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Phlebotomy Handbook
Chapters 1-17
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1

If a health provider is in an area of the health care acidity where a fire starts, she or he should first:

A) attempt to extinguish the fire, using the proper equipment

B) pull the lever in the fire alarm box

C) block the entrances so that others will not enter the fire area

D) close all the doors and windows before leaving the area

B) pull the lever in the fire alarm box

2

If an electrical accident occurs involving electrical shock to an employee or a patient, the FIRST thing that the health care provider should do is:

A) move the victim away from the electricity

B) start CPR

C) shut off the electrical power

D) place a blanket over the victim

C) shut off the electrical power

3

The abbreviation RACE is used in:

A) mechanical emergencies

B) radiation emergencies

C) electrical emergencies

D) Fire emergencies

D) Fire emergencies

4

A dosimeter badge is required in health care facilities for:

A) radiation safety

B) Fire safety

C) electrical safety

D) mechanical safety

A) radiation safety

5

MSDS stands for:

A) mean safety data sheet

B) mean standard deviation sheet

C) material standard deviation sheet

D) material safety data sheet

D) material safety data sheet

6

CPR stands for:

A) cardiopulmonary resuscitation

B) cardiopulmonary recovery

C) cardiopulmonary rescue

D) cardiopulmonary return

A) cardiopulmonary resuscitation

7

Which of the following describes the term systole?

A) blood tension

B) A heart murmur

C) relaxation of the heart

D) contraction of the heart

D) contraction of the heart

8

Which of the following describes the term diastole?

A) blood tension

B) A heart murmur

C) contraction of the heart

D) relaxation of the heart

D) relaxation of the heart

9

A differential count refers to:

A) contraction of the heart

B) specific types of WBC’s

C) A heart murmur

D) blood pressure

B) specific types of WBC’s

10

Which of the following veins is most commonly used for venipuncture?

A) Femoral

B) great saphenous

C) median cubital

D) brachial

C) median cubital

11

Hemoglobin content is assessed in the laboratory by analyzing:

A) megakaryocytes

B) platelets

C) erythrocytes

D) White blood cells

C) erythrocytes

12

Which of the following is another name for leukocytes?

A) White blood cells

B) platelets

C) sera

D) Red blood cells

A) White blood cells

13

Which of the following is another name for erythrocytes?

A) red blood cells

B) sera

C) platelets

D) white blood cells

A) red blood cells

14

Which of the following is another name for thrombocytes?

A) Red blood cells

B) White blood cells

C) sera

D) platelets

D) platelets

15

Which of the following is true of a serum specimen?

A) is rich in carbon monoxide

B) contains anticoagulant additive

C) does not contain an anticoagulant additive

D) is highly oxygenated

C) does not contain an anticoagulant additive

16

Latrogenic anemia is a condition in which:

A) clotting factors do not work properly

B) the anemia is due to excessive venipunctures

C) there is a weakened area of the blood vessel wall

D) WBCs are overproduced and do not function correctly

B) the anemia is due to excessive venipunctures

17

Thrombocytopenia is a condition in which there is a:

A) low platelet count

B) high RBC count

C) high WBC count

D) high BUN

A) low platelet count

18

Polycythemia is a condition in which there is:

A) high WBC count

B) high BUN

C) high RBC count

D) low platelet count

C) high RBC count

19

An XX pair of chromosomes means that the fetus will be a:

A) brown-haired child

B) baby girl

C) blue-eyed child

D) baby boy

B) baby girl

20

A test request for O & P refers to:

A) an evaluation for parasites

B) chromosome analysis

C) oxygen and pH

D} occult and pathogens

A) an evaluation for parasites

21

An XY pair of chromosomes means that the fetus will be a:

A) baby girl

B) baby boy

C) fraternal twin

D) brown-eyed girl

B) baby boy

22

Which of the following controls skin pigmentation?

A) melanin

B) glucose

C) hemoglobin

D) vitamin D

A) melanin

23

Which of the following is designed to reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms from both recognized an unrecognized sources of infection in healthcare facilities?

