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Exam 2 A&P 1

front 1

___ is the lining of the marrow cavity

back 1

endosteum

front 2

____ are cells that can dissolve the bony matrix

back 2

osteoclasts

front 3

___ are layers of bone matrix

back 3

lamellae

front 4

____ are small channels that radiate through the matrix of bone

back 4

canaliculi

front 5

___ are cells that can build bony matrix

back 5

osteoblasts

front 6

____ : facet

  • vertebrae
  • mandible
  • femur
  • coxal bone
  • occipital bone

back 6

vertebrae

front 7

___ : ramus

  • vertebrae
  • mandible
  • femur
  • coxal bone
  • occipital bone

back 7

mandible

front 8

___ : trochanter

  • vertebrae
  • mandible
  • femur
  • coxal bone
  • occipital bone

back 8

femur

front 9

___ : ischial spine

  • vertebrae
  • mandible
  • femur
  • coxal bone
  • occipital bone

back 9

coxal bone

front 10

___ : foramen

  • vertebrae
  • mandible
  • femur
  • coxal bone
  • occipital bone

back 10

occipital bone

front 11

The structural unit of cancellous bone tissue is called ____.

back 11

trabeculae

front 12

Which of the following hormones is currently thought to decrease plasma calcium levels in pregnant women and children?

  • calcitriol
  • calcitonin
  • parathyroid hormone (PTH)
  • thyroid hormones

back 12

calcitonin

front 13

PTH promotes the formation of which hormone?

  • calcitriol
  • calcitonin
  • vitamin D
  • thyroid hormones

back 13

calcitriol

front 14

Which of the following would NOT be a way that parathyroid hormone (PTH) could alter plasma calcium levels? (Which one of the following is FALSE?)

  • increase osteoblasts on bone
  • increase osteoclasts
  • increase reabsorption of calcium in the kidney

back 14

increase osteoblasts on bone

front 15

Which hormone works directly in the intestine to increase plasma calcium levels?

  • calcitriol
  • PTH
  • calcitonin

back 15

calcitriol

front 16

___ is an incomplete fracture or cracking of the bone without actual separation of the parts. Common in children.

  • greenstick
  • comminuted
  • spiral

back 16

greenstick

front 17

___ : bone fragments into many pieces

  • greenstick
  • comminuted
  • spiral

back 17

comminuted

front 18

___: common sports fracture resulting from a twist force

  • greenstick
  • comminuted
  • spiral

back 18

spiral

front 19

Which type of cartilage is NOT properly matched with its function?

  • elastic cartilage; withstand repetitive bending
  • fibrocartilage; withstand pressure and stretch
  • hyaline cartilage; cover the ends of bones
  • skeletal cartilage; reinforce airways

back 19

skeletal cartilage; reinforce airways

front 20

The pubic symphysis connects the two hip bones anteriorly and provides a little movement during childbirth. Choose the most appropriate tissue for this structure that is subjected to both pressure and stretch.

  • hyaline cartilage
  • fibrocartilage
  • elastic cartilage
  • bone

back 20

fibrocartilage

front 21

Which pairing is NOT correct?

  • appendicular skeleton; limb girdles
  • axial skeleton; bones of the limbs
  • appendicular skeleton; used during movement
  • axial skeleton; supports internal organs

back 21

axial skeleton; bones of the limbs

front 22

Spongy bone contains ____

  • trabeculae
  • osseous lamellae
  • lamellar bone
  • osteons

back 22

trabeculae

front 23

Choose the best location for obtaining a red bone marrow sample from a patient.

  • head of humerus
  • hip bone
  • medullary cavity of femur
  • frontal bone

back 23

hip bone

front 24

Select the bone disorder in which bone resorption outpaces bone deposit, leaving the person with thin and often very fragile bones?

  • Paget's disease
  • rickets
  • osteomalacia
  • osteoporosis

back 24

osteoporosis

front 25

At what age do bones reach their peak density?

