BIOL302 Ex 4

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1

histidine protein kinase is an example of

A. effector

B. TKR

C. sensor

D. G protein

sensor

2

response regulator aspartic acid protein kinase is an example of

A. effector

B. TKR

C. sendor

D. G protein

effector

3

protein which can transfer (add) phosphate anion to another protein

A. kinase

B. phosphatase

C. G protein

D. DAG

kinases

4

proteins which remove phosphate from another protein

A. kinase

B. phosphatase

C. G protein

D. DAG

phosphatases

5

bacterial cell density dependent response that is a positive feedback mechanism by autoinducers

A. autocrine

B. quorum sensing

C. endocrine

D. paracrine

quorum sensing

6

three primary mechanisms of signal transduction

contact

gap junctions

secretion

7

three types of secretion

endocrine

paracrine

autocrine

8

the signaling molecule is from a cell that is remote in location from the target cell

A. endocrine

B. paracrine

C. autocrine

endocrine

9

the signaling molecule is produced by a cell that is adjacent to the target cell

A. endocrine

B. paracrine

C. autocrine

paracrine

10

the target cell produces its own signaling molecule

A. endocrine

B. paracrine

C. autocrine

autocrine

11

T or F: most autocrine secretion mechanisms are also paracrine

T

12

continuously producing proteins, lipids, etc for normal function and maintenance

A. homeostasis

B. ER

C. regulated gene

D. constitutive gene

constitutive gene

13

a _____ gene involves a specialized process of secretory cells that selected proteins and molecules are secreted through clathrin coated vesicles

regulated gene

14

9 types of signal transduction pathways

g-protein coupled receptors

phosphotidylinositol (lipid)

receptor tyrosine-linked kinases

tyrosine kinase receptors

receptor tyrosine phosphatases

receptor serine/threonine kinases

receptor guanylate cyclases

nuclear receptors

apoptosis

15

what does MAP stand for

mitogen-activating protein

16

_____ is a substance that induces or stimulates mitosis

mitogen

17

3 secondary messengers

cAMP

lipids like DAG (diacylglycerol)

calcium

18

how many spans do g-protein coupled receptors have

7 membrane spans

19

the N-terminal of the g-protein coupled receptor is on the __________ face

ectoplasmic

20

the C-terminal of the g-protein coupled receptor is on the __________ face

cytosolic

21

g-protein couopled receptor family includes (4 answers)

light-activated receptors (rhodopsins)

odorant receptors in the mammalian nose

receptors for various hormones

neurotransmitters (GABA)

22

what kind of receptor is rhodopsin

light-activated

23

g-proteins bind to _________ and _________

GTP and GDP

24

g-proteins respond rapidly or slowly

rapidly

25

g-proteins have an active ________ bound conformation

GTP

26

g-proteins have an inactive _______ bound conformation

GDP

27

g-proteins are transmembrane or membrane anchored

anchored

28

g-protein receptors are transmembrane or membrane anchored

transmembrane

29

g-protein has ___ subunits

three

(alpha a, beta b, gamma y)

30

where is GDP bound in the inactive form of a g-protein

a subunit

31

what is the first step in g-protein pathway

ligand binds to g-protein coupled receptor (ectoplasmic) which causes a conformation change and allows g-protein to interact with the receptor (cytoplasmic)

ex. beta adrenergic receptor

32

what is the second step in g-protein pathway

GDP-->GTP on alpha subunit of g-protein

activates

33

what is the third step in g-protein pathway

alpha subunit of g-protein dissociates from beta-gamma subunit

34

what is the fourth step in g-protein pathway

alpha subunit finds effector and binds to it

ex. adenylyl cyclase

35

what is the fifth step in g-protein pathway

effector signals response through secondary messenger by the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP

ex. cAMP

36

what is the sixth step in g-protein pathway

GTP is hydrolyzed to GDP and the alpha complex dissociates from the effector

37

what is the seventh step in g-protein pathway

inactive heterotrimeric g-protein reforms and is ready for next signal

38

g-protein regulatory protein that inhibits signal transduction

arrestin

39

first step in phosphatidylinositol signaling

phosphatidylinositol is phosphorylated twice to produce PI(4,5)P2

40

second step in phosphatidylinositol signaling

PI to specific phospholipase cleaves the phosphorylated inositol from the lipid producing two secondary messengers

