A&P Chapter 4 Tissues & Cancer

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1

Dead skin cells are shed in thick sheets because they are held together by a thin layer of proteoglycan reinforced by intermediate filaments that attach cell-to-cell. Such strong intercellular connections are:

Answers:

a. intercalated disks.

b. gap junctions.

c. desmosomes.

d. intermediate junctions.

e. tight junctions.

c. Desmosomes

2

The type of epithelium that lines the airway of the lower respiratory tract is:

Answers:

a. simple cuboidal

b. ciliated columnar

c. pseudostratified columnar

d. all of the above

e. both A and B

c. pseudostratified columnar

3

Many epithelial cells exhibit modifications that adapt them for

Answers:

a. support.

b. secretion.

c. motility

d. impulse conduction.

e. contraction.

b. secretion.

4

The three basic types of fibers in connective tissue are

Answers:

a. cartilage, bone, and collagen.

b. tendons, ligaments, and elastic ligaments.

c. loose, dense, and irregular.

d. polar, cellular, and permeable.

e. collagen, reticular, and elastic.

e. collagen, reticular, and elastic.

5

Each of the following is an example of dense connective tissue, except:

Answers:

a. aponeuroses.

b. areolar tissue.

c. elastic tissue.

d. tendons.

e. ligaments.

b. areolar tissue.

6

The framework or stroma of organs such as the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes is made up of ________ tissue.

Answers:

a. loose connective

b. irregular dense connective

c. reticular connective

d. regular dense connective

e. adipose

c. reticular connective

7

Cartilage is separated from surrounding tissues by a fibrous

Answers:

a. lacunae.

b. canaliculi.

c. perichondrium.

d. periosteum.

e. Volkmann's canal.

c. perichondrium.

8

The serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity is the

Answers:

a. pleura.

b. parietal peritoneum.

c. parietal pleura.

d. visceral perichondrium.

e. visceral peritoneum.

b. parietal peritoneum.

9

All of the following are true of neurons, except:

Answers:

a. when mature, they lose the ability to divide.

b. they are separated from one another by synapses.

c. they conduct a nervous impulse.

d. they are a specialized type of connective tissue.

e. they are composed of a soma and nerve fibers.

d. they are a specialized type of connective tissue.

10

Adhesions occur when:

Answers:

a. nerve cells are damaged.

b. serous membranes are damaged.

c. synovial membranes are damaged.

d. muscle is damaged.

e. all of the above

b. serous membranes are damaged

11

Endocrine glands empty their products into ________ and are referred to as ________ glands, while exocrine gland secretions empty into ________.

Answers:

a. cells; cellular; blood

b. interstitial fluid or blood; ductless; ducts

c. interstitial fluid; ducted; interstitial fluid

d. blood; ducted; cells

e. ducts; ducted; blood

b. interstitial fluid or blood; ductless; ducts

12

The muscle tissue that shows no striations is ________ muscle.

Answers:

a. cardiac

b. voluntary

c. skeletal

d. smooth

e. multinucleated

d. smooth

13

Cells that are specialized for secretion

Answers:

a. are only found in the digestive system and lining the body cavities.

b. are usually large.

c. do not have a nucleus.

d. have a free surface that is flat.

e. exhibit polarity by having an apical and basal surface.

e. exhibit polarity by having an apical and basal surface.

14

The pancreas is an example of a ________ gland.

Answers:

a. unicellular

b. serous

c. merocrine

d. mucous

e. mixed

e. mixed

15

The only example of unicellular exocrine glands are

Answers:

a. sweat glands.

b. goblet cells.

c. mammary glands.

d. serous cells.

e. sebaceous cells.

b. goblet cells.

16

A gland composed of cells arranged in a blind pocket with a single duct that does not branch would be called

Answers:

a. tubuloacinar.

b. simple tubular.

c. simple acinar.

d. compound alveolar.

e. compound tubular.

c. simple acinar.

17

The cells that respond to injury or infection by dividing to produce daughter cells that differentiate into other cell types such as fibroblasts are called _______

Answers:

a. mesenchymal cells.

b. plasma cells.

c. fibrocytes.

d. lymphocytes.

e. mast cells.

a. mesenchymal cells.

18

The Pap test is a procedure utilizing

Answers:

a. histology.

b. exfoliative cytology.

c. physiology.

d. anatomy.

e. embryology.

b. exfoliative cytology.