  • early childhood
  • at birth
  • early adulthood
  • late adulthood

back 25

early adulthood

front 26

Skeletal remains are discovered at an archeological site. X-rays of the femur show evidence of a thin epiphyseal plate. This bone likely belonged to which of the following?

  • 25 year old female
  • 8 year old female
  • 18 year old male
  • 60 year old male

back 26

18 year old male

front 27

Cranial bones develop ________.

  • within osseous membranes
  • from cartilage models
  • from a tendon
  • within fibrous membranes

back 27

within fibrous membranes

front 28

Description of nonaxial movement

  • Flat bones sliding past one another
  • Movement between adjacent carpal bones
  • Rotation of a bone on one axis
  • Flexion at the elbow
  • Vertebral processes gliding past one another

back 28

  • Flat bones sliding past one another
  • Movement between adjacent carpal bones
  • Vertebral processes gliding past one another

front 29

Description of other types of movement

  • Flat bones sliding past one another
  • Movement between adjacent carpal bones
  • Rotation of a bone on one axis
  • Flexion at the elbow
  • Vertebral processes gliding past one another

back 29

  • Rotation of a bone on one axis
  • Flexion at the elbow

front 30

In uniaxial movement at the elbow joint, the movement allowed is ____ and _____

back 30

flexion, extension

front 31

Examples of uniaxial movement permitted at the surfaces of bones can be found at these two articulations, _____ and _____.

back 31

distal humerus to proximal ulna ,proximal ulna to radius.

front 32

The atlas to axis joint would exhibit _____

back 32

rotation

front 33

A cylinder-shaped bone articulating with a trough- shaped bone would exhibit ____ and ____

back 33

flexion, extension

front 34

Which of the following represents a correct statement about multiaxial joints?

  • The shapes of articulating surfaces in the multiaxial joint are a cylindrical bone in a trough.
  • Movement in more than two axes is permitted in a multiaxial joint.
  • The rounded end of the proximal metacarpal fitting into the distal surface of the carpal bone of the wrist is a classic ball-and-socket joint.
  • The ball-and-socket joint permits only one angular motion.

back 34

Movement in more than two axes is permitted in a multiaxial joint

front 35

The Focus Figure of Synovial Joints has examined a number of types of movement and the joints in which they are located. Review the types you have studied, and select a true statement or characteristic of uniaxial movement in a representative joint.

  • A person bends over and his or her vertebral processes move past one another.
  • The dancer's leg is lifted to a ballet bar.
  • A golfer swings at the ball on the tee.
  • A person curls his or her fingers and the phalanges flex at the interphalangeal joints.Submit

back 35

A person curls his or her fingers and the phalanges flex at the interphalangeal joints.Submit

front 36

Which of the following is true about the shoulder joint?

  • Ligaments surround the glenohumeral joint on all sides and strengthen the joint.
  • Many muscles cross the glenohumeral joint and limit the mobility of the joint.
  • The glenohumeral joint is more mobile, making it less stable.
  • The deepness of the glenoid strengthens the joint overall.

back 36

The glenohumeral joint is more mobile, making it less stable.

front 37

An individual with a "double-jointed" thumb can pull it back towards the wrist much farther than normal. What does it mean to be "double-jointed?"

  • the joint capsules and ligaments are more stretchy and loose than normal
  • the additional joint present doubles the range of motion
  • greater than normal production of serous fluid lubricates the joint and extends it
  • articular cartilage at bone ends is replaced with hyaline cartilage

back 37

the joint capsules and ligaments are more stretchy and loose than normal

front 38

Which joint does NOT belong with the others?

  • interphalangeal (toes)
  • wrist
  • ankle
  • elbow

back 38

wrist

front 39

Which functional group has the major responsibility for producing a specific movement?

  • fixators
  • antagonists
  • agonists
  • synergists

back 39

agonists

front 40

Which of the following muscles is named for its origin and insertion?