41

third step in phosphatidylinositol signaling

IP3 is a liband for a calcium channel on the smooth ER, causing calcium release

42

fourth step in phosphatidylinositol signaling

DAG can activate protein kinase C which is a serine-threonine kinase

43

receptors which can auto-phosphorylate and pass signal to cell effector

receptor tyrosine kinase TRK

44

receptors which lack kinase activity and rely on another molecule to phosphorylate and pass signal to cell effector

receptor tyrosine-linked kinase

45

growth factor receptor is an example of _______

receptor tyrosine kinase RTK

46

a GTPase switch protein that passes the growth signal on to downstream components

also a protooncogene that mediates mitogenic stimulus of growth hormones

Ras

47

what are 4 RTK pathways involved in gene regulation

cell proliferation

cell differentiation

promotion of cell survival

modulation of cellular metabolism

48

first step in receptor tyrosine kinase

ligand binds to RTK

receptor dimerizes

49

second step in receptor tyrosine kinase

dimer RTK auto-phosphorylates

ATP-->ADP

50

third step in receptor tyrosine kinase

multiple PO4 sites (ser, tyr, thr)

51

fourth step in receptor tyrosine kinase

binding protein activate cascade

52

fifth step in receptor tyrosine kinase

activated substrate protein carries signal to downstream target

53

normal growth ad metabolism organelles replicate

G1

54

synthesis phase for DNA chromosome duplication

S

55

cell growth prior to mitosis

G2

56

mitosis - cell division

M

57

misregulation of the cell cycle along with mutation

cancer

58

phase where non mitotic events occur

interphase

59

phase where mitotic events occur

mitosis (M)

60

scientists who studied cell division

Johnson and Rao

61

what did scientists use to study the cell cycle

yeast and oocytes

62

what does MPF stand for

maturation promoting factor

63

protein separation techniques used to differentiate phases of cell cycle

gel electrophoresis

western analysis and commassie blue

64

what does CDK stand for

cyclin dependent kinase

65

first step for assembly and activation of MPF

dimerization between cyclin and cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) protein (Cdc2 in yeast)

66

second step for assembly and activation of MPF

enzyme cleft blocked by T-loop

67

third step for assembly and activation of MPF

requires systematic phosphorylation and dephosphorylation events by active kinases and phosphatases

68

fourth step for assembly and activation of MPF

cleft is opened allowing cyclin/CDK to target proteins involved in that phase

69

fifth step for assembly and activation of MPF

proteasome degrades cyclin

70

barrel shaped proteolytic complex that degrades ubiquitin-targeted sequences

proteasome

71

specific sequence that ligase recognizes and ubiquitin binds adjacent

destruction box

72

Ras is transmembrane or membrane anchored

anchored

73

_______ is bound to Ras in its inactive form

GDP

74

_____ is bound to Ras in its active form

GTP

75

active Ras activates _____

Raf

76

Raf activates the _____ kinase pathway leading to cell proliferation

MAP

77

what does GEF stand for

guanine exchange factor

78

what does GAP stand for

GTPase activating proteins

79

GEFs and GAPs mediate _____

Ras

80

first step in activation of Ras

GEF replaces GDP with GTP if not inhibited by GDI

81

second step in activation of Ras

activated Ras signals mitogenic response (MAP kinase active) and GEF dissociates

82

third step in activation of Ras

GAP enables Ras to hydrolyze GTP to GDP and Ras is made inactive

83

fourth step in activation of Ras

Ras ready for next signal

84

what does GDI stand for

guanine dissociation inhibitor

85

what is the function of GDI

inhibit GEF

86

over 30% of human cancer involves a mutation in _____ proteins which activate the _____ kinase pathway which leads to cell growth