A) Standard precautions

B) protective equipment

C) droplet precautions

D) reverse isolations

A) Standard precautions

24

Which of the following organization oversees the investigation and control of various diseases, especially those that are communicable?

A) CLIA

B) The Joint Commision

C) JCAHO

D) CDC

D) CDC

25

Which of the following is an agency of the US Department of Labor that requires employers to provide measures that will protect workers exposed to biological hazards?

A) The Joint Commission

B) CLIA

C) OSHA

D) CLIA

C) OSHA

26

If an accident such as a needle stick occurs, the injured health care worker should immediately:

A) cleanse the area with isopropyl alcohol and apply an adhesive bandage

B) take the needle back to the clinical lab for verification of the accident

C) fill out the necessary health care forms

D) contact his or her immediate supervisor

A) cleanse the area with isopropyl alcohol and apply an adhesive bandage

27

About how many patients acquire a nosocomial infection annually?

A) 6 to 7.2 million

B) 1 to 1.15 million

C) 4 to 5.5 million

D) 1.75 to 3 million

D) 1.75 to 3 million

28

Which of the following is a commonly identified pathogenic agent that affects the skin?

A) shigella sp.

B) V ibrio cholerae

C) Clostridium difficile

D) Herpes virus

D) Herpes virus

29

Which of the following would require contact precautions?

A) Scarlet fever

B) tuberculosis

C) rubella

D) herpes Simplex

D) herpes Simplex

30

Which of the following would require airborne precautions?

A) turberculosis

B) scabies

C) rubella

D) hepatitis A

A) turberculosis

31

Which of the following is commonly identified causative agent of nosocomial infections in the nursery unit?

A) haemophilus vaginalis

B) escherichia coli

C) vibrio cholerae

D) shigella

B) escherichia coli

32

Reverse isolation is commonly used for patients who have:

A) immunodeficiency disorders

B) vibrio cholerae

C) hepatitis a

D) whooping cough

A) immunodeficiency disorders

33

Antiseptics for skin include:

A) ethylene oxide

B) hypochlorite solution

C) iodine

D) formaldehyde

C) iodine

34

In health care facilities, which of the following is a typical fomite?

A) hexachlorophene

B) iodine for blood culture collection

C) phlebotomy tray

D) 70% isopropyl alcohol

C) phlebotomy tray

35

Which of the following is the most important procedure in the prevention of disease transmission in health care institutions?

A) reporting personal illnesses to supervisor

B) hand washing

C) use of appropriate waste disposal practices

D) use of personal protective equipment

B) hand washing

36

Which of the following is a vector in transmitting infectious diseases?

A) salmonella

B) age

C) rabies

D) mites

D) mites

37

A health care-acquired infection occurs when:

A) the chain of infection is complete

B) a susceptible host remains stable

C) a means of transmission is maintained by disinfectants

D) a source is detected

A) the chain of infection is complete

38

Disinfectants are:

A) quarternary ammonium compounds

B) chemicals that are used to remove or kill pathogenic microorganisms

C) chemicals that are used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms but do not necessarily kill them

D) used frequently on skin for removal of microorganisms

B) chemicals that are used to remove or kill pathogenic microorganisms

39

Prior to performing a venipuncture, why is it important to get information about whether or not the patient has eaten recently?

A) meals tend to calm a patient down

B) to help evaluate on which side to perform the venipuncture

C) lab tests can be affected by the ingestion of food or drink

D) after eating, patients usually have enlarged veins

C) lab tests can be affected by the ingestion of food or drink

40

Name one step that should NOT be in the hand washing procedure:

A) lathering with soap and water

B) turning off the water faucet with hands

C) washing around the wrists area

D) scrubbing between the fingers

B) turning off the water faucet with hands

41

Arteries differ from veins in which of the following ways?

A) smaller in diameter

B) thicker vessel walls with a pulsating feel

C) bluer in color

D) tend to be lipemic

B) thicker vessel walls with a pulsating feel

42

If arm veins cannot be used for venipuncture, the preferred alternative veins lie in the:

A) anterior surface of the hand or wrist

B) ankles or feet

C) dorsal side of the hand or wrist

D) earlobe

C) dorsal side of the hand or wrist

43

Where should the tourniquet be placed on the patient during the venipuncture procedure?

