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CSIA 310 Study Guide

front 1

9-1. Because it's a perimeter defense strategy, a firewall is not a critical element for cardholder data security.

back 1

B. False

front 2

9-2. You are tasked with designing a security policy for cardholder data. Which of the following are recommended security strategies for cardholder data?

back 2

A. Verify that data is retained for a limited period of time

B. Verify that data is disposed of properly

C. Verify that passwords are encrypted during transmission

front 3

9-3. Use WEP to secure communications sent over a wired network.

back 3

B. False

front 4

9-4. Which of the following elements are typically examined during a PCI DSS Security Assessment?

back 4

A. Firewalls

B. Network hardware

front 5

9-5. When credit card transactions are handled in __________, receipts are often collected over a day or week and then sent in as multiple sets of information.

back 5

Batch processing

front 6

9-6. PSS DSS is a set of standards designed to help organizations that process credit card payments prevent fraud by having increased control over data and its exposure.

back 6

A. True

front 7

9-7. When credit card transactions are handled in __________, a consumer's credit card is charged immediately to complete a purchase.

back 7

Real-time processing

front 8

9-8. You are attempting to synchronize your Web server to online timekeeping. Which of the following protocols is responsible for managing system time?

back 8

C. NTP

front 9

9-9. Which of the following firewall considerations are recommended by the PCI Security Standards Council?

back 9

B. Block unused ports

C. Use host-based firewall systems on mobile computers

D. Conduct periodic reviews of firewall and router set rules

front 10

9-10. Merchants should develop a two-factor authentication scheme to protect access to cardholder data.

back 10

A. True

front 11

10-1. The bounce rate identifies the percentage of people who leave you site from the page they initially visited.

back 11

A. True

front 12

10-2. You recently developed an application. In which SDLC stages would the application likely be in just prior to being released to the production environment?

back 12

A. RC1

D. Beta

front 13

10-3. Recovery testing analyzes how an application manages the aftermath of failures and crashes.

back 13

A. True

front 14

10-4. As a software developer, you have recently coded a security patch to a Web application. Which of the following might you do after finishing the patch?

back 14

A. Perform a regression test

front 15

10-5. You have completed an application and now you wonder if it will work with both the Microsoft Internet Explorer and Mozilla Firefox Web browsers. Which of the following tests might you perform.

back 15

C. Compatibility test

front 16

10-6. __________ incorporates features of black and white box testing.

back 16

Gray box testing

front 17

10-7. Regulations are not set by organizations but by applicable laws.

back 17

A. True

front 18

10-8. You are using a testing mechanism that looks at the input and output of an application to determine potential problems. Which mechanisms may be in use?

back 18

A. Black box testing

B. White box testing

C. Gray box testing

front 19

10-9. Which of the following is often developed by first creating a risk analysis?

back 19

C. Security policies

front 20

14-10. Which of the following professions are concerned with managing database security, such as the list of users who have access to all or part of the database?

back 20

A. Network architect

front 21

11-1. The "percentage of vulnerabilities not found" metric is a useful way of reporting assessment data.

back 21

B. False

front 22

11-2. How many tiers are commonly used for Web sites?

back 22

C. 3

front 23

11-3. The act of fixing vulnerabilities or findings resulting from an assessment is known as __________.

back 23

Remidiation

front 24

11-4. Which of the following activities are considered parts of a Web server OS assessment?

back 24

B. Identifying the patches and updates that have been installed

C. Identify the services and ports that are active

front 25

11-5. Ping sweeps are part of what process?

back 25

B. Discovery

front 26

11-6. Web site forms and user input fields are often attacked using cross-site scripting.

back 26

A. True

front 27

11-7. Which section of the assessment report is intended to be a high-level briefing of the findings?

back 27

D. Executive summary

front 28

11-8. An in-depth security assessment of a Web sever application includes performing which of the following?

back 28

C. A source code review

front 29

11-9. SQL __________ is an attempt to manipulate a database by inserting commands into a field or URL.

back 29

Injection

front 30

11-10. Nmap's primary features include which of the following?

back 30

B. OS fingerprinting

C. Port scanning

E. Ping sweeps

front 31

11-11. What is the purpose of exploiting a vulnerability or flaw in a system to gain access to resources not otherwise available to the attacker or tester?

back 31

C. Privilege escalation

front 32

11-12. OWASP is the organization known for developing secure application development standards and practices.

back 32

A. True

front 33

11-13. Nessus uses thousands of __________ to identify vulnerabilities associated with services, application, and operating systems.

back 33

Plug-ins

front 34

11-14. Which attack involves exploring the files and folders of a Web server by manipulating URLs?

back 34

D. Directory traversal attacks

front 35

11-15. Unauthenticated scanning requires the scanner logging onto the systems being accessed.

back 35

B. False

front 36

12-1. Which two security risks apply to IM chatting?

back 36

B. Possible data compromise

C. Virus and malware

front 37

12-2. 3G networks use packet-switching to route voice calls.

back 37

B. False

front 38

12-3. __________ is a form of messaging used to share pictures, text pages, and ringtones.

back 38

MMS

front 39

12-4. 4G network speeds are comparable to DSL and cable modem Internet services.

back 39

A. True

front 40

12-5. Which of the following risks does not apply to Internet browsing?

back 40

B. Physical theft

front 41

12-6. __________ is the threat related to voice communications and involves an unauthorized party listening in to conversations.

back 41

Eavesdropping

front 42

12-7. The term endpoint is typically used to describe what type of device?