19

Microscopic examination of a tissue reveals an open framework of fibers with a large volume of fluid, ground substance, collagen and elastic fibers. This tissue would most likely have come from the

Answers:

a. spleen.

b. tissue that separates skin from underlying muscle.

c. lungs.

d. bony socket of the eye.

e. inner wall of a blood vessel.

Selected Answer:

b. tissue that separates skin from underlying muscle.

20

Synovial membranes are composed of

Answers:

a. tissue that is closer in structure to areolar CT

b. tissue that resembles hyaline cartilage, but has a less dense matrix. Cells are located in lacunae.

c. simple squamous epithelium

d. a combination of true epithelial tissues

Selected Answer:

a. tissue that is closer in structure to areolar CT

21

This drug acts to block synthesis of thymine and therefore disrupts S phase and DNA replication. Identify the drug from the list below:

Answers:

a. 5-Fluorouracil

b. Paclitaxel (Taxol)

c. Cisplatin (Platinol)

d. Uracil 5 – 40

a. 5-Flourouracil

22

Jonathan V. is undergoing chemotherapy for treatment. He is receiving cisplatin and cyclophosphamide. His doctor has told him that he has severe myelosuppression and as a result he will not be able to get his treatment this week.

What does this mean?

Answers:

a. His blood cell counts are too low and since the chemotherapy treatments will further depress his blood cell counts, it is not safe for him to receive treatment.

b. His spinal cord and nerves are compressed from the tumor and he will need to undergo treatment for the compression.

c. His blood plasma levels are low meaning he is dehydrated from vomiting and diarrhea. He needs to have IV therapy and rest before he can have treatment again.

d. His blood plasma levels are low meaning he is dehydrated from vomiting and diarrhea. He needs to have IV therapy and rest before he can have treatment again.

Selected Answer:

a. His blood cell counts are too low and since the chemotherapy treatments will further depress his blood cell counts, it is not safe for him to receive treatment.

23

Julius has completed treatment for lung cancer and he has just been told that he has No Evidence of Disease after having CT scans and a PET scan. This means

Answers:

a. he never had cancer to start with

b. he is in remission but the cancer could recur locally or in another location in the future

c. his cancer is not showing up on the scans but is still present

d. he will not need to worry since the treatment cured him

Selected Answer:

b. he is in remission but the cancer could recur locally or in another location in the future

24

When a pathologist grades a malignant tumor she is

Answers:

a. Determining how differentiated the tumor cells appear compared to cells of normal tissue

b. Determining the primary location of the tumor

c. Determining the prognosis for the patient

d. Determining the cancer stage

Selected Answer:

a. Determining how differentiated the tumor cells appear compared to cells of normal tissue

25

When cyclin dependent kinase is activated

Answers:

a. Cells stop dividing and undergo apoptosis

b. It activates cells to start cell division

c. Cells become cancerous

d. Cells stop undergoing differentiation

Selected Answer:

b. It activates cells to start cell division

26

Which of the following is not a correct statement about simple epithelia?

Answers:

a.

They cover surfaces subjected to mechanical .

b.

They are able to reduce friction by secreting fluids.

c.

They are avascular.

d.

They line internal compartments and passageways.

e.

They are characteristic of regions where secretion or absorption occurs.

Selected Answer:

a.

They cover surfaces subjected to mechanical .

27

Name an adaption often found on epithelial cells at the free surface that fundtion in absorption or secretion

Answers:

a. junctional complexes

b. Golgi complexes

c. cilia

d. microvilli

e. many mitochondria

Selected Answer:

d. microvilli

28

Chondrocytes are to cartilage as osteocytes are to

Answers:

a. neural tissue.

b. blood.

c. fat.

d. bone.

e. epithelium.

Selected Answer:

d. bone.

29

The dominant fiber type in dense connective tissue is

Answers:

a. myosin.

b. collagen.

c. actin.

d. fibrin.

e. elastin.

Selected Answer:

b. collagen.

