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Micro Final

front 1

One of the earliest researchers to explore the use of chemicals to kill microbial pathogens was

back 1

Ehrlich.

front 2

The arsenic compound that proved highly effective in treating syphilis was called

back 2

Salvarsan.

front 3

The first example of an antimicrobial drug synthesized in the laboratory was

back 3

Salvarsan.

front 4

Prontosil effectively acted on streptococci when the drug was split by enzymes to produce

back 4

sulfanilamide.

front 5

The use of Salvarsan and Prontosil to treat microbial infections were early examples of

back 5

chemotherapy.

front 6

Penicillin was discovered by

back 6

Fleming.

front 7

The most effective form of penicillin is

back 7

G.

front 8

One of the earliest antimicrobials isolated from a bacterium was

back 8

streptomycin.

front 9

Which of the following groups of microorganisms produces antibiotics?
Penicillium
Streptomyces
Bacillus
All of the choices are correct.
Penicillium AND Streptomyces

back 9

All of the choices are correct.

front 10

An antibiotic made by microorganisms and modified by chemists is called

back 10

An antibiotic made by microorganisms and modified by chemists is called

front 11

The antimicrobials produced by some molds and bacteria are generally called

back 11

antibiotics.

front 12

The toxicity of a given drug is expressed as the

back 12

therapeutic index.

front 13

A high therapeutic index is

back 13

less toxic to the patient.

front 14

Drugs that are bacteriostatic

back 14

inhibit the growth of bacteria.

front 15

Antimicrobials that kill microorganisms have the suffix

back 15

-cidal.

front 16

Antimicrobials that inhibit the growth of microorganisms have the suffix

back 16

-static.

front 17

Antibiotics that affect various strains of Gram-positive bacteria and various strains of Gram-negative bacteria are called

back 17

broad-spectrum.

front 18

The rate of elimination of an antimicrobial is expressed as its

back 18

half-life.

front 19

Antibiotics that are most likely to disrupt the normal flora are termed

back 19

broad-spectrum.

front 20

Drugs that are more effective when taken together are called

back 20

synergistic.

front 21

If drugs are less effective when taken together than when each is taken separately, they are called

back 21

antagonistic.

front 22

Antimicrobials may produce
allergic reactions.
toxic effects.
suppression of normal flora.
All of the choices are correct.

back 22

All of the choices are correct.

front 23

Which of the following bacteria have an innate resistance to penicillin?

back 23

Mycoplasma

front 24

Which of the following drugs target peptidoglycan?
penicillin
cephalosporin
vancomycin
bacitracin
All of the choices are correct.

back 24

All of the choices are correct.

front 25

All members of the penicillin family have

back 25

beta-lactam rings.

front 26

Penicillin-binding proteins
primarily function in the cell to bind to beta-lactam drugs.
are enzymes.
are involved in cell wall synthesis.
inhibit non-growing bacteria.
are enzymes AND are involved in cell wall synthesis.

back 26

are enzymes AND are involved in cell wall synthesis.

front 27

Beta-lactamases

back 27

break the beta-lactam ring.

front 28

The major class(es) of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis is/are
aminoglycosides.
tetracyclines.
macrolides.
bacitracins.

aminoglycosides, tetracyclines AND macrolides.

back 28

aminoglycosides, tetracyclines AND macrolides.

front 29

Inhibitors of protein synthesis typically key on

back 29

ribosomes.

front 30

Which is true of aminoglycosides?
They are bacteriostatic.
They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit.
They block peptidoglycan synthesis.
They are bactericidal.
They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit AND they are bactericidal.

back 30

They irreversibly bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit AND they are bactericidal.

front 31

Fluoroquinolones typically target

back 31

DNA gyrase.

front 32

Sulfonamide and trimethoprim are both
examples of metabolic inhibitors.
folate inhibitors.
protein synthesis inhibitors.
inhibitors of cell wall synthesis.
examples of metabolic inhibitors AND folate inhibitors.

back 32

examples of metabolic inhibitors AND folate inhibitors.

front 33

Folic acid is ultimately used in the synthesis of

back 33

coenzymes.

front 34

Sulfonamides are similar in structure to

back 34

PABA.

front 35

Sulfonamides work as

back 35

competitive inhibitors.

front 36

Trimethoprim and sulfonamides have a(n)

back 36

synergistic effect.