Ras; MAP

87

____ involves a signal cascade through several protein tyrosine kinases signaled by Ras and Raf which then activates a transcription factor and it induces gene expression

MAP kinase cascade

88

type of nuclear receptor bound in an inactive form in the cytoplasm or nucleus with heat shock proteins (HSP) and is ligand dependent

ex. steroids

type 1

89

type of nuclear receptor that is repressed when bound to the gene and is ligand dependent

ex. thyroid hormones

type 2

90

activating function of nuclear receptors

activate co-activators or co-repressors

91

what three domains do nuclear receptors have

DNA binding

ligand binding

N-terminal domain

92

the N-terminal domain of the nuclear receptor has _____ sites

phosphorylation

93

type of nuclear receptor that binds to steroid inside or outside of the nucleus, dissociates from the protein carrier, translocates into the nucleus, dimerizes, binds to the DNA and signals gene transcription

type 1

94

what does SERMS stand for

selective estrogen receptor modulators

95

give two examples of SERMS

raloxifene hydrochloride

tamoxifen

96

raloxifene is an _____ in bone tissue osteoporosis

agonist

97

tamoxifen is an _____ for breast cancer treatment

antagonist

98

an agonist _____ the target gene

activates

99

an antagonist _____ the target gene

represses

100

type of nuclear receptor that translocates to the nucleus, binds to receptors, and removes the corepressor signal to activate gene transcription

type 2

101

signaling pathway that leads to cell death

apoptosis

102

_____ is a response to normal development, bacterial or viral infection, DNA damage and mutation

apoptosis

103

caspases are a type of _____ and they cleave cystine/aspartic acid

protease

104

first step in apoptosis

internal cellular damage causes stress

105

second step in apoptosis

stress sensed by the RER

106

third step in apoptosis

signal send to activate BCL-2 proteins

107

fourth step in apoptosis

activation of Bax or Bad cause permeability of the mitochondrial membrane

108

fifth step in apoptosis

cytochrome c is released and serves as a messenger for apoptotic protease activating factor-1 to convery procaspase 9 to act caspase 9

109

sixth step in apoptosis

caspase 9 in turn activates the major executioner caspase (caspase-3) that targets the nucleus

110

first step in receptor mediated apoptosis pathway

tumor necrosis factor bind to its receptor

111

second step in receptor mediated apoptosis pathway

death domains are activated and recruit adapter proteins (FADD and TRADD)

112

third step in receptor mediated apoptosis pathway

adaptor proteins provide activationof procaspase 8 into active caspase 8 enzyme

113

fourth step in receptor mediated apoptosis pathway

caspase 8 cleaves procaspase 3 to active caspase 3

114

fifth step in receptor mediated apoptosis pathway

caspase 3 in the major executioner

115

sixth step in receptor mediated apoptosis pathway

caspase 8 can target the mitochondria

116

what are the two death domain adapter proteins in apoptosis

FADD

TRADD

117

_____ is an inactive form of caspase

procaspase

118

what does CAD stand for

caspase activated DNase

119

what is the function of ICAD

inhibit CAD

120

what does Bid stand for

BCL2 interacting domain

121

what does tBid stand for

truncated Bid

122

what does Apaf stand for

apoptotic protease activating factor

123

multiple signals come to the same effector, cell must base response on combination timing, and strength of these signals

convergence

124

the same ligand may signal through different pathways based upon tissue type recetor makeup, other signals

divergence

125

different signaling cascades and pathways communicate with one another so multiple responses may occur from one signaling even causing multiple downstream events involving other pathways

crosstalk

126

what are the four phases of the cell cycle

G1

S

G2

M

127

what occurs during G1 phase

normal growth and metabolism, organelles replicate

128

what occurs during S phase

synthesis phase for DNA, chromosome duplication

129

what occurs during G2 phase

cell growth prior to mitosis

130

what occurs during M phase

mitosis - cell division

131

interphase consists of what phases

G1

S

G2

132

mitosis consists of what phases

prophase

prometaphase

metaphase

anaphase

telophase

cytokinesis

133

what types of cells are unable to divide

nerve cells

red blood cells

134

what types of cells have some ability to divide under certain conditions

liver cells after partial hepatectomy

cells referred to as being in G0

135

what types of cells have high ability to divide

adult stem cells

epithelial cells

sperm cells

cancer cells (transformed cells)

