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1

Which of the following statements about fluid movement is NOT correct?

A. Exchange between interstitial fluid and intracellular fluid occurs across the plasma membrane.

B. Under normal circumstances, lymph vessels help maintain fluid balance, especially between the plasma and the interstitial fluid.

C. Exchange between the plasma and the intracellular fluid occurs across the cell membrane.

D. Exchanges between plasma and interstitial fluid happen between capillary walls.

C

2

In which compartment of the body is the majority of water stored?

A. intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment

B. plasma

C. extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment

D. interstitial fluid (IF)

A

3

What percentage of extracellular fluid is accounted for by interstitial fluid and plasma?

A. 20%

B. 40%

C. 80%

D. 100%

D

4

If the osmotic pressure of the blood were increased above normal levels, which of the following volumes would also increase?

A. intracellular fluid volume

B. interstitial fluid volume

C. total body water

D. blood volume

D

5

What is the most common cation found in the interstitial fluid?

A. K+

B. Na+

C. HPO42-

D. Cl-

B

6

What is the most abundant intracellular cation?

A. K+

B. HPO42-

C. Na+

D. Cl-

A

7

What is, overall, the LEAST abundant ion, including all three compartments?

A. Ca2+

B. Cl-

C. K+

D. Na+

A

8

_____ Dissociate into ions in water.

A. Electrolytes

B. Nonelectrolytes

C. Extracellular

D. Intracellular

E. Interstitial

A

9

_____ Do not dissociate in solution.

A. Electrolytes

B. Nonelectrolytes

C. Extracellular

D. Intracellular

E. Interstitial

B

10

_____The main fluid compartment outside the cells.

A. Electrolytes

B. Nonelectrolytes

C. Extracellular

D. Intracellular

E. Interstitial

C

11

_____ The main fluid compartment located within the cell.

A. Electrolytes

B. Nonelectrolytes

C. Extracellular

D. Intracellular

E. Interstitial

D

12

_____ Fluid in the spaces between cells.

A. Electrolytes

B. Nonelectrolytes

C. Extracellular

D. Intracellular

E. Interstitial

E

13

Which of the following describes the distribution of sodium and potassium between cells and body fluids?

A. K+ mainly in the cells, Na+ in the body fluids

B. Na+ mainly in the cells, K+ in the body fluids

C. little of either in the cells, but large amounts of each in the body fluids

D. equal amounts of each ion in the cells and body fluids

A

14

For bulk flow across capillary walls, ________.

A. fluid runs into lymphatic capillaries that empty into the interstitial space

B. hydrostatic pressure of blood forces nearly protein-free plasma out of the blood into the interstitial space

C. osmotic pressure in the interstitial space returns fluid to the capillary

D. osmotic pressure of plasma proteins pulls fluid from the capillary into the interstitial space

B

15

The most important force causing net outward water flow across capillary walls is ________.

A. hydrostatic pressure of interstitial fluid

B. intracellular hydrostatic pressure

C. hydrostatic pressure of capillary blood

D. osmotic pressure of plasma proteins

C

16

What accounts for the route through which most fluid is lost in a day?

A. urine

B. insensible loss through skin and lungs

C. sweat

D. feces

A

17

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding water intake and output by the body?

A. The proportion of fluid lost by the body as sweat would increase during exercise.

B. An increase in the amount of beverages taken by mouth would increase the urine output.

C. An increase in fluid taken by mouth would reduce the amount produced by metabolism.

D. An irritation to the colon that leads to diarrhea would increase the proportion of water lost through feces.

C

18

Which of the following is NOT involved in triggering the thirst mechanism?

A. detection of increased osmolality by osmoreceptors

B. dry mouth

C. increase in blood pressure

D. decrease in blood volume

C

19

Where are signs of change in osmolality, stomach stretch, and thirst monitored?

A. in the adrenal glands

B. in the hypothalamus

C. in the stomach and intestines

D. in the kidneys

B

20

What hormone helps to maintain correct extracellular fluid (ECF) osmolality when concentrations become too high?

A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

B. parathyroid hormone (PTH)

C. aldosterone

D. angiotensin II

A

21

What type of water imbalance increases the amount of fluid in all compartments?

A. hypotonic hydration

B. edema

C. inflammation

D. dehydration

A

22

The role of ADH is to __________.

A. decrease water reabsorption

B. produce dilute urine

C. lower blood pressure

D. increase water reabsorption

D

23

ADH secretion can be stimulated by either blood osmolarity changes or blood pressure changes in the heart or large vessels.

True

False

True

24

Which of the following hormones functions to increase water reabsorption by inserting aquaporins into the principal cell apical membranes?

A. aldosterone

B. progesterone

C. atrial natriuretic peptide

D. antidiuretic hormone

D

25

When antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels are low ________.

A. nearly all of the filtered water is reabsorbed

B. a small volume of concentrated urine is excreted

C. most of the water reaching the collecting ducts is not reabsorbed

D. aquaporins are inserted into the principal cell apical membranes

C

26

The term hypotonic hydration refers to ________.

A. the feeling one might have after profuse sweating with exertion

B. a condition that is caused by high levels of sodium in the extracellular fluid compartment

C. a condition that may result from renal insufficiency or drinking extraordinary amounts of water

D. the unpleasant feeling people have after drinking too much liquor

C

27

Which of the following is NOT a hormone involved in water and electrolyte balance?

A. aldosterone

B. thyroxine

C. atrial natriuretic peptide

D. ADH

B

28

What would be an appropriate concentration of intravenous (IV) saline to give a patient suffering from severe water intoxication?

A. 0.01%

B. 3.00%

C. 0.45%

D. 0.90%

B

29

Which of the following would NOT be associated with a rise in K+ concentration in the extracellular fluid (ECF)?

A. a rise in K+ excretion

B. release of aldosterone

C. stimulation of the adrenal cortex

D. a drop in Na+ reabsorption

D

30

What is the most important trigger for aldosterone release?

A. renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism

B. increased osmolality of the extracellular fluids (ECF)

C. decreased sodium ion concentration in the extracellular fluids (ECF)

D. decreased K+ concentration in the extracellular fluids (ECF)

A

31

What results from increased levels of aldosterone?

A. decreased Na+ reabsorption

B. increased Na+ reabsorption

C. increased K+ reabsorption

D. increased Ca2+ reabsorption

B

32

Which of the following is NOT an effect of PTH?

A. to activate osteoclasts

B. promotes activation of vitamin D by the kidneys

C. to decrease Ca+ absorption in the gut

D. increase Ca2+ reabsorption in the kidneys

C

33

Which of the following abnormalities would not be observed in a patient who has Addison's disease?

A. elevated plasma potassium level

B. hypertension

C. hyponatremia

D. decreased plasma chloride level

B

34

Which of the following is the only logical explanation for why hypocalcemia increases neuromuscular excitability and causes muscle tetany?

A. Low plasma calcium ion concentration decreases the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

B. Low plasma calcium ion concentration decreases the rate of exocytosis of synaptic vesicles.

C. Low plasma calcium ion concentration increases the permeability of neuron membranes to sodium ions, thereby causing depolarization that in turn increases the likelihood of action potentials being generated.

D. Low plasma calcium ion concentration increases the likelihood of acetic acid and choline being formed in the synaptic cleft when a neuron is stimulated to the threshold level.

C

35

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is a hormone that is made in the atria of the heart. The influence of this hormone is to ________.

A. enhance atrial contractions

B. reduce blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting sodium and water retention

C. activate the renin-angiotensin mechanism

D. prevent pH changes caused by organic acids

B

36

The single most important factor influencing potassium ion secretion is ________.

A. potassium ion concentration in extracellular fluid

B. intracellular sodium levels

C. the pH of the intracellular fluid

D. the potassium ion content in the renal tubule cells

A

37

Insufficient parathyroid hormone production in the body could result in ________.

A. increased ECF osmolality

B. kidney stones

C. muscle weakness

D. muscle twitching

D

38

Hypersecretion of aldosterone results in hypokalemia, which causes hyperpolarization of neurons; this in turn results in ______.

A. increased speed of sodium-potassium pump activity in order to compensate for the reduced concentration of potassium ions

B. decreased plasma membrane permeability to potassium ions

C. the need for a stronger than normal stimulus in order to trigger an action potential

D. a craving for more salt in the diet

C

39

______= Sodium depletion.

A. Hypermagnesemia

B. Hypocalcemia

C. Hyponatremia

D. Hyperkalemia

E. Hypernatremia

C

40

_____=Calcium depletion.

A. Hypermagnesemia

B. Hypocalcemia

C. Hyponatremia

D. Hyperkalemia

E. Hypernatremia

B

41

_____= Magnesium excess.

A. Hypermagnesemia

B. Hypocalcemia

C. Hyponatremia

D. Hyperkalemia

E. Hypernatremia

A

42

_____= Sodium excess

A. Hypermagnesemia

B. Hypocalcemia

C. Hyponatremia

D. Hyperkalemia

E. Hypernatremia

E

43

_____=Potassium excess

A. Hypermagnesemia

B. Hypocalcemia

C. Hyponatremia

D. Hyperkalemia

E. Hypernatremia

D

44

An atypical accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space.

A. Hyponatremia

B. Addison’s disease

C. Edema

D. Aldosterone

E. Dehydration

C

45

Fluid loss, either the loss of water or the loss of water and solutes together.

A. Hyponatremia

B. Addison’s disease

C. Edema

D. Aldosterone

E. Dehydration

E

46

A disorder entailing deficient aldosterone production by the adrenal cortex.

A. Hyponatremia

B. Addison’s disease

C. Edema

D. Aldosterone

E. Dehydration

B

47

Regulates sodium ion concentrations in the extracellular fluid.

A. Hyponatremia

B. Addison’s disease

C. Edema

D. Aldosterone

E. Dehydration

D

48

A condition due to excessive water intake that results in net osmosis into tissue cells. This leads to severe metabolic disturbances.

A. Hyponatremia

B. Addison’s disease

C. Edema

D. Aldosterone

E. Dehydration

A

49

Carotid artery and aortic baroreceptors are involved in long term adjustment to total body sodium ion content.

True

False

True

50

The term alkaline reserve is used to describe the ________ buffer system.

A. hemoglobin

B. bicarbonate

C. phosphate

D. protein

B

51

What hormone reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and sodium ion and water retention?

A. aldosterone

B. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

C. atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

D. thyroxine

C

52

Which of the following is NOT a trigger for juxtaglomerular granular cells to release renin?

A. sympathetic stimulation

B. decreased stretch of the granular cells of the afferent arterioles

C. increased extracellular fluid water levels

D. decreased filtrate NaCl concentration

C

53

The normal pH of blood is 7.35-7.45.

True

False

True

54

Most acidic substances (hydrogen ions) originate as by-products of cellular metabolism.

True

False

True

55

The most important renal mechanism for regulating acid-base balance of the blood involves __________.

A. maintaining water balance

B. maintaining CO2 balance

C. maintaining phosphate balance

D. maintaining HCO3- balance

D

56

Which organs are the long-term acid-base regulatory organs?

A. kidneys

B. GI tract organs

C. lungs

D. cardiovascular organs

A

57

Of the three buffering mechanisms in the body, which is the strongest?