30

A Cancer treatment drug that is a monoclonal antibody isconsidered targeted therapy because

Answers:

a. the drug is a target for the cancer cell making them easier to see during diagnostic imaging

b. the drug is specifically targeting immune cells in the body that produce antibodies.

c. the drug targets all cells in the body equally

d. the drug is engineered to bind to a specific protein target in the body to block or inhibit its action

Selected Answer:

d. the drug is engineered to bind to a specific protein target in the body to block or inhibit its action

31

1. You would find pseudostratified columnar epithelium lining the:

a. Trachea

b. Urinary bladder

c. Secretary portions of the pancreas

d. Surface of the skin

e. Stomach

a. trachea

32

1. The framework or stroma of organs such as the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes is made up of:

a. Loose connective tissue

b. Regular dense connective tissue

c. Irregular dense connective tissue

d. Reticular connective tissue

e. Adipose tissue

d. reticular

33

1. The protoclygan, chondroitin sulfate would be found in the matrix of:

a. Bone

b. Cartilage

c. Areolar tissue

d. Elastic connective tissue

e. Tendons

...

34

1. The muscle tissue which shows no striation is:

a. Skeletal muscle

b. Cardiac muscle

c. Smooth muscle

d. Voluntary muscle

e. Multinucleated muscle

c. smooth muscle

35

1. One way of classifying tissues depends on whether they are arranged in layers or not. The terms used in this classification are

a. Simple, stratified or pseudostratified

b. Exocrine and endocrine

c. Squamous, cuboidal or columnar

d. Epithelial or connective

a. Simple, stratified or pseudostratified

36

1. Osteosarcoma refers to:

a. Cancer metastasis to bone

b. Primary tumor of the skin

c. Primary tumor of bone

d. Primary tumor development on the ovary

...

37

1. The primary prostate cancer that has spread to the bone is best referred to as:

a. Prostate cancer and a bone tumor

b. Bone cancer that has metastasized to the prostate

c. Prostate cancer and osteosarcoma

d. Prostate cancer that has metastasized to the bone

d. Prostate cancer that has metastasized to the bone

38

1. Which of the following tissue types are avascular (no direct blood supply)?

a. Hyaline cartilage

b. Areolar connective tissue

c. Columnar epithelium

d. Bone

i. 1

ii. 1, 3

iii. 1, 4

iv. 2, 3

v. 1, 3, 4

hyaline and columnar epithelium

39

The categories of epithelial tissue membranes are:
A) synovial, cutaneous, and mucous membranes
B) synovial, cutaneous, and serous membranes
C) synovial, mucous, and serous membranes
D) synovial, mucous, and cutaneous membranes
E) mucous, cutaneous, and serous membranes

E) mucous, cutaneous, and serous membranes

40

Which type of membrane contains fluid between the visceral and perietal layers:
A) synovial
B) serous
C) cutaneous
D) mucous
E) connective

B) serous

41

Which of the following relationships is incorrect:
A) visceral peritoneum - covers the outer surface of the small intestine
B) parietal pericardium -

b. parietal pericardium

42

Which of the following is a connective tissue membrane:
A) synovial membrane
B) cutaneous membrane
C) mucous membrane
D) serous membrane
E) pleural membrane

A) synovial membrane

43

Synovial membranes are found in the:
A) joint cavities
B) covering of the heart
C) lining of the stomach cavity
D) covering of the brain
E) lining of the abdominal cavity wall

A) joint cavities

44

Sweat glands associated with hair are:
A) sebaceous glands
B) sudoriferous glands
C) eccrine glands
D) sebaceous glands and eccrine glands
E) sudoriferous glands and eccrine glands

B) sudoriferous glands

45

Which of the following is a vital function of the skin:
A) it converts modified epidermal cholesterol to vitamin D
B) it aids in the transport of materials throughout the body
C) the cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy
D) it absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases
E) it aids in desiccation

A) it converts modified epidermal cholesterol to vitamin D

46

Although you get wet while swimming, a tough protein within the skin prevents it from soaking up moisture like a sponge. This substance is:
A) serous fluid
B) melanin
C) mucus
D) carotene
E) keratin

E) keratin

47

The uppermost layer of skin is:
A) called the dermis
B) full of keratin
C) fed by a good supply of blood vessels
D) called the hypodermis
E) composed of dense connective tissue

b. full of keratin

48

The hypodermis consists of:
A) simple columnar epithelium
B) stratified squamous epithelium
C) adipose tissue
D) loose connective tissue
E) dense fibrous connective tissue

c. adipose tissue

49

A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order:
1. stratum basale
2. stratum corneum
3. stratum granulosum
4. stratum lucidum
5. stratum spinosum