fibroblasts in culture

136

what did Johnson and Rao's experiment suggest

cytoplasmic factors are involved in signaling and mediating cell cycle events

protein factors involved are diffusible

137

cytoplasmic proteins which regulate the cell cycle

cyclins

138

CDKs

cyclin dependent kinases

proteins involved in cell cycle

139

what proteins are involved in degrading cyclins

ubiquitin ligases

proteolytic enzymes

140

what four protein groups are involved in cell cycle regulation

cyclins

CDKs

degredation proteins

inhibitory proteins

141

why are oocytes used in cell cycle experimentation

they are highly synchronized cell that express proteins needed for replication and they are easily extracted in large quantity to identify

142

what is the function of progesterone in meiosis

stimulates meiosis I to proceed meiosis II

143

first step in meiosis used to study cell division process

progesterone stimulates M1-->M2

144

second step in meiosis used to study cell division process

cytoplasm from M2 injected into G2 egg

145

third step in meiosis used to study cell division process

cytoplasm induced G2-->M1-->M2

146

fourth step in meiosis used to study cell division process

repeat with second and third generation without progesterone stimulation to rule out that the progesterone was the cause

147

conclusion of the meiosis experiment used to study cell division process

factors present in the cytoplasm, called maturation promoting factors, cause cell cycle progression

148

in general how are yeast cells utilized in studying the cell cycle

budding and mutant assays to identify cell cycle proteins

149

specifically how are yeast cells utilized in studying the cell cycle

yeast cells are sensitive to temperature and only grow at 25 C but not 35 C, so by growing a colony of mutants and shifting the temperature:

not a CDC mutant grew cells in different stages of the cell cycle

CDC mutant grew cells all in the same stage

150

what is cdc2

yeast mutant protein

151

what is cdc2 mutant homologous to

kinases

152

what does MPF consist of

cyclin B and cdc2

153

what are cyclins

factors which dimerize with CDKs

154

what are CDKs

proteins which dimerize with cyclins and have kinase activity

155

T or F: the stages of the cell cycle don't overlap at all

F

156

what is the structure of a proteasome

barrel shaped proteolytic complex that has two regulatory particles and a core particle

157

how does a proteasome work

rings unique to different AA and cap structures that bind ubiquitin and unfold protein

158

what does RB stand for

retinoblastoma

159

what is the function of RB in S phase gene transcription

inhibit gene transcription by binding to the transcription factor E2F

160

what happens when RB is phosphorylated in S phase gene transcription

it releases E2F which transcribes cyclin E and cdk2 (S phase proteins)

161

what is the function of P21 in S phase gene transcription

it inhibits the ability of cyclin D/cdk4 from releasing E2F and therefore is a cell cycle inhibitor

162

what is P21 in S phase gene transcription

cell cycle inhibitor

163

what is p53 in S phase gene transcription

transcription factor for p21

164

what is the function of MDM2 in S phase gene transcription

inhibit p53 by ubiquitin proteasome pathway

165

what is MDM2 in S phase gene transcription

ubiquitin ligase

166

what happens in S phase with p53, p21, and MDM2 when the DNA gets damaged

MDM2 is unable to block p53 which allows p21 to be transcribed and inhibit the cell cycle so the cell can try to repair the damaged DNA or signal apoptosis