A. respiratory system

B. chemical buffer system

C. renal system

C

58

The bicarbonate buffer system is one of the chemical buffer systems of the body. How would the bicarbonate buffer system work if sodium hydroxide were added to a solution?

A. A hydrogen on carbonic acid would dissociate and join the hydroxyl group on the base to form water and sodium bicarbonate.

B. The hydrogen ion would attach to carbonic acid.

C. The hydrogen ion would attach to bicarbonate (HCO3) to form carbonic acid (H2CO3).

A

59

The respiratory system is one of the three systems that regulate acid-base balance in the body. How does it work to decrease an acidosis?

A. Carbonic acid converts a strong acid to a weak acid, thus decreasing acidity.

B. Carbonic acid is converted to bicarbonate and hydrogen ions.

C. Carbonic acid is converted to bicarbonate, which then buffers the acid.

D. Carbonic acid is broken down into water and CO2; the CO2 is then exhaled.

D

60

In a respiratory acidosis the kidney would do which of the following?

A. The kidney would increase excretion of both bicarbonate and hydrogen ions.

B. The kidney would reabsorb bicarbonate and secrete hydrogen ions.

C. The kidney will reabsorb both bicarbonate and hydrogen ions. When it reabsorbs the hydrogen ion, it also generates more bicarbonate ions.

B

61

Ingesting too much antiacid would cause which of the following acid-base disturbances?

A. metabolic alkalosis

B. metabolic acidosis

C. respiratory acidosis

D. respiratory alkalosis

A

62

Vomiting will cause which type of acid-base disturbance?

A. metabolic acidosis

B. respiratory alkalosis

C. respiratory acidosis

D. metabolic alkalosis

D

63

Severe anxiety would cause which type of acid-base disturbance? What would be the compensation?

A. respiratory alkalosis; kidneys would retain HCO3

B. respiratory acidosis; kidneys would excrete HCO3

C. metabolic alkalosis; hypoventilation by the lungs

D. respiratory alkalosis; kidneys would excrete HCO3

D

64

What negatively charged ion is reabsorbed by renal tubules when the blood pH is drawing near its alkaline limit?

A. HCO3-

B. NO2-

C. Cl-

D. PO4-3

C

65

A patient's anxiety caused her to develop respiratory alkalosis. What breathing technique did the nurse recommend, and why?

A. The nurse instructed the patient to breathe slower and deeper, and to breathe into a paper bag. This will increase the patient's blood level of carbon dioxide by eliminating less carbon dioxide from the lungs, and by breathing in the expired air which has a higher concentration of carbon dioxide. As a result, the blood pH will decrease.

B. The nurse instructed the patient to breathe faster and deeper. This will decrease the patient's blood levels of carbon dioxide by eliminating more carbon dioxide from the lungs, resulting in a decrease in the blood pH.

C. The nurse instructed the patient to breathe faster and deeper. This will increase the patient's blood levels of carbon dioxide by eliminating less carbon dioxide from the lungs, resulting in a decrease in the blood pH.

D. The nurse instructed the patient to breathe more shallowly. This will decrease the patient's blood levels of carbon dioxide by eliminating more carbon dioxide from the lungs, resulting in a decrease in the blood pH.

A

66

Possibly occurring with emphysema, extreme obesity, or narcotic overdose.

A. Respiratory acidosis

B. Respiratory alkalosis

C. Metabolic acidosis

D. Metabolic alkalosis

A

67

Possibly caused by vomiting, use of diuretics, or use of antacids.

A. Respiratory acidosis

B. Respiratory alkalosis

C. Metabolic acidosis

D. Metabolic alkalosis

D

68

Possibly caused by severe diarrhea or untreated diabetes mellitus.

A. Respiratory acidosis

B. Respiratory alkalosis

C. Metabolic acidosis

D. Metabolic alkalosis

C

69

Possibly caused by asthma, pneumonia, or a severe panic attack.

A. Respiratory acidosis

B. Respiratory alkalosis

C. Metabolic acidosis

D. Metabolic alkalosis

B

70

Which acid-base imbalance would be caused by overaccumulation of CO2 in the blood?

A. respiratory acidosis

B. respiratory alkalosis

C. metabolic alkalosis

D. metabolic acidosis

A

71

A falling blood pH and a rising partial pressure of carbon dioxide due to pneumonia or emphysema indicates ________.

A. respiratory alkalosis

B. metabolic alkalosis

C. respiratory acidosis

D. metabolic acidosis

C

72

An illness causes Doug to experience severe diarrhea and an accompanying loss of bicarbonate-rich secretions. How can this metabolic acidosis be compensated?

A. increased respiratory rate and depth

B. enhanced sodium ion loss in urine

C. hypoventilation

D. increased renin secretion

A

73

What is the effect of hypoventilation on pH?

A. respiratory alkalosis

B. respiratory acidosis

C. metabolic alkalosis

D. metabolic acidosis

B

74

A major stimulus for the release of antidiuretic hormone is

A. a rise in plasma osmolality

B. inhibition of the osmoreceptors

C. stimulation of the baroreceptors

D. an increase in ECF water concentration

E. an increase in potassium levels in the ICF

A

75

The most important buffer system in the intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) is the

A. bicarbonate buffer system

B. chloride buffer system

C. sulfate buffer system

D. phosphate buffer system

E. protein buffer system

E

76

Match the following condition with its possible cause and/or consequence: Hyponatremia

A. When water output exceeds intake over a period of time

B. Promotes net osmosis into tissue cells, causing them to swell as they become abnormally hydrated

C. An atypical fluid accumulation in the interstitial space, leading to tissue swelling

B

77

Match the electrolyte balance term with its correct characteristic: Aldosterone.

A. A condition that results from water intoxication

B. The hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels

C. An excess amount of potassium in the ECF

D. Vitamin D deficiency can be a cause

B

78

A major stimulus for the release of antidiuretic hormone is __________.

A. inhibition of the osmoreceptors

B. a rise in plasma osmolality

C. stimulation of the baroreceptors

D. an increase in ECF water concentration

E. an increase in potassium levels in the ICF

B

79

Acidosis results in increasing levels of what ion?

A. phosphorus

B. calcium

C. sodium

D. chloride

E. hydrogen

E

80

What is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid?

A. potassium

B. calcium

C. magnesium

D. bicarbonate

E. sodium

A

81

Normal arterial blood pH is __________.

A. neutral

B. slightly alkaline

C. highly acidic

D. strongly alkaline

E. slightly acidic

B

82

Parathyroid hormone __________.

A. results in a lower blood calcium level

B. targets the thyroid gland

C. is released when aldosterone levels climb

D. activates osteoblasts

E. enhances release of calcium from bone

E

83

The condition in which sodium levels are too low is referred to as __________.

A. hypokalemia

B. hypernatremia

C. hyponatremia

D. aldosteronism

E. Cushing’s syndrome

C

84

The largest percentage of body water is located in what compartment?

A. intracellular fluid

B. interstitial fluid

C. extracellular fluid

D. blood plasma

A

85

The major source of water loss from the body is __________.

A. urine

B. insensible respiratory loss

C. feces

D. sweat

E. insensible skin loss

A

86

The most prevalent electrolyte in the extracellular fluid is __________.

A. sodium

B. potassium

C. magnesium

D. chloride

E. calcium

F. phosphate

A

87

The only organ(s) of the body that can remove excess nonvolatile fixed acids is/are the __________.

A. liver

B. kidney

C. spleen

D. sweat glands

E. lungs

B

88

When the concentration of Na+ in the ECF decreases, __________.

A. ANP levels increase

B. aldosterone levels increase

C. more ADH is released

D. a person experiences increased thirst

E. osmoreceptors are stimulated

B

89

Which condition would cause a drop in pH?

A. hypernatremia

B. hypokalemia

C. hyperventilation

D. hypoventilation

D

90

Which statement about acids is true?

A. Most acid is a result of ingestion with food.

B. Weak acids only dissociate partially in solution.

C. When high in the body, they cause alkalosis.

D. They have little physiological effect on chemical reactions in cells.

E. Our bodies have few ways to deal with excess amounts of acids.

B

91

The only cation exerting significant osmotic pressure in the ECF is __________.

A. Ca2+

B. Mg2+

C. Fe2+

D. Na+

E. K+

D

92

The most important buffer system in the intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) is the __________ buffer system.

A. phosphate

B. protein

C. bicarbonate

D. chloride

E. sulfate

B

93

Infants are more likely to experience problems regulating acid-base balance because of several factors, including __________.

A. low rate of insensible water loss from skin

B. lower amount of fluid intake and output in infants

C. high residual volume of infant lungs

D. the inefficiency of infant kidneys

E. decreased surface area relative to body volume

D

94

Which of the following tissues is the least hydrated?

A. bone

B. muscle tissue

C. adipose tissue

D. nervous tissue

C

95

Which of the following individuals would have the most body water?

A. a healthy young female

B. an infant

C. a healthy young male

D. an older obese person

B

96

When atrial natriuretic peptide is released by the heart because of increased blood pressure, it causes __________.

A. decreased sodium and water reabsorption

B. vasoconstriction

C. increased antidiuretic-hormone secretion

D. increased renin secretion

A

97

Water lost through expired air is referred to as __________.

A. insensible water loss

B. water of oxidation

C. metabolic water

D. water intake

A

98

All of the following would occur if there were an increase in plasma osmolality EXCEPT __________.

A. release of ADH

B. production of large amounts of urine

C. thirst

D. concentrated urine

B

99

All of the following factors would stimulate the hypothalamic thirst center EXCEPT __________.

A. hypotonic extracellular fluid

B. increased angiotensin II secretion

C. a decline in blood volume

D. decreased saliva production

A

100

Diuresis peaks __________ after drinking water.

A. ten minutes

B. half an hour

C. one hour

D. three hours

C

101

Edema is the accumulation of fluid in the __________.

A. intracellular space

B. plasma

C. interstitial space

D. organelles

C

102

Pica, the desire to consume substances that are not normally considered food, such as chalk or clay, may be triggered by a deficiency of __________.

A. water

B. sodium

C. calcium

D. iron

D

103

Electrolyte balance in the body usually refers to the balance of __________.

A. lipids

B. proteins

C. carbohydrates

D. salts

D

104

The most important buffer system of extracellular fluid, such as plasma, is the __________ buffer system.

A. hemoglobin

B. protein

C. phosphate

D. bicarbonate

D

105

Renal acid-base control mechanisms are coupled to __________.

A. Na+ transport

B. ADH secretion

C. plasma protein levels

D. water intake

A

106

Estrogens are chemically similar to __________ and are therefore associated with water retention.

A. ANP

B. Rennin

C. ADH

D. Aldosterone

D

107

Any arterial pH between __________ is considered physiological acidosis.

A. 6.5 and 7.0

B. 6.5 and 7.35

C. 7.0 and 7.35

D. 7.35 and 7.45

C

108

Most fluid in the body is in the extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment.

Tue

False

False

109

Which of the following is NOT an electrolyte?

A. glucose

B. potassium

C. chloride

D. sodium

A

110

The most abundant cation in extracellular fluid is potassium.

True

False

False

111

Most water is excreted via the __________.