back 42

B. A device with server capabilities

front 43

12-8. What is the minimum strength recommended for whole-device encryption?

back 43

D. There is no minimum

front 44

12-9. The term __________ describes the merging of various types of devices and technologies into a common single form.

back 44

Convergence

front 45

12-10. Which two controls provide physical security for devices?

back 45

B. Locking the device

C. Remote erasure

front 46

12-11. A hand off, or transfer of communications from on cell to another, was a significant factor regarding the mobility and popularity of cellular phones.

back 46

A. True

front 47

12-12. Which form of communication is compatible across nearly all cellular networks and is widely considered to be the most often used communication method, by quantity, on today's phones?

back 47

A. SMS texting

front 48

12-13. Which of these mobile risks are included among the OWASP Top 10?

back 48

A. Weak server-side controls

B. Poor authorization and authentication

D. Client-side injection

front 49

12-14. The OWASP mobile security risk "Security Decisions Via Untrusted Inputs" refers to what unsecure practice?

back 49

B. Making security decisions on potentially untrusted sources

front 50

12-15. What are two popular ways that Web sites arrange a session?

back 50

A. By creating cookies

D. By creating a random string of characters in the URL or Web address

front 51

13-1. When information is temporarily kept at one or more middle points during transmission, that technique is called __________ communication.

back 51

Store-and-forward

front 52

13-2. Which of the following describes multiple points of presence (MPOP)?

back 52

B. Aggregating presence information from multiple applications or devices

front 53

13-3. Phishing, social engineering, and 419 scams are some of the threats encountered when using __________.

back 53

E-mail

front 54

13-4. Messaging or chatting on social networking sites can be considered very private and secure.

back 54

B. False

front 55

13-5. Why are PBXs an attractive target to attackers?

back 55

A. Several services depend on the PBX's operation

B. Numerous protocols are involved

front 56

13-6. Store-and-forward communication is preferred over real-time communication in which environments?

back 56

A. When delivery is unreliable

B. When the destination is not always available

front 57

13-7. Which areas of concern are associated with SMS vulnerabilities?

back 57

B. Integrity

C. Confidentiality

front 58

13-8. SMS and MMS are primarily the same service apart from the addition of multimedia with MMS.

back 58

B. False

front 59

13-9. Protocols such as SIP, H.323, MGCP, IP, and RTP are encountered when discussing which of the following?

back 59

C. VoIP

front 60

13-10. This chapter discussed which issues brought on by adding VoIP devices to an organization?

back 60

A. Performance issues: significantly more network traffic

B. Security issues: new attack vectors and more vulnerabilities to deal with

front 61

13-11. A networking method of segregating VoIP traffic from data traffic is __________.

back 61

VLANs

front 62

13-12. Select one way SIP does not assist with establishing a multimedia connection.

back 62

D. User distance

front 63

13-13. SIP manages multimedia sessions with features similar to how the telephone system dials, rings, and manages responses from phones.

back 63

A. True

front 64

13-14. The SIP session request and response messages are formed similarly to __________ messages.

back 64

C. HTTP

front 65

14-1. Data typically refers to RAW unorganized facts.

back 65

A. True

front 66

14-2. A SQL server database is an example of a relational database.

back 66

B. True

front 67

14-3. The TOR browser is used to access which of the following?

back 67

C. Deep web

front 68

14-4. Which of the following represents a mindset whereby programming is done with a clear understanding of current threats and how these threats potentially impact overall security?

back 68

C. Defensive programming

front 69

14-5. Which of the following professions are concerned with the back-end development of a Web sire and will incorporate appropriate security measures from initial concept to completion?

back 69

B. Web developer

front 70

14-6. A(n) __________ is a set of instructions understood by the computer allowing it to perform predetermined functions.

back 70

A. Program

front 71

14-7. Which of the following professions are opensource programming languages?

back 71

B. Perl

C. PHP

front 72

14-8. __________ refers to the systems and processes used to ensure technology helps meet and organizations goals?

back 72

C. Governance

front 73

14-9. Certification courseware and training materials are focused and directed, but degree programs often require elective courses that are not always related to the specific area of IT.

back 73

A. True

front 74

14-10. Which of the following professions are concerned with managing database security, such as the list of users who have access to all or part of the database>

back 74

A. Network architect

front 75

15-1. Which organization provides incident response support for the federal government?

back 75

C. US-CERT

front 76

15-2. Which organizations investigate Internet crime?

back 76

B. IC3

C. ECTFs

front 77

15-3. Which of the following standards are governed by NIST?

back 77

A. Advances Encryption Standard (AES)

C. The United States Government Configuration Baseline

front 78

15-4. Which of the following are (ISC)2 qualifications?

back 78

B. CISSP

C. CISSP-ISSEP

E. CSSLP

front 79

15-5. You must pass an exam to become an (ISC)2 Associate.

back 79

A. True

front 80

15-6. Which certification organization is not approved under DoD Directive 8750?

back 80

D. FLETC

front 81

15-7. What is the purpose of open proxy honeypots in relation to Internet-based Web attacks?

back 81

A. Silently record for later analysis

front 82

15-8. Roughly how many site reviews were used to generate the most recent WASC Web Security Report?

back 82

B. 10,000

front 83

15-9. ISO 17024 is the international standard for which of the following?

back 83

D. Certification programs for personal competence

front 84

15-10. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) represents the United States in the International Standards Organization.

back 84

B. False