front 37

Mycolic acids are targeted by isoniazid in the treatment of

back 37

M. tuberculosis.

front 38

The lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a microorganism is the

back 38

minimum inhibitory concentration.

front 39

The minimum bactericidal concentration is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial drug that kills _______ of a specific type of bacteria.

back 39

99.9%

front 40

The diffusion bioassay
determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to kill a bacteria.
determines the concentration of antimicrobial necessary to inhibit growth of a bacteria.
is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test.
determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.
is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test AND determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.

back 40

is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test AND determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid.

front 41

Which test is used to determine the susceptibility of a microorganism to an antimicrobial?

back 41

Kirby-Bauer test

front 42

The zone size obtained in the Kirby-Bauer test is influenced by the drug's
size.
stability.
concentration.
All of the choices are correct.

back 42

All of the choices are correct.

front 43

A commercial modification of the disk diffusion test is called the

back 43

E test.

front 44

Bacteria may become antibiotic resistant due to
drug-inactivating enzymes.
alteration in the target molecule.
decreased uptake of the drug.
increased elimination of the drug.
All of the choices are correct.

back 44

All of the choices are correct.

front 45

The most common method of transfer of antimicrobial resistance is through the use of

back 45

R plasmids.

front 46

Compliance problems are leading to a large increase in antibiotic resistant strains of

back 46

Mycobacterium.

front 47

Antiviral drugs may target
uncoating.
nucleic acid synthesis.
viral assembly.
viral ribosomes.
uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis AND viral assembly.

back 47

uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis AND viral assembly

front 48

The target of most antifungal drugs is

back 48

ergosterol.

front 49

The key characteristic of a useful antimicrobial is selective toxicity.
True
False

back 49

True

front 50

Antimicrobials that have a high therapeutic index are less toxic to the patient.
True
False

back 50

True

front 51

Broad-spectrum antibiotics have minimal effect on the normal flora.
True
False

back 51

False

front 52

Certain antimicrobials may be life-threatening.
True
False

back 52

True

front 53

Drugs that target peptidoglycan do not affect eukaryotes.
True
False

back 53

True

front 54

Beta-lactam drugs are only effective against growing bacteria.
True
False

back 54

True

front 55

The MBC may be determined by an extension of the MIC.
True
False

back 55

True

front 56

Antimicrobial resistance can be due to spontaneous mutation or gene acquisition.
True
False

back 56

True

front 57

Viruses are very effectively treated with antibiotics.
True
False

back 57

False

front 58

Antifungal drugs usually target the cell membrane.
True
False

back 58

True

front 59

Most colds are probably caused by

back 59

rhinovirus.

front 60

The disease characterized by the appearance of a toxin-mediated rash that spares the area around the mouth and causes the tongue to look like the surface of a ripe strawberry is

back 60

scarlet fever.

front 61

Histoplasmosis may mimic tuberculosis.
True
False

back 61

True

front 62

Virulence factors used by S. pyogenes may be
Protein F.
M Protein.
a capsule.
Protein G.
All of the choices are correct.

back 62

All of the choices are correct.

front 63

The rhinovirus contains

back 63

single-stranded RNA.

front 64

Pneumonias are inflammatory diseases of the lung in which fluid fills the alveoli.
True
False

back 64

True

front 65

Rhinoviruses are effectively treated with antibiotics.
True
False

back 65

False

front 66

Adenoviral pharyngitis is effectively treated with
antibiotics.
lysozyme.
proteases.
nucleotide analogs.
None of the choices are correct.

back 66

None of the choices are correct.

front 67

Rebecca Lancefield showed that almost all the strains of b-hemolytic streptococci from human infections

back 67

had the same cell wall carbohydrate "A".

front 68

Mycoplasma is effectively treated with cell wall inhibiting antibiotics.
True
False

back 68

False

front 69

The conjuctivae

back 69

have no resident bacteria.

front 70

The cause of strep throat is

back 70

Streptococcus pyogenes- beta-hemolytic, group A

front 71

The most common bacterial pathogen(s) involved with sinusitis, otitis media and conjunctivitis is/are
S. aureus
H. influenzae
S. pneumoniae
S. epidermidis
H. influenzae AND S. pneumoniae

back 71

H. influenzae AND S. pneumoniae

front 72

Two relatively widespread North American lung mycoses are

back 72

coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis.

front 73

The disease that closely resembles "strep throat" but is of viral origin is

back 73

adenoviral pharyngitis.