A) 3 inches above the venipuncture site

B) over the venipuncture site

C) 3 inches below the venipuncture site

D) 1 inch above the venipuncture site

A) 3 inches above the venipuncture site

44

During the venipuncture, the needle should be inserted at what angle to the skin?

A) 60 degrees

B) 45 degrees

C) 30 degrees or less

D) 90 degrees

C) 30 degrees or less

45

During the venipuncture procedure, what should the phlebotomist do after the needle is inserted and the blood begins to flow?

A) release the adapter

B) withdraw the needle

C) adjust the hub of the needle

D) release the tourniguet

D) release the tourniguet

46

Which of the following information is essential for labeling a patient’s specimen?

A) the patients name and identification number, date of collection, the physicians name

B) the patients name and identification number, date of collection, time of collection

C) the patients name and identification number, date and time of collection, the phlebotomist’s initials

D) the patients name and identification number, date of collection, room number, and the phlebotomist initials

C) the patients name and identification number, date and time of collection, the phlebotomist’s initials

47

The term STAT refers to:

A) abstaining from food over a period of time

B) immediate and urgent specimen collection

C) using the early-morning specimens for laboratory testing

D) using timed blood collections for specific specimens

B) immediate and urgent specimen collection

48

Steps in the identification process should include:

A) a 4-way match with the doctor, verbal ID, ID bracelet

B) checking the verbal identification with a room number

C) a 2-way match with the ID bracelet and the verbal confirmation

D) a 3-way match with the verbal, ID bracelet, and requisition information

D) a 3-way match with the verbal, ID bracelet, and requisition information

49

If a patient is frail and has a tendency to faint, what equipment, if any, would be helpful in the specimen collection process?

A) a recliner

B) a glass of juice

C) an oxygen mask

D) commercial warming device

A) a recliner

50

If a venipuncture procedure is almost completed and suddenly you see hints of a hematoma beginning to form, what should you do?

A) discontinue the procedure and apply pressure with guaze

B) remove the tube and try another one

C) reinflate the blood pressure cuff to slow bleeding

D) finish collecting the tubes as quickly as possible

A) discontinue the procedure and apply pressure with guaze

51

How many more times should a phlebotomist try to perform a venipuncture on a patient if he has failed once already?

A) once

B) twice

C) three times

D) four times

A) once

52

Which specimen collection tube is commonly used for hematology tests?

A) heparin

B) serum tube with clot activator

C) sodium citrate

D) EDTA

D) EDTA

53

Which specimen collection tube is commonly used for hemostasis tests?

A) sodium citrate

B) EDTA

C) serum tube with clot activator

D) heparin

A) sodium citrate

54

Adding too much blood to a sodium citrate tube can cause:

A) shorter clotting time

B) WBCs to clump

C) elevated glucose value

D) elevated hemoglobin

A) shorter clotting time

55

When collecting a blood specimen with a butterfly method and PT, PTT tests are the only tests ordered, what is the correct procedure?

A) use a discarded tube, then collect a sodium citrate tube

B) collect a sodium citrate tube first, then EDTA

C) collect a single blue top tube

D) use a single serum tube with a clot activator

A) use a discarded tube, then collect a sodium citrate tube

56

If the tourniquet is applied to the arm for longer than 2 minutes, which of the following analyses will most likely become falsely elevated?

A) potassium

B) blood urea nitrogen

C) bilirubin

D) uric acid

A) potassium

57

When blood is to be collected for a glucose tolerance test, the patient should fast for:

A) 8 to 12 hours

B) 6 to 8 hours

C) 3 to 5 hours

D) 12 to 14 hours

A) 8 to 12 hours

58

A basal state exists:

A) 3 hours after the ingestion of lunch

B) immediately before lunch

C) after the evening meal

D) in the early morning, 12 hours after the last ingestion of food

D) in the early morning, 12 hours after the last ingestion of food

59

Which of the following analytes is significantly increased in the blood with changes in position?