A) 2, 3, 5, 1

50

Which of the following homoeostatic imbalances is caused by skin exposure to chemicals:
A) athlete's foot
B) cold sores
C) impetigo
D) contact dermatitis
E) cyanosis

d. contact dermatitis

51

The layer of the epidermis in which cells first die because of their inability to get nutrients
and oxygen is the:
A) stratum spinosum
B) stratum granulosum
C) stratum basale
D) stratum corneum
E) stratum lucidum

E) stratum lucidum

52

Melanocytes are found in the:
A) stratum spinosum
B) stratum lucidum
C) stratum corneum
D) stratum basale
E) stratum granulosum

D) stratum basale

53

Epidermal cells that are actively mitotic and replace superficial cells that are continually
rubbed off are:
A) stratum granulosum cells
B) stratum corneum cells
C) stratum lucidum cells
D) stratum spinosum cells
E) stratum germinativum cells

E) stratum germinativum cells

54

Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of:
A) absorption
B) evaporation
C) filtration
D) diffusion
E) osmosis

Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of:
A) absorption
B) evaporation
C) filtration
D) diffusion
E) osmosis

55

The secretions of the eccrine glands are:
A) primarily uric acid
B) 99% water, sodium chloride, and trace amounts of wastes, lactic acid, and vitamin C
C) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins
D) solely metabolic wastes
E) basic

B) 99% water, sodium chloride, and trace amounts of wastes, lactic acid, and vitamin C

56

The secretion of sweat is stimulated:
A) by high temperatures
B) when the air temperature drops
C) by hormones, especially male sex hormones
D) as a protective coating when one is swimming
E) both by high temperatures and by hormones, especially male hormones

E) both by high temperatures and by hormones, especially male hormones

57

Sudoriferous glands are important for:
A) production of keratin
B) keeping skin and hair cells soft and flexible
C) production of sweat
D) body heat regulation
E) production of vitamin D

D) body heat regulation

58

Inflammation of the hair follicles and sebaceous glands is called:
A) impetigo
B) alopecia
C) psoriasis
D) boils
E) contact dermatitis

d. boils

59

What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn:
A) infection
B) dehydration
C) unbearable pain
D) loss of immune function
E) blood loss

B) dehydration

60

A physician estimates the volume of fluid lost in a severely burned patient by:
A) measuring urinary output and fluid intake
B) observing the tissues that are usually moist
C) blood analysis
D) using the "rule of nines"
E) performing enzyme studies

D) using the "rule of nines"

61

Acne and seborrhea are caused by problems with:
A) eccrine glands
B) nail beds
C) sudoriferous glands
D) sebaceous glands
E) hair follicles

D) sebaceous glands

62

The thickened, proximal area of the nail is called the nail matrix, and it is responsible for nail growth.

True

63

Squamous cell carcinoma arises from cells of the stratum spinosum. T/F

True

64

Type of membrane that
contains a visceral and a
partietal layer:
A) serous membrane
B) mucous membrane
C) cutaneous membrane
D) synovial membrane

a. serous membrane

65

Only example of a connective
tissue membrane:
A) serous membrane
B) mucous membrane
C) cutaneous membrane
D) synovial membrane

synovial membrane

66

the dermis is composed of the reticular and .. layers

papillary

67

the white, cheesy-looking substances that is produced by the sebaceous glands and protects a baby's skin while it is floating in its water-filled sac inside the mother is called ...

vernix caseosa

68

Leukemia

a. blood

b. lymph

c. bone

Blood Forming Tissue

69

Types of Cancers

Leukemias – blood forming tissue

Lymphomas – lymphoid tissue - spleen

Sarcomas: Malignant tumors of Mesenchymal/fibrous Connective Tissue

Carcinomas: Malignant Tumors of Epithelial Cells

  1. Squamous Carcinoma Squamous Epithelia
  2. Adenocarcinoma Gland tissues – in lungs – goblet cells divide fast – characterized by primary location
  3. Alveolar
  4. Papillary
  5. Tubular
  6. Anaplastic – rare – completely undifferentiated
  7. Large
  8. Small – oat cell agressive

...