front 74

Influenza is caused by

back 74

orthomyxovirus.

front 75

The eyes are protected from infection by
the washing action of the tears and eyelids.
the chemical action of lysozyme.
the use of contact lenses.
the dryness of the eye surface.
the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the chemical action of lysozyme.

back 75

the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the chemical action of lysozyme.

front 76

Of infectious diseases, pneumonia is a major killer in the general population.
True
False

back 76

True

front 77

Which is/are true of coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis?
They are both soil fungi.
They are both dimorphic fungi.
They are both life-threatening.
They may be treated with antibiotics.
They are both soil fungi AND they are both dimorphic fungi.

back 77

They are both soil fungi AND they are both dimorphic fungi.

front 78

Which is used in the vaccination for C. diphtheriae?

back 78

toxoid

front 79

Which is true of hantavirus?
It is a zoonosis involving mice.
It has three segments of single-stranded RNA.
The primary effect is to flood the lungs with fluid.
Shock and death occurs in 40% of the cases.
All of the choices are correct.

back 79

All of the choices are correct.

front 80

The causative agent of whooping cough is

back 80

B. pertussis.

front 81

About 60% of the bacterial pneumonias that require hospitalization of adults are caused by

back 81

S. pneumoniae.

front 82

The characteristic virulence factor of S. pneumoniae is

back 82

a capsule.

front 83

Mycoplasmal and klebsiellal pneumonias
have similar incubation periods.
have causative agents that lack cell walls.
are serious diseases often requiring hospitalization.
are both relatively mild diseases.
None of the choices are correct.

back 83

None of the choices is correct.

front 84

Who determined that the cholera outbreak in 1850s London was due to contaminated water and approached the problem by removing the pump handle at the contaminated site?

back 84

Snow

front 85

The passage from the mouth to the anus is termed the

back 85

alimentary canal.

front 86

Collections of bacteria that adhere to the surfaces of the teeth are called

back 86

dental plaque.

front 87

The most common infectious disease of humans is

back 87

dental caries.

front 88

The principal cause of dental caries is

back 88

S. mutans.

front 89

Part of the ability of S. mutans to produce dental caries depends on its ability to

back 89

convert sucrose to lactic acid.

front 90

This mineral, typically added to drinking water, makes enamel more resistant to dissolving in acid.

back 90

fluoride

front 91

The chronic inflammatory process involving the gums and tissues around the teeth is called

back 91

periodontal disease.

front 92

H. pylori is, in part, able to survive in the stomach by its ability to produce

back 92

ammonia from urea.

front 93

H. pylori appears to have some connection with
acid reflux disease.
ulcers.
dental caries.
stomach cancer.
ulcers AND stomach cancer.

back 93

ulcers AND stomach cancer.

front 94

Where in the body does the latent, non-infectious, non-replicating form of the herpes simplex virus persist?

back 94

sensory nerves

front 95

A painful finger infection attributable to herpes virus is known as a(n)

back 95

herpetic whitlow.

front 96

Which of the following has shown some effectiveness in treating a herpes infection?

back 96

acyclovir

front 97

The viral disease that characteristically infects the parotid glands is

back 97

mumps.

front 98

Mumps is a good candidate for elimination from the population due to
the existence of an effective vaccine.
a human only reservoir.
the absence of a latent state.
a single serotype.
All of the choices are correct.

back 98

All of the choices are correct.

front 99

Almost all bacterial intestinal infections may be attributed to
Vibrio spp.
C. jejuni.
Salmonella spp.
enterobacteria.
All of the choices are correct.

back 99

All of the choices are correct.

front 100

The initial attachment required for establishment of an intestinal infection is by

back 100

pili.

front 101

The toxins involved in intestinal infections typically
kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis.
modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.
modify cell physiology resulting in decreased secretion of water and electrolytes.
kill cells by inhibiting DNA synthesis.
kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.

back 101

kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.

front 102

Cholera is the classic example of a(n)

back 102

very severe form of diarrhea.

front 103

The diarrhea of cholera has been described as

back 103

a rice water stool.

front 104

The symptoms of cholera are due to the action of

back 104

an exotoxin.

front 105

A common source of cholera infection is

back 105

fecal contaminated material, especially water.

front 106

Shigella and cholera toxin both

back 106

have an A-B arrangement.