A. skin

B. lungs

C. kidneys

D. intestines

C

112

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) acts on the __________ to __________ water excretion.

A. intestines; decrease

B. intestines; increase

C. kidneys; increase

D. kidneys; decrease

D

113

Which of the following is associated with a swelling of cells?

A. hypotonic hydration

B. dehydration

C. edema

D. hypoproteinemia

A

114

Which of the following would increase sodium excretion?

A. aldosterone

B. progesterone

C. glucocorticoids

D. estrogens

B

115

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases Ca2+ deposition in the bones.

True

False

False

116

Most of the hydrogen ions in the body come from acidic substances in the foods we ingest.

True

False

False

117

The most important factor that influences K+ secretion is __________.

A. water balance in the body

B. the level of aldosterone in the plasma

C. the concentration of K+ in the ECF

D. the concentration of Na+ in blood plasma

C

118

Which of the following has the LEAST influence over the pH of blood plasma?

A. the phosphate buffer system

B. respiratory rate

C. the bicarbonate buffer system

D. the protein buffer system

A

119

Hyperventilation can lead to __________.

A. respiratory acidosis

B. metabolic acidosis

C. respiratory alkalosis

D. metabolic alkalosis

C

120

One way the kidneys maintain HCO3– balance is by __________.

A. generating Na+ ions

B. generating new HCO3–

C. reabsorbing CO2

D. reabsorbing H+

B

121

Someone who is suffocating would develop __________.

A. respiratory alkalosis

B. respiratory acidosis

C. metabolic alkalosis

D. metabolic acidosis

B

122

Which of the following puts infants at increased risk for dehydration?

A. their low surface area to volume ratio

B. their inefficient kidneys

C. their high residual lung volume

D. their low metabolic rate

B

123

Which of the following is the site where sperm are stored until they are ejaculated?

A. tail of the epididymis

B. seminiferous tubule

C. body of the epididymis

D. rete testis

A

124

Which of the following is/are contained within the spermatic cord?

A. testicular arteries and veins

B. seminiferous tubules

C. epididymis

D. rete testis

A

125

Sperm is produced in the __________.

A. ejaculatory duct

B. seminiferous tubules

C. epididymis

D. ductus deferens

B

126

The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Which of the following is true about the role they play?

A. They contract to push sperm along the ductus deferens.

B. They are responsible for penile erection.

C. They contract to allow ejaculation.

D. They regulate the temperature of the testes.

D

127

The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called ________.

A. spermatocytes

B. interstitial endocrine cells

C. spermatogonia

D. sustenocytes

B

128

Which portion of the penis is removed during circumcision?

A. glans penis

B. prepuce (foreskin)

C. bulb of the penis

D. crus of the penis

B

129

Which of these male accessory ducts transports both sperm cells and urine?

A. ejaculatory duct

B. ductus (vas) deferens

C. epididymis

D. urethra

D

130

Which of these does NOT empty materials into the area of the prostatic urethra?

A. ductus (vas) deferens

B. prostate

C. bulbo-urethral gland

D. seminal gland

C

131

The duct system of the male reproductive system does not include the ________.

A. urethra

B. ductus deferens

C. epididymis

D. corpus spongiosum

D

132

Which gland is NOT matched with its type of secretion?

A. urethra: clear, viscous mucus that neutralizes urine

B. bulbourethral glands: lubricating secretion

C. seminal vesicles: 70% of seminal volume

D. prostate gland: milky, acidic semen

A

133

Which of the following glands are responsible for about 70% of the volume of semen?

A. the bulbo-urethral glands

B. the prostate

C. the pituitary

D. the seminal glands

D

134

Erection of the penis results from ________.

A. a parasympathetic reflex

B. a sympathetic reflex

C. parasympathetic activation of the bulbo-urethral glands

D. dilation of the veins in the penis

A

135

Why doesn't semen enter the urinary bladder during ejaculation?

A. The smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closes.

B. Ejaculation is a parasympathetic reflex resulting in no response by urinary contraction muscles.

C. There is no common duct between the reproductive system and the urinary system.

D. There is no urge to urinate during sexual intercourse because of the suppression of LH by testosterone buildup in the blood.

A

136

What is the function of meiosis?

A. to produce four cells, each with identical chromosomes

B. to produce cells with double the chromosome number of the original cell

C. to produce genetically identical cells through the two nuclear divisions

D. to produce cells with half the chromosome number of the original spermatogonium or oogonium

D

137

At what point during meiosis do homologous chromosomes pair up?

A. anaphase I

B. prophase I

C. prophase II

D. metaphase I

B

138

Which of the following cells remains at the basal lamina to continue the pool of dividing germ cells?

A. type A daughter cells

B. type B daughter cells

C. primary spermatocytes

D. secondary spermatocytes

A

139

Meiosis starts with a single diploid cell and produces

A. eight haploid cells.

B. four haploid cells.

C. four diploid cells.

D. two haploid cells.

E. two diploid cells.

B

140

A cell preparing to undergo meiosis duplicates its chromosomes during

A. interphase.

B. metaphase I.

C. meiosis II.

D. anaphase I.

E. prophase I.

A

141

During prophase I of meiosis,

A. the homologous chromosomes separate and move towards opposite poles.

B. chromosome pairs are positioned in the middle of the cell.

C. there are two daughter cells, each with 23 chromosomes.

D. homologous chromosomes stick together in pairs.

E. there are four haploid daughter cells.

D

142

The correct order of events during meiosis is

A. metaphase I, prophase I, telophase I, anaphase I, cytokinesis, meiosis II.

B. metaphase I, prophase I, anaphase I, telophase I, cytokinesis, meiosis II.

C. prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, telophase I, cytokinesis, meiosis II.

D. prophase I, anaphase I, metaphase I, telophase I, meiosis II, cytokinesis. E. prophase I, anaphase I, telophase I, metaphase I, meiosis II.

C

143

During meiosis, segments of nonsister chromatids can trade places. This recombination of maternal and paternal genetic material is a key feature of meiosis. During what phase of meiosis does recombination occur?

A. anaphase I.

B. meiosis II.

C. prophase I.

D. telophase I.

E. Metaphase I.

C

144

The number of chromosomes in a human gamete is __________; this is referred to as a __________ chromosome number.

A. 23; haploid

B. 23; diploid

C. 46; haploid

D.46; diploid

A

145

All of the following things occur during meiosis I with the exception of one thing. Select the statement below that does not occur during meiosis I.

A. The sister chromatids are separated from each other.

B. The homologous chromosomes are separated from each other.

C. Portions of maternal chromosomes crossover with equivalent portions of paternal chromosomes.

D. A single diploid (2n) cell has become two haploid (n) cells.

A

146

During spermiogenesis ________.

A. the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its pointy shape helps the sperm to move more efficiently

B. the acrosome migrates towards the posterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic enzymes will be needed for digestion of the excessive cytoplasm around the flagella of the developing sperm

C. the acrosome migrates towards the posterior end of the spermatid because of its ability to propel the flagella moving the sperm through the female reproductive system towards the egg

D. the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic enzymes will be needed for penetration when the sperm contacts the egg during fertilization

D

147

All but one of the events described below occur during spermiogenesis. Select the event that does not occur during spermiogenesis.

A. Excessive cytoplasm will be shed to reduce unneeded mass of the maturing sperm.

B. Mitochondria form around the proximal end of the flagellum. They will provide the ATP to drive the motion of the flagellum.

C. The centrioles migrate to the posterior end of the developing sperm to form the microtubules that make up the flagellum.

D. Mitochondrial DNA is packaged into the nucleus to be delivered to the egg during fertilization.

D

148

All but one of the following statements describes the necessity of the blood testis barrier. Select the one statement that does not describe a necessity of the blood testis barrier.

A. Spermatocytes undergo meiosis only during puberty, well after the immune system has come to recognize "self" from "non-self" cells.

B. Sperm can only be produced at temperatures lower than body temperature. Inflammation in the testis could raise the temperature too high to produce sperm.

C. Foreign antigens produced by the newly formed sperm could initiate an autoimmune response against the developing sperm.

D. Spermatogenesis produces new combinations of genes and chromosomes that results in unique antigens that the immune system may see as foreign.

B

149

If gametes were diploid like somatic cells, how many chromosomes would the zygote contain?

A. half the diploid number with no change in development

B. twice the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to double and normal development could not occur

C. triple the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to triple and normal development would not occur

D. There is no relationship between gametes and somatic cells.

B

150

Which of the following reduces circulating blood levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) when the sperm count is high?

A. luteinizing hormone (LH)

B. androgen-binding protein (ABP)

C. inhibin

D. estradiol

C

151

What is the testicular target for follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)?

A. sustentocytes (Sertoli cells)

B. spermatogonia

C. interstitial endocrine cells (Leydig cells)

D. spermatozoa

A

152

Which hormone promotes the formation of secondary sex characteristics such as the appearance of pubic, axillary, and facial hair; enhanced hair growth on the chest; and a deepening voice?

A. testosterone

B. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

C. luteinizing hormone (LH)

D. gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

A

153

Which of the following would most directly interfere with sperm production?

A. use of synthetic steroids (testosterone)

B. ingestion of a substance that mimicked inhibin

C. low sperm count

D. interruption of sustentocytes' production of ABP

D

154

The release of __________ encourages sustentocytes to release __________.

A. luteinizing hormone; androgen-binding protein

B. inhibin; testosterone

C. luteinizing hormone; testosterone

D. follicle-stimulating hormone; androgen-binding protein

D

155

Which of the choices below is not a function of testosterone?

A. stimulates mammary gland development

B. stimulates protein synthesis

C. stimulates the male pattern of development

D. contributes to male sexual behavior and spermatogenesis

A

156

Which of the following hormones stimulates the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins?

A. testosterone

B. LH

C. FSH

D. GnRH

D

157

A boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that FSH is no longer released, but LH is normal. After he grows to maturity, one would expect that he would ________.

A. not develop secondary sex characteristics

B. have impaired function of interstitial endocrine cells

C. be impotent (unable to have an erection)

D. be sterile

D

158

Which of the following female sex hormones is most responsible for estrogenic effects?

A. estrone

B. estradiol

C. progesterone

D. estriol

B

159

What part of the female system is the usual site of fertilization of the ovulated oocyte?

A. cervical canal

B. uterus

C. vagina

D. uterine (fallopian) tube

D

160

Which layer of the uterus is made of smooth muscle?

A. perimetrium

B. mesometrium

C. myometrium

D. endometrium

C

161

Which of the following represents the correct pathway of the egg after leaving the ovary and entering the uterine tube?

A. uterus, isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum

B. ampulla, isthmus, infundibulum, uterus

C. infundibulum, isthmus, uterus, ampulla

D. infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus, uterus

D

162

The __________ is shed during each menstruation and is then regenerated by the __________.

A. stratum basalis; stratum functionalis

B. stratum functionalis; stratum basalis

C. myometrium; perimetrium

D. stratum functionalis; myometrium

B

163

In cervical cancer, which cancer cells that cover the cervical tip are most likely to be abnormal?

A. columnar epithelial cells

B. squamous epithelial cells

C. cuboidal epithelial cells

D. transitional epithelial cells

B

164

The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called the ________.