70

Types of Sarcomas:

Malignant tumors of Mesenchymal/fibrous Connective Tissue

  1. Chondrosarcoma Cartilage – mesenchyme
  2. Osteosarcoma - Bone
  3. Hemangiosarcoma - Blood Vessel
  4. Gliomas Neurons, neuroglial cells – john mccain had glial blastoma
  5. Astrocytoma an astrocyte became cancerous
  6. Glioblastoma
  7. Lymphomas Lymphatic system – lymph nodes
  8. Melanomas - Mesenchyme
  9. Rhabdomyosarcoma - skeletal muscles
  10. Leiomyosarcomas - smooth muscle
  11. Fibrosarcoma - fibrous connective tissue
  12. Seminoma, teratoma - reproductive system

Types of Sarcomas:

  1. Chondrosarcoma Cartilage – mesenchyme
  2. Osteosarcoma - Bone
  3. Hemangiosarcoma - Blood Vessel
  4. Gliomas Neurons, neuroglial cells – john mccain had glial blastoma
  5. Astrocytoma an astrocyte became cancerous
  6. Glioblastoma
  7. Lymphomas Lymphatic system – lymph nodes
  8. Melanomas - Mesenchyme
  9. Rhabdomyosarcoma - skeletal muscles
  10. Leiomyosarcomas - smooth muscle
  11. Fibrosarcoma - fibrous connective tissue
  12. Seminoma, teratoma - reproductive system
71

Types of Carcinomas: Malignant Tumors of Epithelial Cells

  1. Squamous Carcinoma Squamous Epithelia
  2. Adenocarcinoma Gland tissues – in lungs – goblet cells divide fast – characterized by primary location
  3. Alveolar
  4. Papillary
  5. Tubular
  6. Anaplastic – rare – completely undifferentiated
  7. Large
  8. Small – oat cell agressive

Types of Carcinomas

  1. Squamous Carcinoma Squamous Epithelia
  2. Adenocarcinoma Gland tissues – in lungs – goblet cells divide fast – characterized by primary location
  3. Alveolar
  4. Papillary
  5. Tubular
  6. Anaplastic – rare – completely undifferentiated
  7. Large
  8. Small – oat cell aggressive
72

How Cancer starts:

1. Proto-oncogenes (normal regulatory genes)

a. Tell the cells to divide

b. High frequency during embryonic development

2. Oncogenes (are mutated or damaged proto-oncogenes)

a. Cause cancer cells to divide

3. Tumor Suppressor genes (regulatory genes)

a. Repress cell growth, division, differentiation, cell-to-cell adhesions (Desmosomes)

b. Cancers may turn these off or damage or mutate them

Tumor Grade – pathologist

- Determines Differentiation using the Gleason Scale 1-3 or 1-5

1. Proto-oncogenes (normal regulatory genes)

a. Tell the cells to divide

b. High frequency during embryonic development

2. Oncogenes (are mutated or damaged proto-oncogenes)

a. Cause cancer cells to divide

3. Tumor Suppressor genes (regulatory genes)

a. Repress cell growth, division, differentiation, cell-to-cell adhesions (Desmosomes)

b. Cancers may turn these off or damage or mutate them

Tumor Grade – pathologist

- Determines Differentiation using the Gleason Scale 1-3 or 1-5

73

Phases of Cancer Growth

Dysplasia – abnormal change in cell structure

Hyperplasia – increase in number of cells

Metaplasia – transformation of cell type

In Situ Cancer – malignant tumor with potential to metastasize – did not invade the membrane

Anaplasia – complete loss of tissue differentiation and function

Metastases – secondary tumors at other locations from primary tumor

Phases of Cancer Growth

Dysplasia – abnormal change in cell structure

Hyperplasia – increase in number of cells

Metaplasia – transformation of cell type

In Situ Cancer – malignant tumor with potential to metastasize – did not invade the membrane

Anaplasia – complete loss of tissue differentiation and function

Metastases – secondary tumors at other locations from primary tumor

74

Vincristine sulfate (Oncovin)

effectively inhibits cell growth in rapidly growing and dividing cells including cancer cells

Inhibits microtubule spindle assembly – arrests cells in metaphase.

Adverse effect – neuropathy – tingling or numbness in hands and feet)

75

Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) – made from nitrogen mustard

May cause cross linking of DNA

Interferes with cell division and cell functioning

76

Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)

Interferes with DNA polymerase and DNA replication

May cause cross linking of DNA

May destabilize DNA

Interferes with RNA polymerase and protein synthesis

May induce apoptosis

Interferes with cell division and cell functioning

Adverse reactions: if leaks outside of blood vessels, can cause tissue necrosis and heart damage.

77

Cisplatin (Platinol) – contains platinum

Binds to DNA

Can interfere with DNA replication and protein synthesis

Adverse effects: Risk for renal (kidney) toxicity and ototoxicity

78

Paclitaxel (Taxol)

Promotes microtuble assembly and generates spindle “ARRAYS” or bundles disrupting mitosis and interphase.