A) glucose

B) testosterone

C) iron

D) cortisol

C) iron

60

An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the intercellular spaces of the body that is localized or diffused is referred to as:

A) hemoconcentration

B) edema

C) hemolysis

D) atherosclerosis

B) edema

61

Which of the following is another term for fainting?

A) lymphostasis

B) fomite

C) thrombi

D) syncope

D) syncope

62

Which of the following would most likely NOT be an explanation for turbid serum?

A) bacterial contamination

B) elevated triglyceride levels

C) elevated glucose

D) elevated cholesterol levels

C) elevated glucose

63

When hemoglobin is released from RBCs and serum becomes tinged as pink or red, this condition is referred to as:

A) hemoconcentration

B) hemolysis

C) hemophilia

D) hyperlipidemia

B) hemolysis

64

If a patient begins to have a seizure during venipuncture, the phlebotomist should immediately:

A) place the patient on the floor

B) hold pressure on the blood collection site

C) release the tourniquet

D) run for a physician

C) release the tourniquet

65

Which of the following analytes will be falsely increased when the sodium citrate blood collection tube is under-filled?

A) BUN

B) PT

C) phosphorus

D) creatine

B) PT

66

Hemolysis in collected blood can cause a falsely decreased value for:

A) total protein

B) hemoglobin

C) ammonia

D) phosphorus

B) hemoglobin

67

What additive destroys the enzymes in the blood when the grey-topped tube is used to collect blood?

A) sodium heparin

B) sodium citrate

C) sodium fluoride

D) lithium heparin

C) sodium fluoride

68

Which of the following lab tests results are affected most if the patient is NOT fasting?

A) cortisol

B) glucose

C) prothrombin

D) AST

B) glucose

69

SPS tubes are used in the collection of:

A) microscopy specimens

B) clinical chemistry specimens

C) clinical immunology specimens

D) microbiology specimens

D) microbiology specimens

70

Lithium heparin is a suitable anticoagulant for which of the following studies?

A) erthyrocyte sedimentation heparin

B) lithium level

C) zinc level

D) glucose level

D) glucose level

71

Which of the following additives is found in a royal blue-topped blood collection tube?

A) ammonium heparin

B) sodium citrate

C) lithium heparin

D) clot activator

D) clot activator

72

The yellow-topped blood collection tube has which of the following additives?

A) lithium heparin

B) sodium polyanetholesulfonate

C) trisodium citrate

D) EDTA

B) sodium polyanetholesulfonate

73

The safety butterfly blood collection system is frequently used with a needle gauge size of:

A) 16

B) 21

C) 18

D) 19

B) 21

74

For newborns, the penetration depth of safety lancets for blood collection must be:

A) 3.0 mm or less

B) 2.6 mm or less

C) 2.0 mm or less

D) 2.2 mm or less

C) 2.0 mm or less

75

The Unopette can be used for:

A) microcollection of blood culture and sensitivity testing

B) microcollection of blood for hematocrit

C) microcollection and dilution of blood samples for the WBC count

D) ABO group and type blood collection

C) microcollection and dilution of blood samples for the WBC count

76

Which of the following needle gauges have the smallest diameter?

A) 21

B) 23

C) 19

D) 20

B) 23

77

A blood count requires whole blood to be collected in a:

A) yellow-topped tube

B) gray-topped tube

C) green-topped tube

D) lavender-topped tube

D) lavender-topped tube

78

Which of the following tests usually requires blood collected in a tan-topped blood collection tube?

A) cortisol

B) CK

C) CBC

D) Lead

D) Lead

79

Which of the following is a commonly used intravenous device that is sometimes used in the collection of blood from patients who are difficult to collect blood by conventional methods?

A) butterfly needle

B) serakat

C) BD Unopette

D) BD Microtainer

A) butterfly needle

80

The color coding for needles indicate the:

A) gauge

B) length

C) anticoagulant

D) manufacturer

A) gauge

81

Which of the following anticoagulants is found in the green-topped blood collection tube?