A. uterine tubes

B. infundibula

C. fimbriae

D. Graafian follicles

A

165

All but one of the following statements is true of uterine function. Select the statement that is not true of uterine function.

A. The myometrium contracts to expel the fetus during child birth.

B. The narrow portion of the uterus near the cervix is the most typical site of fertilization.

C. The endometrium has a functional layer that the embryo will implant into.

D. Its rhythmic, reverse peristalsis can propel sperm toward the egg.

B

166

Which of the following is an INCORRECT matching of female reproductive structures with their functions?

A. uterine tube: transport unfertilized ovum to uterus for removal from the body

B. vagina: birth canal

C. uterus: the womb--area of development of the fetus

D. ovarian follicle: ovum (egg) production

A

167

Which layer of the uterus is the site for implantation of a fertilized egg?

A. perimetrium

B. stratum functionalis of the endometrium

C. myometrium

D. stratum basalis of the endometrium

B

168

What part(s) of the breast produce(s) milk?

A. lactiferous sinus

B. alveoli

C. areola

D. lactiferous ducts

B

169

Which of the following cells is released during ovulation?

A. ovum

B. primary oocyte

C. oogonium

D. secondary oocyte

D

170

What is the main difference between oogenesis and spermatogenesis in terms of meiosis?

A. Oogenesis does not include a second meiotic division.

B. The number of functional gametes produced is different.

C. Oogenesis produces three polar bodies, while spermatogenesis produces only one.

D. Oogenesis takes place in the uterus, while spermatogenesis takes place in gonadal tissue

B

171

Oocytes complete meiosis II before they are fertilized.

True

False

False

172

Why does only one egg, rather than four eggs, develop during oogenesis, given that spermatogenesis results in four sperm formed from one stem cell?

A. Actually, gametogenesis (oogenesis in the female and spermatogenesis in the male) produces four eggs and four sperm.

B. Only one egg can be fertilized at a time.

C. The egg does not go through the meiotic division processes that the sperm undergo.

D. The unequal cytoplasmic division that results in one egg and three polar bodies ensures that a fertilized egg has ample nutrients for its journey to the uterus.

D

173

A surge in __________ directly triggers ovulation.

A. luteinizing hormone (LH)

B. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

C. estrogen

D. progesterone

A

174

What is the site of FSH and LH stimulation after ovulation?

A. the endometrium

B. the corpus luteum

C. the oocyte

D. a secondary follicle

B

175

What event coincides with the transition from the proliferative phase to the secretory phase?

A. ovulation

B. Enrichment of the blood supply and glandular secretions prepare for reception of an embryo.

C. menstruation

D. Stratum functionalis is shed.

A

176

During what phase of the female’s uterine cycle is the uterine lining shed?

A. preovulatory phase

B. menstrual phase

C. proliferative phase

D. secretory, or postovulatory, phase

B

177

The oral contraceptive pill, informally called "the pill" contains an estrogen and progesterone or a synthetic mimic of this hormone. The combination of these two hormones taken in the pill and circulating in the blood work because.

A. The hormones cause the woman's body to mimic the activities of a pregnancy and disrupt the ovarian cycle, preventing ovulation.

B. The hormones create an acid condition in the vagina that acts as a spermicide.

C. The hormones prevent the proliferative or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle and the embryo will have no place to implant.

D. The hormones cause a thickening of the mucus plug at the cervix that prevents sperm from penetrating the womb and reaching the ovulated egg.

A

178

Select the correct statement about the uterine cycle.

A. The menstrual phase of the cycle is normally from day 1 to day 8.

B. During the secretory phase, estrogen levels are at their highest.

C. If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone secreted by the developing embryo.

D. During the proliferative phase, levels of progesterone rise as the follicle begins to produce more hormone.

C

179

Normally menstruation occurs when ________.

A. the corpus luteum secretes estrogen

B. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease

C. blood levels of FSH fall off

D. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase

B

180

The adenohypophyseal hormone that triggers ovulation is estrogen.

True

False

False

181

The corpus luteum secretes progesterone only.

True

False

False

182

Select the correct statement about the hormonal events of the ovarian cycle.

A. Rising levels of estrogen start follicle development.

B. High estrogen levels result in a surge of LH release.

C. The LH surge stimulates further development of the secondary oocyte.

D. The follicle begins to secrete progesterone in response to estrogen stimulation

B

183

All of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true except ________.

A. estrogen is secreted by the developing follicle in the follicular phase of the cycle

B. a decrease in the levels of ovarian hormones signals menstruation

C. the corpus luteum is formed from the ruptured follicle after ovulation

D. FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium

D

184

Which of the following is an effect of estrogens in females?

A. promotes lactation

B. promotes oogenesis

C. suppresses the effect of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

D. promotes water loss (diuresis)

B

185

Once sperm are deposited into the vagina, sperm motility must be enhanced and they must be prepared to release hydrolytic enzymes from their acrosomes. What is this process called?

A. fertilization

B. cortical reaction

C. acrosomal reaction

D. capacitation

D

186

To prevent polyspermy of the oocyte, calcium is released into the extracellular space. When does this take place?

A. just after the sperm head penetrates the corona radiata

B. just after the sperm’s head enters the oocyte membrane

C. just after the sperm head enters the intermembrane space

D. just after the sperm head penetrates the zona pellucida

B

187

Which of the following is the first barrier that must be penetrated by the sperm in order to fertilize an oocyte?

A. oocyte plasma membrane

B. corona radiata

C. extracellular space

D. zona pellucida

B

188

What is the name for the period of time that extends from the last menstrual period until birth, which is approximately 280 days?

A. a gestation period

B. pregnancy

C. the conceptus

D. an embryo

A

189

What destroys the zona pellucida sperm-binding receptors?

A. the acrosomal reaction

B. human placental lactogen

C. the process of capacitation

D. zonal inhibiting proteins

D

190

The result of polyspermy in humans is ________.

A. mitotic insufficiency

B. interruption of meiosis

C. multiple births

D. a nonfunctional zygote

D

191

It is impossible for sperm to be functional (able to fertilize the egg) until after ________.

A. they undergo capacitation

B. they have been stored in the uterus for several days

C. they become spermatids

D. the tail disappears

A

192

It is impossible for sperm to be functional (able to fertilize the egg) until after ________.

A. they undergo capacitation

B. they have been stored in the uterus for several days

C. they become spermatids

D. the tail disappears

A

193

How long is the secondary oocyte viable and capable of being fertilized after it is ovulated?

A. 36-72 hours

B. 24-36 hours

C. 12-24 hours

D. a full week

C

194

Select the correct statement about fertilization.

A. Millions of sperm cells are destroyed by the vagina's acidic environment.

B. Both spermatozoa and the ovulated secondary oocyte remain viable for about 72 hours in the female reproductive tract.

C. If estrogen is present, the pathway through the cervical opening is blocked from sperm entry.

D. Once inside the uterus, most sperm cells are protected and remain viable.

A

195

Select the correct statement about fertilization.

A. Millions of sperm cells are destroyed by the vagina's acidic environment.

B. Both spermatozoa and the ovulated secondary oocyte remain viable for about 72 hours in the female reproductive tract.

C. If estrogen is present, the pathway through the cervical opening is blocked from sperm entry.

D. Once inside the uterus, most sperm cells are protected and remain viable.

A

196

Which of the following implants in the mucosa of the endometrium?

A. zygote

B. oocyte

C. blastocyst

D. morula

C

197

The 4-cell stage occurs 2 days after fertilization. How much time passes between the 4-cell stage and implantation?

A. 36 hours

B. 2 days

C. 3 days

D. 5 days

D

198

The correct sequence of preembryonic structures is ________.

A. blastocyst, morula, zygote

B. zygote, morula, blastocyst

C. morula, zygote, blastocyst

D. zygote, blastocyst, morula

B

199

Which of the following is the correct sequence of development from zygote to embryo?

A. cleavage, blastocyst, morula, gastrula

B. cleavage, morula, blastocyst, gastrula

C. blastocyst, cleavage, gastrula, morula

D. cleavage, gastrula, morula, blastocyst

B

200

Which of the following is the multinuclear cytoplasmic mass formed from the outer layer of the trophoblast as it implants into the endometrium?

A. inner cell mass

B. cytotrophoblast

C. syncytiotrophoblast

D. blastocyst

C

201

What cellular area secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?

A. inner cell mass

B. morula

C. blastocyst

D. trophoblast

D

202

Which extra-embryonic membrane is formed from the trophoblast after implantation?

A. chorion

B. amnion

C. allantois

D. yolk sac

A

203

Together, what do the decidua basalis and the chorionic villi form?

A. yolk sac

B. chorion

C. amnion

D. placenta

D

204

Which of these is the innermost (closest) structure that envelops the embryo?

A. amnion

B. placenta

C. yolk sac

D. chorion

A

205

Which of these statements regarding the embryo is FALSE?

A. The extraembryonic coelom lies between the chorion and the amnion.

B. The embryo’s blood supply mixes with that of the mother.

C. Blood from the fetus travels to the placenta via vessels in the umbilical cord.

D. The yolk sac is the source for the earliest blood cells and blood vessels.

B

206

Decidua capsularis:

A. Forms the mother's part of the placenta.

B. Becomes the embryonic disc.

C. A solid sphere of undifferentiated cells.

D. Forms the chorion.

E. Surrounds the uterine cavity face of the implanted embryo.

E

207

Inner cell mass:

A. Forms the mother's part of the placenta.

B. Becomes the embryonic disc.

C. A solid sphere of undifferentiated cells.

D. Forms the chorion.

E. Surrounds the uterine cavity face of the implanted embryo.

B

208

Decidua basalis:

A. Forms the mother's part of the placenta.

B. Becomes the embryonic disc.

C. A solid sphere of undifferentiated cells.

D. Forms the chorion.

E. Surrounds the uterine cavity face of the implanted embryo.

A

209

Morula:

A. Forms the mother's part of the placenta.

B. Becomes the embryonic disc.

C. A solid sphere of undifferentiated cells.

D. Forms the chorion.

E. Surrounds the uterine cavity face of the implanted embryo.

C

210

Trophoblast:

A. Forms the mother's part of the placenta.

B. Becomes the embryonic disc.

C. A solid sphere of undifferentiated cells.

D. Forms the chorion.

E. Surrounds the uterine cavity face of the implanted embryo.

D

211

The placenta, a vitally important metabolic organ, is made up of a contribution from mother and fetus. Which portion is from the fetus?

A. umbilicus

B. amnion

C. yolk sac

D. chorion

D

212

Which hormone maintains the viability of the corpus luteum?

A. estrogen

B. human chorionic gonadotropin

C. progesterone

D. human placental lactogen

B

213

Which of the following is true in reference to what may pass through the placental barriers?

A. nutrients, respiratory gases, wastes, and alcohol

B. nutrients and respiratory gases only

C. respiratory gases, hormones, nutrients, and blood cells

D. hormones, blood cells, and nutrients

A

214

Which of the choices below occurs if implantation is successful?

A. The corpus luteum degenerates and becomes the corpus albicans.

B. Increased levels of FSH will be produced.

C. The corpus luteum is maintained until the placenta takes over its hormone-producing functions.

D. The ovarian cycle begins.

C

215

From what germ layer are the serosae of the peritoneal cavity (coelom) derived?