Adverse effects: neuropathy

79

5-Flurouracil

Thymine analog (interferes with normal thymine production)

Disrupts S phase and DNA replication

Adverse effects: stomatitis (mouth sores)

80

Herceptin (Trastuzumab)

Monoclonal antibody to Human Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor 2 (HER2)

Blocks the receptor and shuts down one pathway for cell reproduction

81

Monoclonal Antibodies

Proteins that copy proteins which bind to specific molecular targets

Cancer drug names which do this always end in “MAB”

82

5. A patient is discovered to have a mass on x-ray. A biopsy performed shows that the cells in the mass are of epithelial origin. They appear to have come from mammary epithelium. The conclusion is that the tumor is

a. a primary lung tumor

b. a metastatic lung tumor of lung origin

c. a breast/mammary gland tumor that has metastasized to the lung

d. a mammary gland tumor and a lung tumor

c. a breast/mammary gland tumor that has metastasized to the lung

83

4. Radiation therapy is effective to treat

a. cancer systemically and to prevent metastasis

b. benign malignancies

c. all cancers for local disease

d. specific types of cancers to manage local disease

d. specific types of cancers to manage local disease

84

3. Contact inhibition describes

a. a mechanism used to regulate cell division

b. a mechanism used to begin the process of cancer formation

c. behavior of cancer cells

d. the process by which cells are triggered to begin the process of apoptosis

a. a mechanism used to regulate cell division

85

2. Traditional types of chemotherapy such as vincristine

a. effectively inhibit cancer cell growth, but do not impact other cells

b. effectively inhibit cell growth in rapidly growing and dividing cells including cancer cells

c. work best in cells that are not actively dividing

d. destroy all cells and therefore also impact cancer cells

b. effectively inhibit cell growth in rapidly growing and dividing cells including cancer cells

86
  1. A biopsy of a mass in the knee of a patient shows undifferentiated cells that are of connective tissue origin. This type of cancer is likely to be a

a. carcinoma

b. sarcoma

c. lymphoma

d. leukemia

b. sarcoma

87

12. Carcinoma in situ refers to a

a. cancerous tumor that has invaded the underlying basement membrane and tissues

b. cancerous tumor that has spread to other regions of the body

c. cancerous tumor that has not invaded the basement membrane

d. benign tumor that has invaded the underlying basement membrane and tissues

e. benign tumor that has not invaded the basement membrane and surrounding tissues

c. cancerous tumor that has not invaded the basement membrane

88

9. Cartilage is separated from surrounding tissues by a fibrous

a. perichondrium

b. lacunae

c. periosteum

d. canaliculi

e. none of the above

a. perichondrium

89

50) An anticoagulant, enoxaparin, is formulated for subcutaneous injection. Which location(s) below is/are acceptable as injection sites?

1) hypodermis in the lower left quadrant of the abdomen

2) skeletal muscle of the right abdominal quadrant

3) subcutaneous tissue of the right proximal femoral region

A) 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 3 C) 1, 3 D) 3

C) 1, 3

90

49) The inflammatory phase includes

A) migration, proliferation, and scarring

B) heat, pain, edema and pus

C) redness, heat, edema and pain

D) redness, heat, edema and scarring

C) redness, heat, edema and pain

91

48) After a deep extensive injury to his right thigh, Martin MacKenzie's nurse notes the development of new granulation tissue developing in the wound. What does this indicate about Martin's wound?

A) the granulation tissue represents regenerating epithelial tissue

B) the granulation tissue represents regenerating connective tissue

C) the granulation tissue represents the body's response to bacterial infection

D) the granulation tissue represents signs of infection occurring and break down of tissue

B) the granulation tissue represents regenerating connective tissue

92

47) A burn that extends all the way through the dermis and into the subcutaneous tissue is referred to as a

A) first degree burn

B) second degree burn

C) third degree burn

D) fourth degree burn

C) third degree burn

93

46) A pharmaceutical company wants to create new medications that may be administered transdermally. Based on your knowledge of what the skin can absorb, which of the following products is a good candidate for transdermal delivery?

A) a water-soluble vitamin

B) a rehydration fluid

C) a lipid-soluble analgesic

D) a nutrient cocktail of sugars and amino acids

E) all of these would be good product candidates

C) a lipid-soluble analgesic

94

45) A nervous student has been chewing his nails. He no longer has any white tips at the distal ends of his nails, and one of the nails is inflamed and bloody at the distal end. Which of the following best describes what has happened?