167

____ is a signaling system that acts as a positive feedback manner in eukaryotes.

Autocrine

168

_____ is the protein that makes cyclic AMP (cAMP).

Adenylcyclase

169

___ is the protein released to allow for quorum sensing.

Auto-Inducer

170

______ is a protein that can add a phosphate to a threonine.

Kinase

171

________ is the master regulator of the cell cycle and signaling apoptosis.

p53

172

______ is a secondary messenger that activates Protein Kinase C (PKC).

DAG

173

______ is the protein that has high expression in S phase.

Cyclin E

174

___________ is the enzyme that targets the DNA in apoptosis.

CAD

175

______is the protein that can autophosphorylate in the presence of a ligand.

Receptor Tyrosine Kinase

176

______ is a protein that can inhibit the Ras pathway.

GDI

177

_______ is a method by which researchers discovered cell cycle proteins.

Coomassie Blue Staining

178

____________ is a technique used by a pathologist to determine estrogen positive breast cancer.

Immuno-Fluorescence

179

___________ is a binding protein associated with an activated growth factor receptor.

GRB2

180

___________ is a protein that activates adenylyl cyclase.

G alpha

181

__________ is a typical trait of a slow response.

Membrane diffusion.

182

____________ is the response of the RTK when a growth factor binds.

Autophosphorylation.

183

__________ is molecule added to a protein to signal its destruction.

Ubiquitin

184

___is a prokaryotic signaling system that allows for a group response against the host.

Quorum Sensing

185

____ is the protein that activates the α sub-unit of a trimeric heterodimer.

G-Protein Coupled Receptor

186

________ is a protein that interacts with procaspase 8 and the TNF Receptor.

Tumor necrosis receptor adapter death domain (TRADD).

187

___________ is a protein that activates adenylyl cyclase.

A. DAG

B. rhodopsin

C. SOS

D. G alpha

g alpha

188

___________ is the protein that prevents DNA destruction in apoptosis.

A. granzyme B

B. caspase 3

C. iCAD

D. ICAD

ICAD

189

_______ is a drug which is designed to treat individuals with estrogen-positive breast cancer.

A. glevac

B. raloxifene

C. aspirin

D. tamoxifen

tamoxifen

190

________ is a downstream protein target of Caspase 8.

A. TRADD

B. procaspase 3

C. ICAD

D. cytochrome C

procaspase 3

191

___ is the protein that can block a G-protein Coupled Receptor.

A. arrestin

B. iCAD

C. ICAD

D. p21

arrestin

192

______ is the protein that has high expression in S phase.

A. cyclin D

B. cyclin E

C. cyclin B

D. CDK4

cyclin E

193

________ is the ubiquitin ligase that targets p53.

A. E2

B. polyubiquitin isopeptidase

C. MDM2

D. p21

MDM2

194

__________ is a general term for any molecule that activates the cell cycle.

A. mitogen

B. growth factor

C. ras

D. MAPK

mitogen

195

____________ is a technique used by a pathologist to determine estrogen positive breast cancer.

A. western analysis

B. PAGE

C. immunofluorescence

D. northern analysis

immuno-fluorescense

196

_ is a protein that is activated by growth factor signaling to prevent apoptosis..

A. bax

B. cytochrome C

C. procaspase 9

D. BCL-2

BCL-2

197

_______ is a drug designed to increase a receptors response.

A. agonist

B. raloxifene

C. convergence

D. antagonist

agonist

198

______is the protein that inhibits the E2F transcription factor.

A. retino blastoma

B. bax

C. MDM2

D. GDI

retino blastoma

199

_______ is the term for a single signaling event that initiates a response in multiple pathways.

A. quorum sensing

B. divergence

C. autophosphorylation

D. convergence

divergence

200

_______ is a method by which researchers initially found proteins that were highly expressed in the cell cycle.

A. immunofluorescence

B. coomassie blue staining

C. western blotting

D. oocyte loos of function mutation

coomassie blue staining

201

______ is a secondary messenger that activates Protein Kinase C (PKC).

A. DAG

B. IP3

C. RTK

D. Ras

DAG

202

____________ is the response after RAF activation.

A. Rb phosphorylation

B. IP3 release

C. ras phosphorylation

D. MAPKK phosphorylation

MAPKK phosphorylation

203

Is a protease involved in external apoptosis signaling.