  • deltoid
  • trapezius
  • sternocleidomastoid
  • gluteus maximus

back 40

sternocleidomastoid

front 41

Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched?

  • circular arrangement of fascicles: describes the deltoid muscle
  • convergent arrangement of fascicles: fan shaped muscle
  • parallel arrangement of fascicles: characteristic of sphincter muscles
  • pennate arrangement of fascicles: spindle-shaped muscle

back 41

convergent arrangement of fascicles: fan shaped muscle

front 42

Most skeletal muscles of the body act in ________.

  • first-class lever systems
  • power lever systems
  • second-class lever systems
  • third-class lever systems

back 42

third-class lever systems

front 43

The major head flexor muscles are the ________.

  • sternocleidomastoid muscles
  • erector spinae muscles
  • pectoralis major muscles
  • scalene muscles

back 43

sternocleidomastoid muscles

front 44

The main forearm extensor is the ________.

  • biceps brachii
  • supinator
  • triceps brachii
  • palmaris longus

back 44

triceps brachii

front 45

The ________ muscles compress the cheeks to help keep food between the grinding surfaces of the teeth while chewing.

  • temporalis
  • medial pterygoid
  • buccinator
  • masseter

back 45

buccinator

front 46

Which is(are) the most important muscle(s) of inspiration (inhalation)?

  • external intercostals
  • internal intercostals
  • diaphragm
  • rectus abdominis

back 46

diaphragm

front 47

Which of the following is a hamstring muscle?

  • vastus lateralis
  • vastus medialis
  • rectus femoris
  • biceps femoris

back 47

biceps femoris

front 48

Which of the following muscles is innervated by the phrenic nerve?

  • diaphragm
  • internal intercostals
  • sternocleidomastoid muscles
  • external intercostals

back 48

diaphragm

front 49

A reduction in the lateral angle of the glenohumeral joint in relation to the anatomical position would be called __________.

  • extension
  • abduction
  • adduction
  • flexion

back 49

adduction

front 50

Movement of the shoulder laterally away from the body is called __________.

  • flexion
  • extension
  • abduction
  • adduction

back 50

abduction

front 51

The prime mover of hip extension is the __________.

  • gluteus maximus
  • gracilis
  • adductor magnus
  • pectineus

back 51

gluteus maximus

front 52

The tensor fascia latae is involved in hip __________.

  • lateral rotation
  • adduction
  • extension
  • abduction

back 52

abduction

front 53

Muscles that act on the knee joint form most of the mass of the __________.

  • knee
  • thigh
  • calf
  • hip

back 53

thigh

front 54

To allow for flexion, the __________ unlocks the knee joint.

  • biceps femoris
  • popliteus
  • semimembranosus
  • sartorius

back 54

popliteus

front 55

___: Muscle that opposes and reverses the action of another muscle.

  • antagonist
  • fixator
  • agonist
  • synergist

back 55

antagonist

front 56

Muscle that stabilizes the origin of another muscle.

  • antagonist
  • fixator
  • agonist
  • synergist

back 56

fixator

front 57

Muscle that is primarily responsible for bringing about a particular movement

  • antagonist
  • fixator
  • agonist
  • synergist

back 57

agonist

front 58

muscle that aids another by promoting the same movement.

  • antagonist
  • fixator
  • agonist
  • synergist

back 58

synergist

front 59

muscles are only able to pull, they never push

T/F

back 59

true

front 60

Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion for naming muscles?

  • the locations of the muscle attachments
  • the shape of the muscle
  • the location of the muscle
  • whether the muscle is controlled by the involuntary or voluntary nervous system

back 60

whether the muscle is controlled by the involuntary or voluntary nervous system

front 61

Which is CORRECTLY matched?

  • deltoid: at a right angle to the long axis
  • brevis: long
  • rectus: straight
  • transverse: parallel to the long axis

back 61

rectus: straight

front 62

When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle?