front 107

Shigella
are themselves nonmotile.
may be pushed from cell to cell by actin tails.
utilize pili to move.
utilize flagella to move.
are themselves nonmotile AND may be pushed from cell to cell by actin tails.

back 107

are themselves nonmotile AND may be pushed from cell to cell by actin tails.

front 108

Which of the following groups contain diarrhea-causing E. coli?
enterotoxigenic
enteroinvasive
enteropathogenic
enterohemorrhagic
All of the choices are correct.

back 108

All of the choices are correct.

front 109

Which of the following groups give rise to a disease similar to that caused by Shigella sp.?

back 109

enteroinvasive

front 110

Which group produces a toxin somewhat similar to that produced by Shigella dysenteriae?

back 110

enterohemorrhagic

front 111

Most cases of Salmonella gastroenteritis have a(n)

back 111

animal source.

front 112

The food products most commonly contaminated with Salmonella strains are

back 112

eggs and poultry.

front 113

The animal(s) often associated with Salmonella strains is/are
turtles.
iguanas.
baby chickens.
ducks.
All of the choices are correct.

back 113

All of the choices are correct.

front 114

In which of these organs does a carrier of typhoid bacilli maintain the bacteria?

back 114

gallbladder

front 115

The most notorious typhoid carrier was

back 115

Typhoid Mary.

front 116

Which of these bacteria require a special medium and microaerophilic conditions?

back 116

C. jejuni

front 117

A mysterious sequel to C. jejuni infections is

back 117

Guillain-BarrΓ© syndrome.

front 118

The animal(s) most often associated with C. jejuni is/are

back 118

chickens.

front 119

Viral gastroenteritis in infants and children is most commonly caused by

back 119

rotavirus.

front 120

Viral gastroenteritis that affects people of all ages and usually lasts less than 3 days is caused by

back 120

norovirus.

front 121

The most common chronic blood-borne infection in the U.S. is

back 121

hepatitis C

front 122

Hepatitis A spreads via

back 122

the fecal-oral route.

front 123

HBV is mainly spread by
blood.
blood products.
semen.
saliva.
blood, blood products AND semen.

back 123

blood, blood products AND semen.

front 124

Intestinal protozoan infections are typically spread by

back 124

the fecal-oral route.

front 125

The most commonly identified waterborne illness in the United States is

back 125

giardiasis.

front 126

Giardiasis may be contracted from
another person.
clear mountain streams.
chlorinated city water.
cold filtered beer.
another person, clear mountain streams AND chlorinated city water.

back 126

another person, clear mountain streams AND chlorinated city water.

front 127

C. parvum may infect
dogs.
pigs.
cattle.
humans.
All of the choices are correct.

back 127

All of the choices are correct.

front 128

Most North American outbreaks of Cyclospora cayetanensis have been associated with

back 128

imported leafy vegetables and berries, especially raspberries.

front 129

The oocytes of Cyclospora cayetanensis
are mature when

back 129

do not contain sporozoites when passed in the feces.

front 130

Entamoeba histolytica
causes amebiasis.
may form cysts.
cysts survive passage through the stomach.
may produce a cytotoxic enzyme.
All of the choices are correct.

back 130

All of the choices are correct.

front 131

Amebiasis

back 131

often causes a bloody diarrhea.

front 132

The bacteria primarily responsible for dental caries is Streptococcus mutans.
True
False

back 132

True

front 133

Sucrose is one of the major contributors to the development of dental caries.
True
False

back 133

True

front 134

H. pylori appears connected to stomach cancer and ulcers.
True
False

back 134

True

front 135

The saliva of asymptomatic carriers of herpes simplex is commonly infectious.
True
False

back 135

True

front 136

The mumps virus initially infects the respiratory tract.
True
False

back 136

True

front 137

Virulent strains of shigella typically carry a large plasmid.
True
False

back 137

True

front 138

The infectious dose of cholera is much larger than that for Shigella.
True
False

back 138

True

front 139

Cyclospora cayetanensis has, so far, not been identified with an animal source.
True
False

back 139

True

front 140

Cyclosporiosis is transmissable from person to person.
True
False

back 140

False

front 141

Both Giardia and C. parvum are resistant to chlorine.
True
False

back 141

True

front 142

Treponema pallidum
is the organism that causes syphilis.
is a spirochete.
can be more easily viewed with dark-field illumination.
has become less virulent over time.
All of the above are correct.