A. mesoderm

B. ectoderm

C. endoderm

D. notochord

A

216

Which of the following epithelial layers arise(s) from the endoderm?

A. alveolar cells of the lungs

B. the epidermis

C. linings of the glomeruli in nephrons

D. the periosteum

A

217

Which germ layer gives rise to the nervous system?

A. sclerotome

B. endoderm

C. mesoderm

D. ectoderm

D

218

Which fetal vascular shunt directly connects the right atrium to the left atrium so as to bypass the nonfunctional lungs?

A. ligamentum arteriosum

B. ductus arteriosus

C. ductus venosus

D. foramen ovale

D

219

Which fetal vessels or shunts will become the medial umbilical ligaments in the newborn?

A. ductus arteriosus

B. umbilical vein

C. umbilical arteries

D. ductus venosus

C

220

Which of the following takes oxygenated blood to the liver from the placenta?

A. ductus venosus

B. umbilical artery

C. hepatic vein

D. umbilical vein

D

221

Which of the following is the primary germ layer that forms the basis for the musculoskeletal system?

A. gastroderm

B. mesoderm

C. endoderm

D. ectoderm

B

222

The foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus are both examples of __________.

A. cells of the mesoderm that form the heart and blood vessels

B. pulmonary bypass shunts, which serve to bypass the lungs

C. cells of the somatic mesoderm, which help to form the dermis of the skin

D. venous shunts, which serve to bypass the liver sinusoids

B

223

The formation of endodermal and ectodermal germ layers occurs at ________.

A. blastula formation

B. cleavage

C. gastrulation

D. fertilization

C

224

The first major event in organogenesis is ________.

A. myelination

B. gastrulation

C. neurulation

D. ossification

C

225

Cells of the ________ gather around the notochord and neural tube and produce the vertebra and rib at their associated level.

A. dermatome

B. myotome

C. sclerotome

D. intermediate mesoderm

C

226

What does the hormone relaxin promote?

A. Relaxin promotes enlargement of the breasts.

B. Relaxin imparts a purplish hue to the vagina.

C. Relaxin promotes the widening and increased flexibility of the pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis.

D. Relaxin promotes increased pigmentation of the facial skin of the nose and cheeks.

C

227

Because of the increased bulkiness of the anterior abdomen and the change in a pregnant woman's center of gravity, what type of spinal curvature do many pregnant women develop?

A. kyphosis

B. scoliosis of the thorax

C. excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine

C

228

A dangerous complication of pregnancy called __________ results in an insufficient placental blood supply, which can starve a fetus of oxygen. The pregnant woman becomes edematous and hypertensive, and proteinuria occurs.

A. preeclampsia

B. dyspnea

C. dystocia

D. parturition

A

229

Which body system of a pregnant woman undergoes the most dramatic physiological changes during pregnancy?

A. cardiovascular system

B. urinary system

C. respiratory system

D. digestive system

A

230

What role does oxytocin play in promoting labor?

A. Oxytocin stimulates the uterus to contract.

B. Oxytocin stimulates the myometrial cells of the uterus to form oxytocin receptors.

C. Oxytocin promotes the formation of gap junctions between the uterine smooth muscle cells.

D. Oxytocin antagonizes progesterone’s quieting influence on uterine muscle.

A

231

Which of the following serve(s) as the trigger to begin the vigorous, rhythmic contractions of true labor?

A. prostaglandins

B. progesterone

C. oxytocin

D. relaxin

A

232

Which of the following tend(s) to initiate Braxton Hicks contractions, or “false labor”?

A. surfactant protein A (SP-A)

B. oxytocin

C. estrogens

D. prostaglandins

C

233

How long does the expulsion stage typically last in a first birth?

A. 2 to 3 minutes

B. 20 minutes

C. 50 minutes

D. 6 to 12 hours

C

234

During what stage is the afterbirth delivered?

A. expulsion stage

B. engagement

C. placental stage

D. dilation stage

C

235

During which of the following stages does the amnion rupture, an event also known as the mother’s “water breaking”?

A. engagement

B. crowning

C. the dilation stage

D. the placental stage

C

236

Which of the following is NOT assessed as part of the Apgar score?

A. respiration

B. muscle tone

C. heart rate

D. temperature

D

237

Surfactant production in premature infants is rarely a factor in providing normal respiratory activity.

True

False

False

238

Milk ejection (the letdown reflex) is stimulated by which of the following hormones associated with pregnancy?

A. gonadotropin

B. prolactin

C. oxytocin

D. inhibin

C

239

Prior to the let-down reflex, the mammary glands secrete a yellowish fluid called ________ that has less lactose than milk and almost no fat.

A. prolactin

B. colostrum

C. meconium

D. bilirubin

B

240

After fertilization, the zygote goes through a rapid period of cell divisions called __________.

A. Cleavage

B. blastulation

C. implantation

D. organogenesis

E. teratogenesis

A

241

Which statement about maternal hormones during pregnancy is accurate?

A. Estrogen levels increase throughout gestation.

B. hCG levels increase throughout gestation.

C. Progesterone levels decline throughout gestation.

D. hCG levels remain stable throughout gestation.

E. Estrogen levels decline throughout gestation.

A

242

Implantation is completed after the __________.

A. corpus luteum deteriorates

B. amnion has formed

C. yolk sac forms

D. nervous system forms

E. blastocyst is entirely surrounded by endometrium

E

243

The outermost extraembryonic membrane is the __________.

A. Chorion

B. placenta

C. yolk sacallantois

D. amnion

A

244

The development of the primary germ layers is called __________.

A. blastulation

B. cleavage

C. gastrulation

D. placentation

E. organogenesis

C

245

Which of the following structures is/are formed from ectodermal tissues?

A. muscles

B. bones

C. cartilage

D. brain

E. gonads

D

246

The function of the ductus arteriosus is to __________.

A. deliver oxygen-poor blood to the placenta

B. bypass the coronary circuit

C. deliver oxygen-rich blood to the placenta

D. bypass the pulmonary circuit

E. deliver oxygen-rich blood to the liver

B

247

Which of the following is NOT a function of the placenta?

A. nutrient transfer

B. respiratory gas transfer

C. urine formation

D. hormone production

E. waste elimination

C

248

Which of the following factors is NOT considered to be a teratogen?

A. nicotine

B. iron

C. alcohol

D. sedatives

E. anticoagulants

B

249

Which hormone produced by the placenta causes the mother’s pubic symphysis to loosen and widen?

A. estrogen

B. hCG

C. relaxin

D. FSH

E. Progesterone

C

250

An implantation that takes place in a site other than the uterus is called __________.

A. ectopic

B. amniotic

C. metopic

D. hyadatic

E. phytid

A

251

Which of the following is NOT a common metabolic/physiological change that occurs in pregnant women?

A. hypermetabolism

B. increased respiratory rate

C. glucose sparing

D. decreased blood pressure

E. increased urine production

D

252

Which maternally derived hormone induces and controls labor via a positive feedback mechanism?

A. progesterone

B. oxytocin

C. estrogen

D. hCG

E. ADH

B

253

Which sequence shows the correct order of the stages of labor?

A. placental, dilation, expulsion

B. expulsion, dilation, placental

C. expulsion, placental, dilation

D. dilation, expulsion, placental

E. dilation, placental, expulsion

D

254

The Apgar score range that indicates a healthy baby is __________.

A. 0 to 2

B. 2 to 4

C. 4 to 6

D. 6 to 8

E. 8 to 10

E

255

Which structure represents the remnants of the atrial fetal shunt?

A. ligamentum teres

B. fossa ovalis

C. foramen ovale

D. ligamentum venosum

E. ductus arteriosus

B

256

The heart begins to beat in the developing offspring __________.

A. at birth

B. at 3 to 4 months

C. at about 3 ½ weeks

D. when it becomes a fetus

E. at conception

C

257

Implantation of the blastocyst begins __________ after ovulation.

A. 1 day

B. 3 days

C. 6 to 7 days

D. 3 weeks

E. 1 month

C

258

Prolactin causes __________.

A. increased hCG excretion during the first month of pregnancy

B. milk production by the breast tissue

C. myometrial contractions and let-down reflex

D. uterine contractions only

B

259

Meconium is __________.

A. a fluid initially secreted by the mammary glands before true milk is produced

B. the hormone that causes a positive feedback mechanism to continue milk production

C. sloughed-off epithelial cells, bile, and other substances

D. the hormone that is termed “the natural birth control” and inhibits the release of GnRH

C

260

All of the following structures are derived from mesoderm EXCEPT __________.

A. nails

B. the liver

C. cardiac muscle

D. bone

E. smooth muscle

A

261

Which of the following does NOT prevent polyspermy?

A. the release of Ca2+ after the sperm has entered the ovum

B. the release of enzymes into the extracellular space beneath the zona pellucida

C. a decrease in zonal inhibiting proteins

D. the zona reaction

E. the cortical reaction

C

262

Sperm are known to bear __________ that respond to chemical stimuli that help them locate the oocyte.

A. acrosomes

B. olfactory receptors

C. tails

D. hydrolytic enzymes

B

263

Which of the following does NOT describe a function of trophoblast cells?

A. The inner layers of trophoblasts lose their plasma membranes and invade the endometrium.

B. They secrete hCG.

C. They display L-selectin molecules on their surface after blastocyst hatching.

D. They take part in placental formation.

A

264

The disc-shaped placenta is formed from the __________.

A. yolk sac

B. inner cell mass

C. chronic villi and the decidua capsularis

D. chronic villi and the decidua basalis

D

265

During early gastrulation, what structure(s) appear(s) on the dorsal aspect of the embryonic disc and establish(e)s the longitudinal axis of the embryo?

A. coelom

B. somites

C. notochord

D. primitive streak

D

266

The first major event of organogenesis is __________.

A. sporulation

B. amnion formation

C. mesenchyme production

D. neurulation

D

267

The only 100% effective method of birth control is __________.

A. MAPs

B. vasectomy

C. total abstinence

D. Depo-Provera

C

268

Which of the following statements about the foramen ovale is FALSE?

A. It is an opening in the interatrial septum.

B. It is one of the shunt systems encountered by blood entering and leaving the heart before birth.

C. It serves to bypass the nonfunctional lung.

D. It allows blood to pass directly from the right atrium into the left ventricle.

D

269

__________ refers to events that occur from the time of fertilization (conception) until the infant is born.

A. Gestation period

B. Embryo

C. Pregnancy

D. Conceptus

C

270

For successful fertilization to occur, coitus must occur NO more than __________ and NO later than __________.

A. two days before ovulation; 24 hours after

B. three days before ovulation; two days after

C. 24 hours before ovulation; two days after

D. two days before ovulation; two days after

A

271

The process of implantation generally begins __________ and is usually completed by __________.

A. two to three days after ovulation; the sixth or seventh day after ovulation

B. the day before ovulation; the third day after ovulation

C. six to seven days after ovulation; the twelfth day after ovulation

D. the day after ovulation; the third day after ovulation

C

272

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels spike within the first two months of pregnancy and then sharply decline by four months.

True

False

True

273

By the end of the third month of pregnancy, the placenta is usually fully functional as a nutritive, respiratory, excretory, and endocrine organ.