  • The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.
  • The muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively.
  • The muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively.
  • The muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively.

back 62

The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.

front 63

The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term levator mean?

  • The muscle is a fixator and stabilizes a bone or joint.
  • The muscle flexes and rotates a region.
  • The muscle elevates and/or adducts a region.
  • The muscle functions as a synergist.

back 63

The muscle elevates and/or adducts a region.

front 64

If a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the ________.

  • lever system is useless
  • load is near the fulcrum and the effort is at the distal end
  • load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum
  • effort is farther than the load from the fulcrum

back 64

load is near the fulcrum and the effort is at the distal end

front 65

What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?

  • the shape
  • the total number of muscle cells available for contraction
  • the length
  • the number of neurons innervating it

back 65

the total number of muscle cells available for contraction

front 66

What is the major factor controlling how levers work?

  • the direction the load is being moved
  • the structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever
  • the weight of the load
  • the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum

back 66

the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrumSubmit

front 67

What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called?

  • functional levers
  • dysfunctional levers
  • power levers
  • speed levers

back 67

power levers

front 68

Regardless of type, all levers follow the same basic principle: effort farther than load from fulcrum = mechanical advantage; effort nearer than load to fulcrum = mechanical disadvantage.

True/False

back 68

True

front 69

Which of the following joint problems is the result of an autoimmune problem?

  • Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
  • Tendonitis
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Bursitis

back 69

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

front 70

A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint.

True/False

back 70

true

front 71

Which of the following are correctly matched?

  • osteoarthritis; chronic degenerative joint disease
  • tendonitis; inflammation of the joint
  • gout; inflammation of the tendons
  • bursitis; uric acid crystals in the joint

back 71

osteoarthritis; chronic degenerative joint disease

front 72

Dislocation of a joint is a common orthopedic problem. Which of these joints is MOST likely to be dislocated?

  • Pubic symphysis
  • Hip (coxal)
  • Sacroiliac
  • Shoulder (glenohumeral)

back 72

Shoulder (glenohumeral)Submit

front 73

Baseball pitchers often require "Tommy John" surgery to repair damage to their elbow. Which ligament would this surgery target?

  • ulnar collateral ligament
  • lateral ligament
  • anular ligament
  • acetabular labrum

back 73

ulnar collateral ligament

front 74

which structure in the figure is the primary area of degeneration in osetoarthritis?

back 74

B

front 75

Which of the following conditions is joint inflammation or degeneration accompanied by stiffness, pain, and swelling?

  • Lyme disease
  • osteoarthritis
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • arthritis

back 75

arthritis

front 76

In general, a muscle that crosses on the anterior side of a joint produces ________.

  • flexion
  • extension
  • adduction
  • abduction

back 76

flexion

front 77

Muscles that help maintain upright posture are fixators.

True/False

back 77

true

front 78

Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion for naming muscles?

  • the nervous system's control of the muscle
  • the locations of the muscle attachments
  • the location of the muscle
  • the number of origins for the muscle
  • the shape of the muscle

back 78

the nervous system's control of the muscle

front 79

Which of the following muscles is named for its action?

  • adductor longus
  • gluteus minimus
  • frontalis
  • biceps brachii

back 79

adductor longus

front 80

Which of the following are correctly matched?

  • parallel arrangement of fascicles; characteristic of sphincter muscles
  • circular arrangement of fascicles; describes the deltoid muscle
  • pennate arrangement of fascicles; spindle-shaped muscle
  • convergent arrangement of fascicles; fan-shaped muscle

back 80

convergent arrangement of fascicles; fan-shaped muscle

front 81

The arrangement of a muscle's fascicles determines its range of motion and power.

True/False

back 81

true

front 82

A wheelbarrow is a good example of a second-class lever.

True/False

back 82

true

front 83

If L = load, F = fulcrum, and E = effort, what type of lever system is described as LEF?

  • first-class lever
  • second-class lever
  • third-class lever
  • fourth-class lever

back 83

third-class lever