A. perforin

B. ICAD

C. TRADD

D. caspase 8

caspase 8

204

_____ is the dimer present at high concentrations in G1 phase.

A. cyclin D; CDK 4

B. cyclin B; CDK 4

C. cyclin A; CDK 2

D. cyclin E; CDK 4

cyclin D; CDK 4

205

__________ is the protein that restores ubiquitin to its monomeric form.

A. MDM2

B. ubiquitin ligase

C. IP3

D. polyubiquitin isopeptidase

polyubiquitin isopeptidase

206

__________ is associated with a fast response in cell signaling.

A. nuclear receptors

B. MAP kinase cascade

C. g protein coupled receptor

D. vesicle release of a steroid

g protein coupled receptor

207

______is the protein that releases IP3 from DAG.

A. protein kinase C

B. phospholipase

C. cAMP

D. DAG

phospholipase

208

____ is the protein that activates the α sub-unit of a trimeric heterodimer.

A. receptor tyrosine kinase

B. diacylglycerol

C. phospholipase

D. g protein coupled receptor

g protein coupled receptor

209

Slow acting signal molecules arising from endocrine cells, generally

A. Signal apoptosis

B. Interact with target channels

C. Are coupled to slow target responses

D. Signal G-protein coupled receptors

C. Are coupled to slow target responses

210

In bacterial Quorum Sensing the inducing signal ________ as ________

A. Decreases concentration, the colony number increases

B. Binds to the promoter, the colony number decreases

C. Increases concentration, the colony number increases

D. Increases concentration, the colony number decreases

C. Increases concentration, the colony number increases

211

Assuming that Listeria monocytogenes has a 2 component sensing system for escaping from the lysosome, the effector would

A. Sense the drop in pH caused by H ion increase

B. Function in a quorum sensing manner

C. Upregulate the gene encoding actin

D. Upregulate the gene encoding a phospholipase

D. Upregulate the gene encoding a phospholipase

212

The following is an example of a secondary messenger

A. Cyclic AMP, (cAMP)

B. Growth Factors

C. G-Protein coupled receptors

D. Microtubule Associating Proteins (MAPs)

A. Cyclic AMP, (cAMP)

213

The following is true of a ligand interacting with a G-Protein

A. It hydrolyzes GDP to GTP to activate the signal

B. It exchanges ADP for ATP on the cytosolic receptor side

C. It dissociates the receptor’s beta and gamma subunits to signal an effecter

D. A phosphate guanisine could bind, but generally a ligand is the term for the molecule that interacts with the receptor

D. A phosphate guanisine could bind, but generally a ligand is the term for the molecule that interacts with the receptor

214

Arrestin is a protein that

A. Is a receptor tyrosine kinase

B. Binds to a phosphorylated G-protein coupled receptor

C. Dissociates the receptor’s alpha and beta subunits

D. Binds to a phosphorylated alpha subunit of rhodopsin

B. Binds to a phosphorylated G-protein coupled receptor

215

A G-protein __________ to allow it to __________

A. Has hydrocarbon modifications, keep its subunits near to the target receptor

B. Has GTPase activity, exchange a GDP for a GTP

C. Contains a transmembrane domain, allow for the ligand to bind

D. DNA binding domain, upregulate growth genes

A. Has hydrocarbon modifications, keep its subunits near to the target receptor

216

The following is True regarding Receptor Tyrosine Kinases

A. They have ligand binding domains in the cytosol

B. They activate aspartic acid kinases

C. They form trimeric G proteins

D. They phosphorylate downstream substrates containing tyrosine

D. They phosphorylate downstream substrates containing tyrosine

217

In receptor tyrosine kinase signaling, a scaffold assembles

A. When a steroid is present

B. At the ectoplasmic face

C. Around the cytosolic side of the membrane based upon autophosphorylation

D. Due to hydrocarbon content changes

C. Around the cytosolic side of the membrane based upon autophosphorylation

218

The following amino acid is not capable of covalent phosphorylation modification

A. W (tryptophan)

B. S (serine)

C. Y (tyrosine)

D. T (threonine)

A. W (tryptophan)

219

In eukaryotic signaling systems GTP hydrolysis and removal of a phosphate from a kinase generally