A) sodium heparin

B) EDTA

C) potassium oxalate

D) sodium citrate

A) sodium heparin

82

Which of the following is used in blood donations?

A) lithium iodoacetate

B) sodium citrate

C) ethylene-diamine tetra-acetic acid

D) citrate-phosphate-dextrose

D) citrate-phosphate-dextrose

83

The gold-topped blood collection tube should be gently inverted how many times after blood is collected?

A) 12 times

B) 8 times

C) 10 times

D) 5 times

D) 5 times

84

Which of the following blood collection tubes is most appropriate for the sterile blood collection of trace elements and nutritional studies?

A) purple-topped tube

B) gold-topped tube

C) royal blue-topped tube

D) yellow-topped tube

C) royal blue-topped tube

85

Which of the following blood collection tubes is most appropriate for the collection of blood for a DIFF?

A) royal-topped tube

B) light blue-topped tube

C) purple-topped tube

D) gold-topped tube

C) purple-topped tube

86

How many times should the lavender-topped blood collection tube be inverted after blood collection?

A) 8 times

B) 10 times

C) 5 times

D) 12 times

A) 8 times

87

Which of the following is NOT in a grey-topped blood collection tube?

A) sodium fluoride

B) EDTA

C) potassium oxalate

D) sodium citrate

D) sodium citrate

88

Which of the following blood collection tubes is most appropriate for blood bank collections?

A) light blue-topped tube

B) gold-topped tube

C) royal blue-topped tube

D) pink-topped tube

D) pink-topped tube

89

Failure to act or perform duties according to the standard of care for phlebotomy is:

A) negligence

B) battery

C) slander

D) criminal action

A) negligence

90

When a phlebotomist gives aid during an emergency, he or she is usually protected through:

A) FDA

B) implied consent

C) rightful action consent

D) CLIA

B) implied consent

91

The federal law enacted that regulates the quality and accuracy of laboratory testing (including phlebotomy procedures) by creating a uniform set of provisions governing all clinical laboratories is referred to as:

A) HCFA

B) The Joint Commission

C) CLIA

D) FDA

C) CLIA

92

A young boy who refused to have blood collected from his arm was locked in a room by a health care worker ans was forced to have the blood collection. This is an example of:

A) implied consent

B) invasion of privacy

C) informed consent

D) assault and battery

D) assault and battery

93

Which of the following agencies administers CLIA?

A) EPA

B) CPS

C) FDA

D) CMS

D) CMS

94

Which of the following branches of government writes laws that are called statues?

A) US Supreme Court

B) judicial branch

C) legislative branch

D) executive branch

C) legislative branch

95

The legal term for improper or unskilled care of a patient by a member of the health care team or any professional misconduct, unreasonable lack of skill, or infidelity in professional or judiciary duties is:

A) malpractice

B) liability

C) invasion of privacy

D) litigation

A) malpractice

96

CLIA is enforced by the:

A) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

B) Centers for Disease and Prevention Control

C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

D) Health Care Financing Administration

A) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

97

Which federal law states that a lab with moderately complex or highly complex testing must have written policies and procedures for specimen collection and labeling?

A) OSHA

B) EPA

C) FDA

D) CLIA

D) CLIA

98

Under which of the following concepts are the supervisors and directors of laboratories held liable for the negligent actions of their employees?

A) res ispa loquitur

B) misrepresentation

C) malice

D) respondeat superior

D) respondeat superior

99

Which of the following is the best example of setting the standard of care for blood collection?

A) Texas Association for Clinical Laboratory Sciences

B) Southwest Regional Phlebotomists' Association

C) California Clinical Laboratory Association

D) The Joint Commission

D) The Joint Commission

100

Which of the following legal concepts refers to the voluntary permission by a patient to allow touching, examination, and/or treatment by health care providers?

A) informed consent

B) assault and battery

C) battery

D) implied consent

A) informed consent

101

Which of the following has recognized rights for patients in health care organizations through "The Patient Care Partnership"?