A) the student has no white tips because he has bitten off the nail matrices

B) the student has damaged the eponychium of his nails

C) the student has damaged the hyponychium and underlying epidermis and dermis on one nail

D) the student has no white tips because he damaged the lunula of his nails

E) the student has a blood distal end because he damaged his nail root on that digit

C) the student has damaged the hyponychium and underlying epidermis and dermis on one nail

95

The reticular region of the dermis

A) is deep to the papillary region

B) consists primarily of adipose tissue

C) contains collagen fibers and elastic fibers

D) both a and b are correct

E) both a and c are correct

E) both a and c are correct

96

Constant pressure of skin and underlying tissues on bony structures leads directly to

A) decreased blood supply and possible tissue destruction of the affected skin and underlying tissues

B) increased blood flow producing edema and localizing swelling

C) increased blood flow producing systemic infection

D) increased pressure on bone and increased bone breakdown

A) decreased blood supply and possible tissue destruction of the affected skin and underlying tissues

97

During the inflammatory phase of deep wound healing

A) WBCs are brought to the damaged region

B) collagen fibers are synthesized

C) epidermal migration occurs

D) the scar falls off

A) WBCs are brought to the damaged region

98

Which of the following occurs during the first phase of deep wound healing?

A) inflammation

B) epithelial migration

C) epithelial proliferation

D) scar formation

A) inflammation

99

Scar tissue in skin is made up of

A) heavily keratinized epidermal cells

B) modified stratum corenum cells

C) densely arranged collagen fibers

D) dermis that remains exposed after the scab comes off

C) densely arranged collagen fibers

100

Mammary glands are believed to be modified

A) sebaceous glands

B) sweat glands

C) matrix

D) ceruminous glands

E) none of the above

B) sweat glands

101

1. Ceruminous glands are modified:

a. Sebaceous glands that produce a waxy substance in the ear

b. Endocrine glands that produce an oily substance in the skin.

c. Melanocytes that produce a pigment in the eye

d. Goblet cells that produce mucus in the ear

e. Sweat glands that produce a waxy substance in the ear.

e. Sweat glands that produce a waxy substance in the ear.

102

1. The cells responsible for the growth of existing hairs and production of new hairs are found with the:

a. Cuticle

b. Matrix of the hair

c. Shaft of the hair

d. Arrector pili

e. Papilla of the hair

b. Matrix of the hair

103

1. The cuticle around a nail is the:

a. Eponychium

b. Hyponychium

c. Free edge

d. Perinychium

e. Lanula

a. Eponychium

104

1. Water loss due to evaporation of fluid through the skin is termed _______ perspiration

a. Sensible

b. Insensible

c. Latent

d. Active

e. Inactive

b. Insensible

105

1. How does the drug Taxol work to prevent cancer cells from surviving and reproducing?

a. It inhibits the formation of microtubules preventing the spindle fibers from forming and it shuts down mitosis from occurring

b. It promotes the formation of microtubules and therefore spindle fibers and stabilizes microtubules by preventing them from being broken down . this results in the inability of cells to complete mitosis.

c. It works by causing alopecia and reducing white blood cell production

d. It works by cross-linking DNA and causing an interruption in DNA replication and protein synthesis.

b. It promotes the formation of microtubules and therefore spindle fibers and stabilizes microtubules by preventing them from being broken down . this results in the inability of cells to complete mitosis.

106

1. If DNA flow cytometry indicates that a malignant tumor contains 24% in S phase (a significantly elevated number of cells in S phase) and determines that the tumor cells are hyperdiploid, it means that:

a. The tumor cells are dysplastic because there is excess DNA per cell.

b. The tumor cells are grad 3 and rapidly dividing

c. The tumor cells are getting ready to enter G0 and there is an increase in the number of chromosomes per cell

d. The tumor cells are dividing at a rapid rate and there is an increased amount of DNA per cell

d. The tumor cells are dividing at a rapid rate and there is an increased amount of DNA per cell

