portion of the urethra that penetrates the urogenital diaphragm is the

back 329

Membranous urethra

front 330

The nurse cells of the seminiferous tubules do all of the following except

back 330

secrete testosterone.

front 331

The ________ ligaments extend from the base of the uterus and vagina to the lateral walls of the pelvis.

back 331

Lateral

front 332

The round ligaments extend from the

back 332

lateral margins of the uterus, through the inguinal canal to the external genitalia

front 333

The role of inhibin in male reproduction is to

back 333

no data

front 334

The cells that are formed during spermatogenesis by meiosis I are called

back 334

secondary spermatocytes

front 335

The organ that provides mechanical protection and nutritional support for the developing embryo is the

back 335

Uterus

front 336

The special type of cell division required to produce gametes is called

back 336

meiosis

front 337

Which hormone affects the osmolarity of blood?

back 337

Antidiuretic hormone

front 338

Substances that can carry electrical current across cell membranes are called

back 338

electrolytes

front 339

Which of the following statements is false regarding fluid and electrolyte balance?

back 339

no data

front 340

Exchange between the two main subdivisions of ECF occurs primarily at the

back 340

capillaries

front 341

All of the following are examples of compensatory mechanisms that would occur as a result of metabolic acidosis except

back 341

kidneys retain H+.

front 342

A person with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus will develop

back 342

metabolic acidosis.

front 343

Which hormone does&nbsp;&nbsp;<span>not</span>&nbsp;play a role in regulating fluid and electrolyte balance?

back 343

no data

front 344

The typical value of water losses and gains each day is

back 344

2500 mL

front 345

Amino acids in solution contain both a negative and positive charge and thus are termed a(n)

back 345

zwitterion

front 346

A(n) ________ acid is an acid that can leave solution and enter the atmosphere.

back 346

volatile

front 347

Water molecules move across cells by

back 347

osmosis

front 348

A person with emphysema will exhibit signs of

back 348

chronic respiratory acidosis

front 349

A chemical that minimizes changes in the pH of a body fluid by releasing or binding hydrogen ion is called a(n)

back 349

buffer