True

False

True

274

In humans, the extraembryonic membrane that composes the structural base for the umbilical cord is the __________.

A. yolk sac

B. allantois

C. amnion

D. chorion

B

275

The ectoderm is the primary germ layer from which the digestive, respiratory, and urogenital systems and the associated glands form.

True

False

False

276

The first major event in organogenesis is gastrulation.

True

False

False

277

Which of the following occurs eight weeks into pregnancy?

A. The eyes open.

B. The head of the fetus is nearly as large as the body.

C. Quickening occurs.

D. Sex is readily detected by observing the genitals.

B

278

Which of the following occurs 17–20 weeks into pregnancy, during the fetal period?

A. Quickening occurs.

B. The head of the fetus is nearly as large as the body.

C. The eyes open.

D. Sex is readily detected by observing the genitals.

A

279

A weight gain of approximately 13 kg (about 28 lb) usually occurs during pregnancy.

True

False

True

280

__________ and __________ are both hormones and powerful uterine muscle stimulants that cause contractions to become more frequent and more vigorous.

A. Oxytocin; prostaglandins

B. Relaxin; oxytocin

C. Human chorionic gonadotropin; relaxin

D. Estrogen; progesterone

A

281

__________ occurs when a woman has a deformed or male-like pelvis, resulting in prolonged and difficult labor; this condition can lead to fetal brain damage, ultimately causing cerebral palsy or epilepsy.

A. Dystocia

B. Dyspnea

C. Preeclampsia

D. Parturition

A

282

Coitus interruptus is among the most effective birth control methods.

True

False

False

283

An Apgar score of 8 to 10 indicates a healthy baby.

True

False

True

284

Meiosis results in __________.

A. two identical diploid cells

B. two nonidentical haploid cells

C. four identical diploid cells

D. four nonidentical diploid cells

E. four nonidentical haploid cells

E

285

In terms of the male sexual response, parasympathetic stimulation causes __________.

A. spermiogenesis

B. the penis to become flaccid

C. ejaculation

D. erection of the penis

E. fertilization

D

286

The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that __________.

A. spermatogenesis involves mitosis and meiosis, but oogenesis involves meiosis only

B. two polar bodies are produced in spermatogenesis

C. the mature ovum is diploid and the sperm is haploid

D. one mature ovum is produced in oogenesis, and four mature sperm are produced in spermatogenesis

E. the mature ovum is haploid and the sperm is diploid

D

287

The organ that makes estrogen and progesterone is the __________.

A. hypothalamus

B. pineal gland

C. ovary

D. vagina

E. vestibular gland

C

288

The primary sex organ(s) of the male is/are the __________.

A. prostate

B. penis

C. testes

D. epididymis

E. seminal vesicle

C

289

The reason that the testes are suspended in the scrotum is to __________.

A. protect sperm from the immune system

B. create extra space for the sex organs

C. to reduce the chance of infection from the enteric bacteria

D. place sperm storage sites nearer to the penis

E. to provide a cooler temperature

E

290

The sperm’s acrosome __________.

A. has a high density of mitochondria

B. provides the blood testis barrier

C. contains nutrients

D. contains enzymes

E. provides motility

D

291

The surge in LH that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers __________.

A. FSH release

B. activation of primordial follicles

C. ovulation

D. uterine-lining secretion

E. menstruation

C

292

The usual site of fertilization is the __________.

A. vagina

B. uterus

C. uterine tube

D. ovary

E. vulva

C

293

The uterine layer shed with each monthly cycle is the __________.

A. myometrium

B. tunica albuginea

C. functional layer of endometrium

D. perimetrium

E. basal layer of endometrium

C

294

__________ cells, located between seminiferous tubules, produce testosterone.

A. Myometrial

B. Thalamic

C. Interstitial

D. Follicle

E. Sustentacular

C

295

In which uterine phase does the functional layer of the endometrium start to rebuild?

A. ovulation

B. proliferative

C. preovulatory

D. menstrual

E. secretory

B

296

What is the most common bacterial sexually transmitted disease in the United States?

A. genital warts

B. gonorrhea

C. vaginitis

D. chlamydia

E. syphilis

D

297

Which cell type is ovulated from the ovary?

A. oogonium

B. ovum

C. primary oocyte

D. secondary oocyte

E. tertiary oocyte

D

298

In order, list the structures sperm will pass through from the testes to the external urethral orifice.

A. seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, ampulla, ejaculatory duct, prostatic urethra, spongy urethra

B. epididymis, ampulla, seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, spongy urethra, prostatic urethra, ejaculatory duct

C. ejaculatory duct, epididymis, seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, spongy urethra, prostatic urethra, ampulla

D. epididymis, seminiferous tubules, ampulla, vas deferens, prostatic urethra, ejaculatory duct, spongy urethra

A

299

Which male structure is homologous to the female’s clitoris?

A. epididymis

B. penis

C. prostate gland

D. pubis

E. scrotum

B

300

Which of the following represents the order in which reproductive hormones are secreted in males?

A. GnRH, LH/FSH, testosterone, inhibin

B. FSH, GnRH, LH, testosterone

C. FSH, GnRH, testosterone, LH

D. LH, GnRH, FSH, testosterone

E. FSH, LH, GnRH, testosterone

A

301

Within the ovary, progesterone is produced by the __________.

A. corpus albicans

B. tertiary follicles

C. secondary follicles

D. corpus luteum

E. primary follicles

D

302

Sperm are produced in the __________.

A. prostate gland

B. seminiferous tubules

C. seminal gland

D. interstitial cells

E. epididymis

F. spermatic cord

B

303

In a typical or “average” cycle, ovulation occurs on day __________.

A. 1

B. 5

C. 14

D. 21

E. 28

C

304

Which hormone is responsible for the development of secondary sex characteristics found in women?

A. prolactin

B. LH

C. Estrogen

D. progesterone

E. FSH

C

305

During anaphase I, what structures separate and move to opposite poles of the cell?

A. nonhomologous chromosomes

B. sister chromatids

C. tetrads

D. nucleoli

C

306

The muscular layer of the uterine wall is called the __________.

A. perimetrium

B. endometrium

C. epimetrium

D. myometrium

D

307

Which hormone stimulates the ruptured ovarian follicle to become the corpus luteum?

A. GnRH

B. estrogen

C. FSH

D. LH

D

308

Which of the following hormones is NOT involved in the regulation of the number of sperm produced in the testes?

A. inhibin

B. PSA

C. gonadotropin-releasing hormone

D. testosterone

B

309

Which of the following statements about myoid cells is true?

A. When they contract, they cause wrinkling of the scrotal skin.

B. They surround the seminiferous tubules and contract rhythmically to squeeze sperm and testicular fluid through the tubules out of the testes.

C. They elevate the testes.

D. They form a duct that conveys sperm from the epididymis to the prostate gland.

B

310

Which of the following structures help(s) to keep the testes at a cool temperature?

A. the pampiniform plexus

B. the testicular arteries

C. the rete testis

D. the interstitial endocrine cells

A

311

Which of the following structures passes through the inguinal canal?

A. the epididymis

B. the prostatic urethra

C. the ejaculatory duct

D. the spermatic cord

D

312

Which of the following structures makes up most of the male urethral length?

A. spongy urethra

B. membranous urethra

C. ejaculatory duct

D. prostatic urethra

A

313

Which statement about vasectomies is FALSE?

A. The part of the ductus deferens that lies in the scrotum is cut.

B. They are approximately 10% reversible.

C. They are a highly effective method of birth control.

D. They involve a minor surgical procedure.

B

314

Which of the following is considered a primary sex organ in males?

A. penis

B. testes

C. scrotum

D. prostate gland

B

315

In response to warmth, the scrotum __________.

A. pulls the testes closer to the body

B. increases its surface area

C. becomes heavily wrinkled

D. decreases blood flow to the testes

B

316

interstitial endocrine cells (Leydig cells)

A. site of sperm production in the testes

B. fibrous capsule of the testes

C. cools arterial blood to keep the testes below core temperature

D. site of sperm storage

E. make testosterone

E

317

seminiferous tubules

A. site of sperm production in the testes

B. fibrous capsule of the testes

C. cools arterial blood to keep the testes below core temperature

D. site of sperm storage

E. make testosterone

A

318

tunica albuginea

A. site of sperm production in the testes

B. fibrous capsule of the testes

C. cools arterial blood to keep the testes below core temperature

D. site of sperm storage

E. make testosterone

B

319

epididymis

A. site of sperm production in the testes

B. fibrous capsule of the testes

C. cools arterial blood to keep the testes below core temperature

D. site of sperm storage

E. make testosterone

D

320

pampiniform venous plexus

A. site of sperm production in the testes

B. fibrous capsule of the testes

C. cools arterial blood to keep the testes below core temperature

D. site of sperm storage

E. make testosterone

C

321

The main component of semen is sperm.

True

False

False

322

The diploid chromosome number in humans is __________.

A. 12

B. 23

C. 24

D. 46

D

323

Which of the following is true about meiosis?

A. Meiosis involves only one cell division event.

B. Meiosis leads to the production of genetically identical cells.

C. Meiosis is how most cells in the body divide.

D. Meiosis produces cells that have a haploid chromosome number.

D

324

prophase I

A. Four genetically unique haploid cells are formed.

B. Two genetically unique haploid cells are formed.

C. Homologous chromosomes separate from one another.

D. Tetrads align randomly along the cell's equator.

E. Crossovers form.

E

325

metaphase I

A. Four genetically unique haploid cells are formed.

B. Two genetically unique haploid cells are formed.

C. Homologous chromosomes separate from one another.

D. Tetrads align randomly along the cell's equator.

E. Crossovers form.

D

326

anaphase I

A. Four genetically unique haploid cells are formed.

B. Two genetically unique haploid cells are formed.

C. Homologous chromosomes separate from one another.

D. Tetrads align randomly along the cell's equator.

E. Crossovers form.

C

327

telophase I

A. Four genetically unique haploid cells are formed.

B. Two genetically unique haploid cells are formed.

C. Homologous chromosomes separate from one another.

D. Tetrads align randomly along the cell's equator.

E. Crossovers form.

B

328

telophase II

A. Four genetically unique haploid cells are formed.

B. Two genetically unique haploid cells are formed.

C. Homologous chromosomes separate from one another.

D. Tetrads align randomly along the cell's equator.

E. Crossovers form.

A

329

Conversion of haploid spermatids to functional sperm is specifically called __________.

A. spermatogenesis

B. spermiogenesis

C. meiosis

D. mitosis

B

330

The area of the sperm cell that contains many mitochondria is the __________.

A. tail

B. head

C. acrosome

D. midpiece

D

331

__________ acts upon the __________ to encourage the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).

A. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH); sustentocytes

B. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH); anterior pituitary

C. Testosterone; sustentocytes

D. Testosterone; anterior pituitary

B

332

Which of the following is NOT an effect of testosterone?

A. decreases sperm production

B. stimulates maturation of male sex organs

C. maintains male libido

D. maintains male secondary sex characteristics

A

333

The ovaries are situated retroperitoneally next to the kidneys.