107

1. Melanie C. is examined by a surgeon because she has noticed the growth of a nontender lump on her right thigh. The surgeon schedules melanie for an excisional biopsy to remove the mass. After the tissue is removed, it is sent to the pathologist. The pathologist determines that the specimen “contains poorly differentiated cells of fibroblast origin.” The cells have a much larger nucleus-to-cytoplasm ratio. The malignant cells appear to be dividing at a rapid rate based on DNA flow cytometry results. The majority of the cells are characterized as Grade 3. The tumor extends from the deep reticular dermis through the subcutaneous layer. This report indicates that melane has a(n):

a. Benign fibroadenoma that is growing rapidly

b. Rapidly growing, undifferentiated carcinoma

c. Rapidly growing, undifferentiated lymphoma

d. Benign carcinoma

e. Rapidly growing, undifferentiated sarcoma

e. Rapidly growing, undifferentiated sarcoma

108

1. Many cytotoxic drugs cause myelosuppression. This means that they:

a. Suppress appetite

b. Suppress bone formation leading to osteoporosis

c. Cause muscle weakness

d. Suppress blood cell production

e. Suppress nerve impulse conduction

d. Suppress blood cell production

109

1. The gastrointestinal tract propels food that has been consumed along the entire length of the intestines through rhythmic muscular contractions called peristalsis. This contractile tissue is:

a. Cardiac muscle

b. Smooth muscle

c. Striated muscle

d. Skeletal muscle

e. C and d are correct

b. Smooth muscle

110

1. Tendons and ligaments must withstand tension along the axis of their fibers. These structures are composed of:

a. Cartilage

b. Dense regular connective tissue

c. Dense irregular connective tissue

d. Elastic cartilage

b. Dense regular connective tissue

111

1. A pathologist examines a thin slice of tissue with a microscope and notes numerous cells packed tightly together. No intercellular space or blood vessel is noted between cells, but the cells have polarity. One side of the cells opens into a cavity, and the other is attached to a thin layer of extracellular material. Several of the cells are in some state of mitosis. Which primary tissue type does the pathologist see?

a. Cartilage

b. Connective

c. Epithelial

d. Muscular

e. Nervous

c. Epithelial

112

1. The p53 gene is responsible for arresting cell division in the G1 phase of the cell cycle, preventing cell division. It also induceses apoptosis in cells that have been unstable to repair DNA. The p53 gene can be classified as a:

a. Tumor-suppressor gene

b. Proto-oncogene

c. Oncogene

d. Mutation

a. Tumor-suppressor gene

113

1. A biopsy specimen of breast tissue (mammary gland) shows carcinoma-in-situ on all slides prepared from the specimen. Which statement below best applies to this situation?

a. This specimen does not show a condition which is considered to be a malignant condition.

b. This specimen represents a cancer which does not show any invasion of the basement membrane. It is important that there is a margin of healthy cells surrounding the tumor cells when excising it.

c. This specimen shows a tumor that is likely to have invaded the basement membrane and the underlying connective tissue. It is important to examine regional lymph nodes to determine if metastasis has occurred.

d. This specimen shows an invasive cancer with metastasis to in-situ locations.

b. This specimen represents a cancer which does not show any invasion of the basement membrane. It is important that there is a margin of healthy cells surrounding the tumor cells when excising it.

114

Absorption of damaging light rays is the primary function of:

a. keratin.

b. sebum.

c. cerumen.

d. melanin.

e. keratohyalin.

d. melanin.

115

The stratum basale contains:

a. stem cells of keratinocytes.

b. many blood vessels.

c. eccrine sweat glands.

d. hair follicles.

e. Both stem cells of keratinocytes and many blood vessels are correct.

a. stem cells of keratinocytes.

116

Sweat is produced by:

a. keratinocytes.

b. melanocytes.

c. ceruminous glands.

d. sudoriferous glands.

e. sebaceous glands.

d. sudoriferous glands

117

The stratum corneum is:

a. the innermost layer of the epidermis.

b. highly vascular.

c. made up of dead cells.

d. seen only in the palms and soles.

e. the layer in which keratin begins to form.

c. made up of dead cells.

118

Fat storage is an important function of the:

a. epidermis.

b. papillary region of the dermis.

c. reticular region of the dermis.

d. subcutaneous layer.

e. All of these except the epidermis.

d. subcutaneous layer.

119

The process of fibrosis results in:

a. some form of skin cancer.

b. scar formation.

c. excessive production of skin pigment.

d. excessive production of hair and nails.

e. premature wrinkling of skin.

b. scar formation.

120

The outermost layer of hair is called the

a. medulla

b. cortex

c. cuticle

d. internal root sheath

e. external root sheath

c. cuticle