back 142

All of the above are correct.

front 143

Urinary tract infections
are relatively rare.
are the most common nosocomial infections.
include puerperal fever.
are not considered STDs.
are the most common nosocomial infections AND include puerperal fever.

back 143

are the most common nosocomial infections AND include puerperal fever.

front 144

The urinary tract above the bladder usually shows

back 144

no bacteria.

front 145

The normal flora of the lower urethra may show
Lactobacillus.
Staphylococcus.
Corynebacterium.
Bacteroides.
All of the choices are correct.

back 145

All of the choices are correct.

front 146

The normal flora of the genital tract of women is
affected by estrogen levels.
dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.
unchanging.
typically composed of E. coli.
affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.

back 146

affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.

front 147

The most common urinary infection is

back 147

bacterial cystitis.

front 148

Bacterial cystitis
is a common nosocomial disease.
is typically caused by E. coli.
may occur through the use of a catheter.
is unusual in men under 50.
All of the choices are correct.

back 148

All of the choices are correct.

front 149

A disease in which the urinary system is infected from the bloodstream is known as

back 149

leptospirosis.

front 150

Leptospirosis is often contracted

back 150

from contaminated animal urine.

front 151

Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis are at risk of

back 151

having a premature baby.

front 152

The genital tract infection characterized by an unpleasant odor and an increase in clue cells is

back 152

bacterial vaginosis.

front 153

Among the major causes of vulvovaginal candidiasis is/are
sexual promiscuity.
intense antibacterial treatment.
disruption of normal flora.
the use of oral contraceptives.
intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral contraceptives.

back 153

intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral contraceptives.

front 154

Staphylococcus aureus is the causative agent of

back 154

toxic shock syndrome.

front 155

Toxic shock syndrome

back 155

is due to exotoxins produced by S. aureus.

front 156

The incubation period of gonorrhea is approximately

back 156

2-5 days.

front 157

Gonococci are parasites of

back 157

humans.

front 158

Gonococci selectively attach to certain epithelial cells by

back 158

pili.

front 159

Typically pathogenic Neisseria gonorrheae

back 159

destroys IgA.

front 160

Untreated gonorrhea in males may lead to
sterility.
urinary tract infections.
prostatic abscesses.
orchitis.
All of the choices are correct.

back 160

All of the choices are correct.

front 161

A frequent complication of untreated gonorrhea in women is

back 161

pelvic inflammatory disease.

front 162

The treatment of neonates with an erythromycin ointment placed directly into the eyes is to prevent

back 162

ophthalmia neonatorum.

front 163

Which of the following mimics the infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhea?

back 163

C. trachomatis

front 164

The most common reportable STD in the U.S. is

back 164

chlamydial infections.

front 165

The disease that results from Chlamydia trachomatis possibly attaching to sperm and ascending into the fallopian tubes is

back 165

pelvic inflammatory disease.

front 166

The infectious form of Chlamydia trachomatis is a(n)

back 166

elementary body.

front 167

The causative agent of syphilis is

back 167

Treponema pallidum.

front 168

Treponema pallidum is similar in shape to

back 168

Leptospira interrogans.

front 169

Compared to the first big syphilis epidemic several hundred years ago in Europe, the strains of Treponema pallidum that cause syphilis today

back 169

tend to be less virulent.

front 170

Which of the following manifests itself in three clinical stages?

back 170

syphilis

front 171

The presence of a hard chancre in primary syphilis is representative of the body's

back 171

intense inflammatory response.

front 172

During which stage of syphilis is the patient non-infectious?

back 172

third

front 173

In which disease is a gumma formed?

back 173

tertiary syphilis

front 174

During which stage of pregnancy can T. pallidum cross the placenta and possibly infect the fetus?
first trimester.
second trimester.
third trimester.
any stage.

back 174

any stage.

front 175

The reservoir of T. pallidum is the

back 175

human.

front 176

The T. pallidum of syphilis can be transmitted by

back 176

sexual or oral contact.

front 177

The sexually transmitted disease characterized by painful genital ulcers is

back 177

chancroid.

front 178

Which of the following diseases may manifest themselves with painful genital ulcers?
chancroid
rubeola
herpes
leptospirosis
chancroid AND leptospirosis

back 178

chancroid AND leptospirosis

front 179

Which of the following is a small Gram-negative rod requiring X-factor for growth?