True

False

False

334

uterine (fallopian) tubes

A. thin-walled structure that connects the uterus to the body exterior

B. receives, retains, and nourishes a fertilized ovum

C. fingerlike projections that brush over the ovary

D. generally the site of fertilization of the ovulated oocyte

E. house and form the female gamete

D

335

fimbriae

A. thin-walled structure that connects the uterus to the body exterior

B. receives, retains, and nourishes a fertilized ovum

C. fingerlike projections that brush over the ovary

D. generally the site of fertilization of the ovulated oocyte

E. house and form the female gamete

C

336

uterus

A. thin-walled structure that connects the uterus to the body exterior

B. receives, retains, and nourishes a fertilized ovum

C. fingerlike projections that brush over the ovary

D. generally the site of fertilization of the ovulated oocyte

E. house and form the female gamete

B

337

vagina

A. thin-walled structure that connects the uterus to the body exterior

B. receives, retains, and nourishes a fertilized ovum

C. fingerlike projections that brush over the ovary

D. generally the site of fertilization of the ovulated oocyte

E. house and form the female gamete

A

338

ovaries

A. thin-walled structure that connects the uterus to the body exterior

B. receives, retains, and nourishes a fertilized ovum

C. fingerlike projections that brush over the ovary

D. generally the site of fertilization of the ovulated oocyte

E. house and form the female gamete

E

339

The __________ is shed during menstruation.

A. perimetrium

B. myometrium

C. stratum functionalis

D. stratum basalis

C

340

The __________ of the mammary glands are responsible for producing milk during lactation.

A. alveoli

B. lactiferous ducts

C. lactiferous sinuses

D. areolae

A

341

The pH of the adult female vagina is normally __________.

A. acidic

B. neutral

C. alkaline

D. basic

A

342

Choose the FALSE statement about oogenesis.

A. Primary oocytes are stalled in prophase I until puberty.

B. Oogenesis occurs in the ovaries.

C. In oogenesis, three polar bodies and one functional gamete are produced.

D. In humans, the secondary oocyte must complete meiosis II before it can be fertilized.

D

343

Which of the following are MISMATCHED?

A. ovarian cycle; monthly series of events associated with maturation of an egg

B. follicular phase; development of a secondary oocyte within a dominant follicle

C. ovulation; release of a secondary oocyte

D. luteal phase; characterized by decreased progesterone levels

D

344

_________ stimulates the anterior pituitary to release follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).

A. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

B. Estrogen

C. Progesterone

D. Inhibin

A

345

The functional layer of the endometrium is shed in response to __________.

A. decreased estrogen levels

B. increased progesterone levels

C. decreased progesterone levels

D. increased estrogen levels

C

346

Which of the following is NOT an effect of estrogen?

A. promotes oogenesis

B. helps to sustain the density of the skeleton

C. promotes the development of secondary sex characteristics in females

D. promotes diuresis (water loss)

D

347

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the female sexual response?

A. Testosterone is the hormone that is primarily responsible for female libido.

B. Female orgasm is not required for conception.

C. The final phase of the female sexual response is orgasm.

D. The female sexual response is similar to that of males.

A

348

_________ is a sexually transmitted disease that is associated with cervical cancer.

A. Genital warts

B. Trichomoniasis

C. Genital herpes

D. Syphilis

A

349

The __________ develop into the female duct system.

A. urethral folds

B. gonadal ridges

C. paramesonephric ducts

D. mesonephric ducts

C

350

Your genotype is a description of your combination of alleles for a given phenotype.

True

False

True

351

How many chromosomes are in a haploid human cell?

A. 23

B. 46

C. 48

D. 92

A

352

How many alleles exist for a given gene?

A. always one allele per gene

B. each gene can have a different number of alleles

C. two from each parent

D. only two

B

353

If a person is homozygous for a particular trait this means ________.

A. the person cannot pass on that trait

B. the person has two identical alleles for the gene responsible for the trait

C. the person will not have a recessive condition

D. the person has two dominant alleles for the gene responsible for the trait

B

354

A dominant allele is best defined as ________.

A. the stronger of two matched alleles

B. the allele that is most frequently expressed in a given population

C. an allele that stops or hides the expression of the other allele

D. the healthy allele sometimes referred to as the wild type allele

C

355

Recessive alleles are best defined as ________.

A. the least frequently expressed allele in a given population

B. only expresses in present in a double dose

C. a weakened or attenuated allele

D. a deleterious or disease causing allele

B

356

A woman has blond hair and brown eyes. This statement is best described as indicating ________.

A. phenotype

B. recessive traits

C. genotype

D. allelic pairs

A

357

What phenotype is associated with the genotype 47, XXY?

A. Turner's syndrome

B. Down syndrome

C. fragile X syndrome

D. Klinefelter's syndrome

D

358

Why are both paternal and maternal chromosomes present in some gametes?

A. to increase variability in the offspring

B. to be sure the chromosomes have a chance to cross over

C. to ensure that the gametes are haploid

D. to produce gametes that are identical to parent cells

A

359

During what phase of meiosis do the tetrads align together in preparation for being separated?

A. metaphase I

B. metaphase II

C. anaphase II

D. prophase I

A

360

Chimpanzees have a diploid number of 48. How many total chromosomes should each of their diploid body cells have?

A. 2

B. 24

C. 48

D. 96

B

361

Which of the following is specifically associated with the formation and dissociation of chiasmata?

A. genetic variability

B. independent assortment

C. segregation of alleles

D. random fertilization

A

362

During metaphase of meiosis I, homologous chromosomes and the alleles they possess are distributed to different gametes. What is this called? A. independent assortment B. linked C. crossover D. segregation

D

363

Suppose that a child received one of the purple chromosomes (homogenous recessive, blond hair, blue eyes) from their father and one of the green ones (homogenous dominant, brown hair, brown eyes) from their mother. What he or she look like?

A. He or she would have brown hair and brown eyes.

B. He or she would have brown hair and blue eyes.

C. He or she would have blonde hair and brown eyes.

D. He or she would have blonde hair and blue eyes.

A

364

hair color genes and eye color genes are located on the same chromosome. Since these genes are transmitted as a unit to daughter cells during mitosis, we describe these genes as

A. heterozygous

B. recombinant

C. linked

D. segregated

C

365

Genes on the same chromosome are said to be __________.

A. linked

B. homologous

C. recessive

D. independent

A

366

What is the probability of the same couple having three girls in a row?

A. 1/6

B. 1/8

C. 1/12

D. 1/16

B

367

A female infant is born with around one million oocytes, each one genetically unique. This is due to ________.

A. recessive inheritance

B. independent assortment and random crossover

C. mutation

D. chromosome deletion

B

368

If both parents are heterogenous for a trait (Tt), what is the probability of producing a homozygous dominant offspring?

A. 0%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 75%

B

369

Both parents are heterogenous (Tt) for the ability to roll the tongue into a U shape may be assigned to a single dominant allele, T. Using the information provided in this figure, what is the probability of producing an offspring who can roll his or her tongue?

A. 25%

B. 50%

C. 75%

D. 100%

C

370

If both parents are heterogenous for a trait (Tt), what is the genotype of a homozygous recessive offspring?

A. TT

B. tt

C. tT

D. Tt

B

371

At least three genes control skin color. How many possible combinations of skin color result from those three genes with the mating of the parents if both parents are heterogenous for all genes?

A. 6

B. 10

C. 15

D. 64

D

372

At how many weeks of pregnancy can chorionic villus sampling (CVS) be safely performed?

A. 4 weeks

B. 10 weeks

C. 16 weeks

D. 20 weeks

B

373

During amniocentesis, a needle withdraws fluid from __________.

A. the mother’s blood vessels

B. the amniotic sac

C. the fetus’s blood vessels

D. the lumen of the uterus

B

374

If two parents are heterozygous (Tt) for a trait, which of the following is NOT a possibility for their offspring?

A. All of their offspring would be dominant for the trait.

B. Most of the offspring would have the dominant phenotype.

C. Half of the potential offspring would be genotypically different than the parents.

D. Half of their offspring would be heterozygous.

A

375

Part A Part complete Which of the following is an example of a disorder that exhibits incomplete dominance?

A. sickle-cell anemia

B. Tay-Sachs disease

C. cystic fibrosis

D. syndactyly

A

376

The gene responsible for the condition known as sickle-cell anemia demonstrates ________.

A. a sex-linked genetic disorder

B. incomplete dominance

C. a recessive genetic disorder

D. a dominant genetic disorder

B

377

Given the information in the figure, what is the phenotype ratio (assuming C is dominant and there is no incomplete dominance)?

A. 4:0

B. 1:2:1

C. 3:1

D. 1:1:1:1

C

378

Given the information in the figure, if C were an incomplete dominant trait, what would the phenotype ratio be for the offspring?

A. 4:0

B. 1:2:1

C. 3:1

D. 1:1:1:1

B

379

Huntington's disease involves ________.

A. hyposecretion of thyroxine

B. hypersecretion of growth hormone

C. degeneration of the basal nuclei of the brain

D. the presence of an extra chromosome

C

380

Which type of inheritance involves genes found on the non-autosomal chromosomes?

A. multiple-allele inheritance

B. sex-linked inheritance

C. polygenic inheritance

D. incomplete dominance inheritance

B

381

Inheritance of stature (height) in humans is probably due to ________.

A. incomplete dominance

B. polyploidy

C. polygene inheritance

D. polymorphism

B

382

Which of the following best summarizes the difference between genotype and phenotype?

A. Genotype refers to all of the genes individuals inherit, and phenotype refers to the genes they make on their own.

B. Genotype refers to the genes one has, and phenotype refers to the alleles that person has.

C. Genotype refers to the gene alleles that one has, and phenotype refers to the trait that is expressed in response to those alleles.

D. Genotype refers to the DNA one has, and phenotype refers to the RNA he or she inherits.

C

383

Are environmental factors more likely to affect genotype or phenotype?

A. genotype

B. phenotype

C. They can affect both equally.

D. Environmental factors can’t affect either one.

B

384

A chromosomal aberration in which part of a chromosome is lost is known as ________.

A. deletion

B. crossing-over

C. translocation

D. inversion

A

385

Sam has type A blood. Which of the following blood types are NOT at all possible for Sam's offspring?

A. type O

B. type A

C. type B

D. All of the listed blood types are possible.

D

386

Nuclear DNA is NOT the only source of genetic information in the cell. Which of the following is another source of DNA in the cell?

A. mitochondria

B. nucleoli

C. Golgi bodies

D. rough ER

A

387

Pedigrees and blood tests are both means of __________.

A. human gene therapy

B. fetal testing

C. genomic imprinting

D. carrier recognition

D

388

For which of the following are newborn infants not routinely screened at birth?

A. PKU

B. color blindness congenital hip dysplasia

C. imperforate anus

B

389

Which of the following is a noninvasive method for predicting genetic disease?

A. choronic-villus sampling

B. blood test

C. amniocentesis

D. pedigree

D

390

Alternative forms of genes are called __________.

A. genomes

B. karyotypes

C. autosomes

D. phenotypes

E. alleles

E

391

With the exception of gametes, human cells have __________ pairs of chromosomes.

A. 12

B. 23

C. 46

D. 55

E. 60

B

392

In dominant-recessive inheritance, if an individual is heterozygous, which phenotype will be expressed?