A. Is done by GTPases

B. Converts the protein involved into an inactive form

C. Requires ATP energy and donation of a phosphate

D. Leads to an increase in protein activity

C. Requires ATP energy and donation of a phosphate

220

The protein which activates the MAP-Kinase protein is _______

A. MAP-Kinase kinase (MAPKK)

B. Ras-GDP Complex

C. GDP (Guanine diphosphate)

D. GEF (Guanine exchange factor)

A. MAP-Kinase kinase (MAPKK)

221

A mutation in the GDI protein which enhanced its association with the Ras protein would result in_______

A. Ras-GTP and increase cell growth

B. Ras-GTP and decrease cell division

C. Ras-GDP and increase cell growth

D. Ras-GDP and decreased cell division

D. Ras-GDP and decreased cell division

222

G-protein signaling and the Ras pathway have the following in common EXCEPT

A. They both employ a GTP switch mechanism to activate

B. They both convert ATP to cAMP

C. They both serve as effectors that can receive a signal from a membrane receptor

D. They both have protein subunits that are anchored to the membrane

B. They both convert ATP to cAMP

223

In the Mitogen Activated Protein (MAP) kinase pathway the following could occur

A. MAP kinase may remove a phosphate from a transcription factor

B. MAP kinase could convert guanine triphosphate to cyclic guanine diphosphate

C. MAP kinase could be phosphorylated to become MAP kinase kinase

D. MAP kinase could phosphorylate a transcription factor

D. MAP kinase could phosphorylate a transcription factor

224

The molecule which could bind to channels and activate calcium release is

A. Diacyl glycerol (DAG)

B. Phosphatidyl inositol diphosphate (PI-4,5-P2)

C. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)

D. Protein kinase C (PKC)

C. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)

225

Steroid signaling involves ____________ which travel to the________

A. Dimerization of receptors, DNA response element

B. Endocytosis, ECM

C. Gap junction signaling, cytoplasm

D. Gap junction signaling, cytoplasm

A. Dimerization of receptors, DNA response element

226

A Vitamin D receptor would enter the nucleus through

A. The Vitamin D ion channel

B. The Vitamin D ion channel

C. Interaction of its NLS with importin-a

D. It doesn’t enter the nucleus it is a membrane bound receptor

C. Interaction of its NLS with importin-a

227

The term for multiple signals which can activate the same pathway is referred to as

A. Convergence

B. Divergence

C. Antagonism

D. Quorum sensing

A. Convergence

228

Retinoic Acid signaling involves ____________ which travels to the___________

A. Heat shock proteins, RAR response element

B. Diffusion of the ligand through the membranes, receptor and release the repressors

C. Dimerization of the estrogen receptors, distal promoter

D. The retinoic acid receptor (RAR), calcium channel element

B. Diffusion of the ligand through the membranes, receptor and release the repressors

229

The formation of the apoptosome ______ can _______

A. By cytochrome-C release, be initiated by Caspase-3

B. By cytochrome-C release, lead to Caspase 9 activation

C. In the nucleus, cause membrane blebbing

D. By Bax, cleave procaspase 8

B. By cytochrome-C release, lead to Caspase 9 activation

230

During autophagy in times of starvation, apoptosis can be initiated by

A. The quality control function of the RER

B. Natural killer cells releasing granzyme B

C. Fas adapter death domain (FADD) release

D. PKC formation

A. The quality control function of the RER

231

The following is false regarding active IP3 signaling

A. t binds to receptors located on the smooth ER

B. It is released from a membrane anchor

C. It activates calcium channels

D. It is originally bound as a dimer with Retinoic Acid (RA)

D. It is originally bound as a dimer with Retinoic Acid (RA)

232

Apoptosis may be triggered by a natural killer cell which

A. Then can engulf the bacteria

B. Causes the cell to rupture quickly and causes inflammation

C. Uses perforin to pierce the mitochondrial membrane and release cytochrome C

D. Releases granzyme B and activates caspase 3

D. Releases granzyme B and activates caspase 3