back 179

Haemophilus ducreyi.

front 180

The usual cause of genital herpes is

back 180

herpes simplex virus type 2.

front 181

Which of the following viruses maintains a latent state in nerve cells?

back 181

herpes virus.

front 182

Herpes simplex, like other ulcerating genital diseases,

back 182

promotes the spread of AIDS.

front 183

The drug(s) used to treat genital herpes is/are
penicillin.
erythromycin.
acyclovir.
famciclovir.
acyclovir AND famciclovir.

back 183

acyclovir AND famciclovir.

front 184

The most common of the sexually transmitted viral diseases agents is

back 184

human papillomavirus.

front 185

Human papillomavirus is

back 185

a small, non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.

front 186

Which of the following is associated with cervical cancer?

back 186

genital warts

front 187

A single exposure to HPV results in infection _______ of the time.

back 187

60%

front 188

HPV
can integrate into the host's chromosome.
may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.
infections always lead to cancer.
cannot infect newborns at birth.
can integrate into the host's chromosome AND may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.

back 188

can integrate into the host's chromosome AND may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.

front 189

The human immunodeficiency virus is a(n)

back 189

enveloped single-stranded RNA virus.

front 190

HIV attacks a variety of cell types but the most critical are

back 190

T helper cells.

front 191

HIV typically attaches to

back 191

CD4.

front 192

HIV adversely affects
red blood cells.
nerve cells.
macrophages.
T helper cells.
macrophages AND T helper cells.

back 192

macrophages AND T helper cells.

front 193

HIV may be present in
blood.
semen.
tears.
vaginal secretions.
blood, semen AND vaginal secretions.

back 193

blood, semen AND vaginal secretions.

front 194

Trichomoniasis is caused by a

back 194

protozoan.

front 195

Trichomonas vaginalis is an unusual eukaryote in that it

back 195

lacks mitochondria.

front 196

Women are more likely than men to get urinary tract infections due to anatomy.
True
False

back 196

True

front 197

Urine contains antimicrobial substances.
True
False

back 197

True

front 198

Toxic shock syndrome toxins are superantigens.
True
False

back 198

True

front 199

Most strains of gonococcus do not survive long outside the body.
True
False

back 199

True

front 200

There is no long-lasting immunity to gonorrhea and one may contract gonorrhea repeatedly.
True
False

back 200

True

front 201

The patient is non-infectious in the third stage of syphilis.
True
False

back 201

True

front 202

Genital herpes may be cured with the use of acyclovir or famciclovir.
True
False

back 202

False

front 203

Protease inhibitors are useful in curing AIDS.
True
False

back 203

False

front 204

Trichomonas vaginalis lacks mitochondria.
True
False

back 204

True

front 205

Herpes simplex enhances the spread of AIDS.
True
False

back 205

True

front 206

Typically C. albicans causes no symptoms.
True
False

back 206

True

front 207

Treponema pallidum
is the organism that causes syphilis.
is a spirochete.
can be more easily viewed with dark-field illumination.
has become less virulent over time.
All of the above are correct.

back 207

All of the above are correct.

front 208

Urinary tract infections
are relatively rare.
are the most common nosocomial infections.
include puerperal fever.
are not considered STDs.
are the most common nosocomial infections AND include puerperal fever.

back 208

are the most common nosocomial infections AND include puerperal fever.

front 209

The urinary tract above the bladder usually shows

back 209

no bacteria.

front 210

The normal flora of the lower urethra may show
Lactobacillus.
Staphylococcus.
Corynebacterium.
Bacteroides.
All of the choices are correct.

back 210

All of the choices are correct.

front 211

The normal flora of the genital tract of women is
affected by estrogen levels.
dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.
unchanging.
typically composed of E. coli.
affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.

back 211

affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.

front 212

The most common urinary infection is

back 212

bacterial cystitis.

front 213

Bacterial cystitis
is a common nosocomial disease.
is typically caused by E. coli.
may occur through the use of a catheter.
is unusual in men under 50.
All of the choices are correct.

back 213

All of the choices are correct.

front 214

A disease in which the urinary system is infected from the bloodstream is known as

back 214

leptospirosis.

front 215

Leptospirosis is often contracted

back 215

from contaminated animal urine.

front 216

Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis are at risk of

back 216

having a premature baby.

front 217

The genital tract infection characterized by an unpleasant odor and an increase in clue cells is

back 217

bacterial vaginosis.