A) AHA

B) CLIA

C) CDC

D) OSHA

A) AHA

102

Professionals negligence in blood collection is the same as:

A) malpractice

B) informed consent

C) implied consent

D) malice

A) malpractice

103

A patient's medical record can best be described as:

A) the procedure for a selected care plan

B) a legal document that provides a chronological log of care

C) a legal document that is available only to the patients physician

D) public information that may be disclosed during a financial inquiry

B) a legal document that provides a chronological log of care

104

The Joint Commission is a(an):

A) proficiency testing agency

B) agency that administers certifications

C) accrediting agency for health care facilities

D) governmental agency that administers Medicare

C) accrediting agency for health care facilities

105

Which of the following terms refers to the speed and urgency of one's voice?

A) tone

B) STAT

C) volume

D) pace

D) pace

106

Which of the following terms refers to the intonation or pitch of one's voice?

A) STAT

B) volume

C) pace

D) tone

D) tone

107

What does the abbreviation ADA stand for?

A) Americans with Disabilities Act

B) American Diabetic Association

C) Association for Diagnostic Antibiotics

D) Association for Drug Assays

A) Americans with Disabilities Act

108

The space or distance between people during an interaction is called:

A) safety zone

B) area of definition

C) zone of comfort

D) range of motion

C) zone of comfort

109

For most personal interactions among friends and many patients encounters, the most comfortable distance between the individuals is:

A) 4 feet to 12 feet

B) more than 12 feet

C) less than 12 inches

D) 18 inches to 4 feet

D) 18 inches to 4 feet

110

What are "delta checks"?

A) manual recording system for laboratory

B) QC that allows for detection of significant changes in laboratory results

C) competency checklists

D) QA methodology that allows for the monitoring of mislabeled specimens

B) QC that allows for detection of significant changes in laboratory results

111

The term phlebotomy is derived from Greek words that mean:

A) vein, cut

B) droplet, vein

C) red, blood

D) blood, droplet

A) vein, cut

112

The terms venesection/venisection are sysnonymous with (the same as) which of the following?

A) blood vein

B) venous circulation

C) topside of a vein

D) phlebotomy

D) phlebotomy

113

Acute care refers to which type of hospital care?

A) short-term stay

B) long-term stay

C) nursing home

D) hospice

A) short-term stay

114

Which of the following specialties would relate to diagnosis and treatment of cancer?

A) orthopedics

B) oncology

C) infectious

D) dermatology

B) oncology

115

Assessing a patient for a suitable vein to perform a venipuncture procedure is an example of which phase of laboratory testing?

A) notification/reporting

B) postexamination/preanalytical

C) examination/analytical

D) preexamination/preanalytical

D) preexamination/preanalytical

116

Centrifugation of a blood specimen is an example of which phase of laboratory testing?

A) preexamination/preanalytical

B) notification/reporting

C) examination/analytical

D) postexamination/postanalytical

A) preexamination/preanalytical

117

Performing a laboratory assay on a patient's blood specimen is an example of which phase of laboratory testing?

A) postexamination/postanalytical

B) notification/reporting

C) examination/analytical

D) preexamination/preanalytical

C) examination/analytical

118

In which circumstances below is the phlebotomist likely to collaborate with the pharmacy?

A) when the patient is overly angry or agitated

B) when asked to collect specimens for drug monitoring

C) when looking for a suitable vein for the venipuncture procedure

D) when a patient requests a painkiller

B) when asked to collect specimens for drug monitoring

119

Which of the following is a test of moderate complexity?

A) mononucleosis test

B) occult blood detection

C) urine pregnancy test

D) blood chemistries

D) blood chemistries

120

Among health care organizations, which of the following is a typical long-term care facility?

A) health and fitness club

B) nursing home

C) county hospital

D) emergency care center

B) nursing home

121

Licensure typically refers to:

A) joining a professional organization

B) maintaining all immunizations up to date

C) passing a state-required examination and/or continuing education

D) providing up-to-date income tax records

B) maintaining all immunizations up to date

122

The term right to know refers to:

A) a patients right to information about test procedures and who is performing them

B) accountability of the phlebotomist to know details of every clinical test

C) keeping the patients condition confidential while outside the health care organization

D) allowing employers to know personal details of each employee

A) a patients right to information about test procedures and who is performing them

123

Which of the following is an important work-related characteristic that is helpful for phlebotomists?