front 218

Among the major causes of vulvovaginal candidiasis is/are
sexual promiscuity.
intense antibacterial treatment.
disruption of normal flora.
the use of oral contraceptives.
intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral contraceptives.

back 218

intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral contraceptives.

front 219

Staphylococcus aureus is the causative agent of

back 219

toxic shock syndrome.

front 220

Toxic shock syndrome

back 220

is due to exotoxins produced by S. aureus.

front 221

Gonococci selectively attach to certain epithelial cells by

back 221

pili.

front 222

Which of the following manifests itself in three clinical stages?

back 222

syphilis

front 223

Which of the following is a small Gram-negative rod requiring X-factor for growth?

back 223

Haemophilus ducreyi.

front 224

Which of the following viruses maintains a latent state in nerve cells?

back 224

herpes virus.

front 225

The drug(s) used to treat genital herpes is/are
penicillin.
erythromycin.
acyclovir.
famciclovir.
acyclovir AND famciclovir.

back 225

acyclovir AND famciclovir.

front 226

The most common of the sexually transmitted viral diseases agents is

back 226

human papillomavirus.

front 227

The human immunodeficiency virus is a(n)

back 227

enveloped single-stranded RNA virus.

front 228

HIV attacks a variety of cell types but the most critical are

back 228

T helper cells.

front 229

HIV adversely affects
red blood cells.
nerve cells.
macrophages.
T helper cells.
macrophages AND T helper cells.

back 229

macrophages AND T helper cells.

front 230

Trichomonas vaginalis lacks mitochondria.
True
False

back 230

True

front 231

Typically C. albicans causes no symptoms.
True
False

back 231

True

front 232

The scientist responsible for the development of the first anti-plague vaccine in 1866 was

back 232

Alexandre Yersin

front 233

The plague bacillus is known as

back 233

Yersinia pestis.

front 234

The circulation of an agent in the bloodstream is given a name ending in

back 234

-emia.

front 235

The sac which surrounds the heart is called the

back 235

pericardium.

front 236

Which organism may be implicated in arteriosclerosis?

back 236

Chlamydia pneumoniae

front 237

The fluid which bathes and nourishes the tissue cells is the

back 237

interstitial fluid.

front 238

A visible red streak in an infected hand or foot is referred to as

back 238

lymphangitis.

front 239

The small bean-shaped bodies into which the lymphatic vessels drain are the

back 239

lymph nodes.

front 240

Blood and lymph may carry
antibodies.
complement.
lysozyme.
interferon.
All of the choices are correct.

back 240

All of the choices are correct.

front 241

The spleen, in part, functions to cleanse the

back 241

blood.

front 242

The condition that develops on a previously damaged heart valve is called

back 242

subacute bacterial endocarditis.

front 243

The most common agent(s) causing subacute bacterial endocarditis is/are

back 243

normal skin or mouth flora.

front 244

Which of the following can only be identified using PCR after valve surgery?

back 244

Tropheryma whippelii

front 245

High levels of antibodies in patients with SBE tend to be of little use because

back 245

they make the bacteria clump together and adhere to the clot.

front 246

The inflammatory effects of immune complexes lodged in the kidney is called

back 246

glomerulonephritis.

front 247

Bacteria which cause subacute bacterial endocarditis may gain access to the bloodstream by
trauma.
dental procedures.
brushing teeth.
ingestion.
trauma, dental procedures AND brushing teeth.

back 247

trauma, dental procedures AND brushing teeth.

front 248

Acute bacterial endocarditis differs from subacute bacterial endocarditis in the

back 248

Acute bacterial endocarditis differs from subacute bacterial endocarditis in the

front 249

Which of the following is more likely to cause fatal septicemias?

back 249

Gram-negative bacteria

front 250

The material released from bacteria that may lead to shock and death in septicemia is

back 250

endotoxin.

front 251

The cytokine released from macrophages that seems to play a major role in endotoxic shock is

back 251

tumor necrosis factor.

front 252

Cytokine(s) released from macrophages in response to exposure to endotoxin is/are
tumor necrosis factor.
interleukin-1.
protein A.
alpha-toxin.
tumor necrosis factor AND interleukin-1.

back 252

tumor necrosis factor AND interleukin-1.

front 253

Although endotoxemia affects many organs, the organ most seriously and irreversibly affected is the

back 253

lung.

front 254

Enlargement of lymph nodes or spleen is often associated with
tularemia.
brucellosis.
plague.
gastritis.
tularemia, brucellosis AND plague.

back 254

tularemia, brucellosis AND plague.

front 255

The common name for tularemia is

back 255

rabbit fever.

front 256

The development of lymph node enlargement in the region of a skin ulcer after a tick or insect bite or handling of a wild animal suggests

back 256

tularemia.

front 257

Which of the following is/are able to survive phagocytosis?
Brucella sp.
Staphylococcus aureus
Francisella tularensis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Brucella sp, Francisella tularensis AND Mycobacterium tuberculosis

back 257

Brucella sp, Francisella tularensis AND Mycobacterium tuberculosis

front 258

Brucellosis may also be known as
Bang's disease.
undulent fever.
Hansen's disease.
rabbit fever.
Bang's disease AND undulent fever.

back 258

Bang's disease AND undulent fever.

front 259

Traditionally the animal(s) associated with hosting Brucella is/are
cattle.
dogs.
goats.
pigs.
All of the choices are correct.

back 259

All of the choices are correct.

front 260

The "Black Death" may also be known as

back 260

plague.

front 261

The disease responsible for the death of approximately ΒΌ the population of Europe from 1346 to 1350 was

back 261

plague.

front 262

Symptoms of plague appear in

back 262

one to six days.

front 263

The causative agent of plague is

back 263

Yersinia pestis.

front 264

Yersinia pestis typically contains

back 264

three plasmids.

front 265

The major virulence factors of Yersinia pestis are carried on

back 265

three separate plasmids.

front 266

The virulence factor of Yersinia pestis that is a protease that destroys C3b and C5a is

back 266

PLA.

front 267

Yops proteins, produced by Yersinia pestis,

back 267

interfere with phagocytosis.

front 268

The plague is typically transmitted via the bite of

back 268

fleas.

front 269

Enlargement of lymph nodes or spleen is often associated with
tularemia.
brucellosis.
plague.
infectious mononucleosis.
All of the choices are correct.

back 269

All of the choices are correct.

front 270

The cause of infectious mononucleosis is

back 270

Epstein-Barr virus.

front 271

Epstein-Barr virus may become latent in

back 271

B cells.

front 272

The production of heterophile antibody is associated with

back 272

infectious mononucleosis.

front 273

Which of the following may be transmitted by saliva?
infectious mononucleosis
rabies
plague
yellow fever
infectious mononucleosis AND rabies

back 273

infectious mononucleosis AND rabies

front 274

Yellow fever is transmitted by

back 274

Aedes mosquitoes.

front 275

The disease caused by an enveloped single-stranded RNA arbovirus of the flavivirus family is

back 275

yellow fever.

front 276

Which of the following is caused by a protozoan infection?

back 276

malaria

front 277

Which of the following is transmitted by mosquitoes?
plague
yellow fever
malaria
tularemia
yellow fever AND malaria

back 277

yellow fever AND malaria

front 278

Which species of Plasmodium causes the most serious form of malaria?

back 278

falciparum

front 279

In which of the following diseases does the spleen enlarge?
infectious mononucleosis
malaria
leishmaniasis
brucellosis
All of the choices are correct.

back 279

All of the choices are correct.

front 280

Muscles aid the flow of venous blood.
True
False

back 280

True

front 281

Septicemia is only caused by Gram-negative bacteria.
True
False

back 281

False

front 282

Both Francisella tularensis and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are able to survive phagocytosis.
True
False

back 282

True

front 283

Gram-positive organisms are more likely to cause fatal septicemias than other infectious agents.
True
False

back 283

False

front 284

The major virulence factors of Yersinia pestis are carried on a plasmid.
True
False

back 284

True

front 285

Yellow fever is caused by a protozoan infection.
True
False

back 285

False

front 286

Both malaria and yellow fever are transmitted by mosquitoes.
True
False

back 286

True

front 287

Plasmodium falciparum causes the most serious form of malaria.
True
False

back 287

True

front 288

In a malarial infection, only sporozoites can infect the human liver.
True
False

back 288

True

front 289

What is the difference between 'bacteremia' and 'septicemia?'

back 289

Bacteremia is the presence of living, multiplying bacteria in the bloodstream. Septicemia is the presence of endotoxins, but not necessarily of living microbial agents.