A) a keen sense of direction

B) involvement in community

C) enjoying work with small objects

D) being very athletic

C) enjoying work with small objects

124

Which of the following is acceptable attire for a phlebotomist?

A) fragrances and perfumes

B) long, polished fingernails

C) necklace tucked inside a collar

D) dangling earrings

C) necklace tucked inside a collar

125

When blood is removed from the body, the blood clots and the liquid is called what?

serum

126

The instrument used to speed the removal of serum by spinning the blood is called what?

centrifuge

127

Before performing a venipuncture, a pair of clean gloves should be put on in the presence of a patient because?

it is reassuring safety-conscious gesture for both the patient and the worker.

128

What position refers to laying face up on your back?

supine

129

To avoid-clotting in the blood collection tube, it is extremely important that the blood collected in the purple-topped tube be?

gently inverted a minimum of eight times

130

The blood pH range of the normal body is

7.35-7.45

131

Serum should be transported to the lab for testing and separated from the blood

within 2 hours

132

Liquid makes up what percent of total volume of the blood?

55%

133

A person who has too little hemoglobin or a decreased number of red blood cells in know to be what?

anemic

134

The blood cells begin their formation where?

lymph nodes and bone marrow

135

If phlebotomists collects blood in the neonatology department, the patient is likely what age?

hours to a few days old

136

The iron containing pigment of the red blood cells is called what?

hemoglobin

137

Once they enter the bloodstream, mature red blood cells live for how long?

120 days

138

How many liters of blood does the body contain?

5 literss

139

The study of nature and cause of diseases is known as what?

pathology

140

What is a specially labeled puncture-resistant container for the disposal of needles, scalpels, and syringes is called?

sharps container

141

If blood pressure is 120/80, the 120 is the what?

systolic

142

A chemical substance that prevents the blood from clotting is called what?

anticoagulant

143

What is the steady-state condition?

homeostasis

144

Handwritten information cannot be converted into what?

bar code symbols

145

What is interstitial fluid?

tissue fluid

146

After a finger stick is performed, the phlebotomist should do what?

wipe away the first drop of blood with a guage

147

What is the best angle for spreading a blood smear is by using two glass slides at what angle?

30 degrees

148

Skin punctures are often used for what?

white blood cell differentials

149

During a skin puncture procedure, the cut should be where?

across the fingerprint lines

150

In most cases, blood collected to determine medication levels should be collected when?

just prior to the next dose of medication to be given

151

In relations to veins, what does the term occluded mean?

obstructed

152

Which finger has a pulse?

thumb

153

The last step in any phlebotomy procedure, including skin puncture is what?

checking that the bleeding has stopped and thanking the patient for cooperating

154

What is the best way to decontaminate a phlebotomists hands if they are visibly dirty with dust and dirt?

wash hands with soap and water

155

Alcohol should be allowed for dry for how long before the venipuncture?

30-60 seconds

156

The best angle for inserting a needle into the skin during venipuncture is what?

15-30 degrees

157

During the procedure, the phlebotomist releases the tourniquet when?

after the needle is inserted and the blood begins to flow

158

The term butterfly refers to what?

winged fusion set

159

During the venipuncture procedure, the needle should be inserted what side up?

bevel

160

Blood and urine specimens for microbiological culture should be transported to the lab when?

quickly to improve the likelihood of detecting pathogens

161

How long does it take normal blood to clot?

30 to 60 minutes

162

What is not used in phlebotomy applications are not used to denote patient arm preference?

bar codes

163

What is the preferred anticoagulant for the collection of whole blood for STAT situation in clinical chemistry is what?

heparin

164

What topped tube is used for whole blood collection?

purple-topped tube

165

Which blood collection tube contains SPS (sodium polyanetholesulfonate) as the additive?

yellow-topped tube

166

How many times should a blood specimen be centrifuged if it has a separation device?

once

167

What should you use to chill a blood specimen as it is transported?

icy water