A. segregated

B. autosomal

C. dominant

D. recessive

C

393

Which of the following processes may separate linked genes during meiosis?

A. epigenetics

B. allele segregation

C. chiasma, or crossover

D. independent assortment

E. differentiation

C

394

The form of inheritance in which the heterozygous state is expressed as an intermediate is __________.

A. multiple-allele inheritance

B. codominance

C. dominant-recessive inheritance

D. polygenic inheritance

E. incomplete dominance

F. sex-linked inheritance

E

395

A person who inherits the A and the O blood type alleles will possess which blood type?

A. A

B. B

C. AB

D. O

E. The blood type cannot be determined from the given information.

A

396

X-linked recessive traits are expressed more frequently in males because __________.

A. they have two X chromosomes

B. they have two Y chromosomes

C. they have fewer chromosomes than females

D. they have more chromosomes than females

E. there is no corresponding allele on their Y chromosomes

E

397

A permanent structural change of a gene is called __________.

A. trisomy

B. nondisjunction

C. mutation

D. linkage

C

398

Extrachromosomal inheritance involves genes passed on by the mother’s __________.

A. smooth ER

B. mitochondria

C. Golgi bodies

D. chromosomes

E. ribosomes

B

399

The most common form of fetal testing is __________.

A. gene therapy

B. imprinting

C. amniocentesis

D. chorionic villi sampling

C

400

The expression of genes is called the __________.

A. genome

B. genotype

C. karyotype

D. pedigree

E. phenotype

E

401

Traits that display continuous phenotypic variation are usually determined by which form of inheritance?

A. incomplete dominance

B. polygene inheritance

C. multiple-allele inheritance

D. sex-linked inheritance

E. dominant-recessive inheritance

B

402

What is the probability that a child will be born with a recessive trait if both parents are heterozygous for the trait?

A. 10%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 75%

E. 100%

B

403

A type of treatment useful in correcting single-gene disorders is __________.

A. chorionic villi sampling

B. carrier recognition

C. gene therapy

D. amniocentesis

C

404

Heterozygous individuals that can pass on recessive, abnormal conditions even if they do NOT express the disease are referred to as __________.

A. deleterious donators

B. phenotypically challenged

C. zygotic

D. carriers

E. recessively compromised

D

405

Genes that are located on the same chromosome are said to be __________.

A. tied

B. dominant

C. crossed

D. syncopated

E. linked

E

406

In the human blood type AB, both alleles are expressed and are therefore __________.

A. dominant

B. polygenic

C. sex-linked

D. incompletely dominant

E. codominant

E

407

Which of the following disorders is NOT inherited as a simple recessive trait?

A. Tay-Sachs disease

B. albinism

C. cystic fibrosis

D. Down syndrome

E. Schizophrenia

D

408

If a male inherits a sex-linked gene for color blindness, __________.

A. it will be expressed only if two copies are present

B. it will only be expressed 25% of the time

C. it will never be expressed

D. it will always be expressed

D

409

The appearance of freckles is considered the __________.

A. phenotype

B. genome

C. karyotype

D. genotype

A

410

A person without a Y chromosome will __________.

A. show both male and female characteristics

B. always show male characteristics

C. be sterile but show male characteristics

D. always show female characteristics

D

411

The 46 chromosomes of a zygote come from __________.

A. the sperm

B. the mother and the father

C. the egg

B

412

A karyotype is a complete __________.

A. diploid complement display of homologous chromosome pairs

B. display of sex hormones

C. haploid complement display of chromosomes

D. display of autosomes

A

413

Any two matched genes that are __________ are called alleles.

A. found only in the mother

B. at the same locus on homologous chromosomes

C. found only on autosomes

D. at the same position on the sex chromosomes

B

414

If the allele for brown hair is represented by B, it means that __________.

A. brown hair is a dominant trait

B. the gene for brown hair is carried on the paternally derived chromosome

C. the gene for brown hair is carried on the maternally derived chromosome

D. brown hair is a recessive trait

D

415

Most human traits are determined by __________.

A. a single gene

B. nutrition during infancy

C. a single allele

D. multiple genes

D

416

Heterozygous parents who have had one child with a recessive disease have a __________% chance of having a second child born with the same recessive disease.

A. 12.5

B. 25

C. 50

D. 75

B

417

A phenocopy occurs when __________.

A. an individual carries two identical alleles

B. individual has an exact copy of another’s genotype

C. environmental influences mimic the effect of a gene

D. two individuals have exactly the same genetic composition

C

418

In females, one of the X chromosomes is inactivated by __________.

A. the number of dominant genes present on each X chromosome

B. enzymes coded for by mitochondrial DNA

C. environmental factors

D. epigenetic markers

D

419

When the two alleles controlling a trait are different, the individual is __________ for the trait.

A. dominant

B. homozygous

C. heterozygous

D. recessive

C

420

An allele that is able to mask the expression of its partner allele is said to be __________.

A. dominant

B. homozygous

C. recessive

D. heterozygous

A

421

A person's genetic makeup is referred to as his or her genotype.

True

False

True

422

An organism with five pairs of homologous chromosomes could produce __________ different gametes on the basis of independent assortment alone.

A. 6

B. 8

C. 32

D. 45

C

423

The larger the number of offspring, the greater the likelihood that the observed ratios will conform to the values predicted by the Punnett square.

True

False

True

424

Many genetic disorders, such as albinism, cystic fibrosis, and Tay-Sachs disease, are inherited as simple recessive traits.

True

False

True

425

Codominant alleles are present in __________.

A. dominant-recessive inheritance

B. polygene inheritance

C. multiple-allele inheritance

D. sex-linked inheritance

C

426

The X and Y sex chromosomes are the best examples of homologous chromosomes.

True

False

False

427

Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic levels of gene control?

A. protein-coding genes

B. epigenetic marks

C. mutations

D. small RNAs

C

428

Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling are both examples of a category of genetic screening called __________.

A. genomic imprinting

B. fetal testing

C. carrier recognition

D. human gene therapy

B

429

How many chromosomes are in a normal haploid human cell? A. 10

B. 20

C. 23

D. 46

C

430

Linked genes are __________.

A. on the same chromosome

B. on different chromosomes

C. usually dominant

D. usually recessive

A

431

Use the following information to solve the problem using a Punnett square: Assume that the dominant B allele encodes brown eyes and the recessive b allele encodes blue eyes. An individual with the genotype bb has children with an individual of the genotype Bb. What is the percent chance that they would have children with blue eyes?

A. 0%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 100%

C

432

Red-green color blindness exhibits __________ inheritance.

A. sex-linked

B. dominant-recessive

C. multiple-allele

D. polygene

A

433

Match the following electrolyte with its appropriate description and location: Na+.

A. Least abundant positive electrolyte in extracellular fluid

B. Most abundant negative electrolyte in intracellular fluid

C. Most abundant negative electrolyte in extracellular fluid

D. Most abundant positive electrolyte in intracellular fluid

E. Most abundant positive electrolyte in extracellular fluid

E

434

Match the following electrolyte with its appropriate description and location: K+.

A. Most abundant positive electrolyte in intracellular fluid

B. Most abundant negative electrolyte in extracellular fluid

C. Most abundant positive electrolyte in extracellular fluid

D. Most abundant negative electrolyte in intracellular fluid

E. Least abundant positive electrolyte in extracellular fluid

A

435

Which of the following is not a source of acid?

A. Fat metabolism

B. Anaerobic respiration of glucose produces lactic acid

C. Inspiration of carbon dioxide

D. Loading and transport of carbon dioxide

E. Breakdown of phosphorus-containing proteins

C

436

Match the following electrolyte with its appropriate description and location: Cl-.

A. Most abundant negative electrolyte in extracellular fluid

B. Most abundant positive electrolyte in extracellular fluid

C. Least abundant positive electrolyte in extracellular fluid

D. Most abundant negative electrolyte in intracellular fluid

E. Most abundant positive electrolyte in intracellular fluid

A

437

When the concentration of Na+ in the ECF decreases __________.

A. osmoreceptors are stimulated

B. there is an increase in the level of ANP

C. more ADH is released

D. there is an increase in the level of aldosterone

E. a person experiences an increased thirst

D

438

Which of the following is incorrect?

A. When respiratory system problems cause the pH imbalance, the resulting condition is either respiratory acidosis or respiratory alkalosis.

B. Anything that impairs respiratory system functioning causes acid-base imbalances.

C. Ventilation will have a significant effect on pH but will remain within normal physiological limits.

C

439

Which of the following is the correct sequence of buffer system response?

A. Chemical buffers, renal, respiratory system

B. Renal, chemical buffers, respiratory system

C. Respiratory system, renal, chemical buffers

D. Chemical buffers, respiratory system, renal

D

440

All of the following would occur if there was an increase in plasma osmolality except

A. production of large amounts of urine

B. concentrated urine

C. release of ADH

D. thirst

A

441

Which of the following is the most important process affected by calcium levels?

A. Neuromuscular excitability

B. Secretory behavior.

C. Blood clotting

D. Cell membrane permeability

A

442

Match the following condition with its possible cause and/or consequence: Hyponatremia.

A. Promotes net osmosis into tissue cells, causing them to swell as they become abnormally hydrated

B. An atypical fluid accumulation in the interstitial space, leading to tissue swelling

C. When water output exceeds intake over a period of time

A

443

The most important factor that influences K+ secretion is

A. The concentration of K+ in the ECF

B. water balance in the body

C. the level of aldosterone in the plasma

D. the concentration of Na+ in blood plasma

A

444

All of the following would occur if there was an increase in plasma osmolality except

A. concentrated urine

B. release of ADH

C. production of large amounts of urine

D. thirst

C

445

Match the electrolyte balance term with the correct characteristic: Hyperkalemia.

A. Vitamin D deficiency can be a cause

B. An excess amount of potassium in the ECF

C. A condition that results from water intoxication

D. The hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels

B

446

Match the following condition with its causes: Respiratory acidosis.

A. Severe diarrhea; renal disease; untreated diabetes mellitus; starvation; excess alcohol ingestion

B. Any condition that impairs gas exchange or lung ventilation; rapid, shallow breathing; narcotic or barbiturate overdose or injury to brain stem

C. Hyperventilation; brain tumor or injury

D. Vomiting; selected diuretics; ingestion of excessive amount of sodium bicarbonate; constipation; excess aldosterone

B

447

Identify the possible causes of hypocalcemia

A. Hyperparathyroidism; excessive vitamin D; prolonged immobilization; renal disease (decreased excretion); malignancy

B. Decreased neuromuscular excitability leading to cardiac arrhythmias and arrest, skeletal muscle weakness, confusion, stupor, and coma; kidney stones; nausea and vomiting.

C. Increased neuromuscular excitability leading to tingling fingers, tremors, skeletal muscle cramps, tetany, convulsions; depressed excitability of the heart; osteomalacia; fractures.

D. Burns (calcium trapped in damaged tissues); hypoparathyroidism; vitamin D deficiency; renal tubular disease; renal failure; hyperphosphatemia; diarrhea; alkalosis

D

448

Match the following buffer system with its correct product: HCl + Na2HPO4.

A. H2CO3 + NaCl

B. NaH2PO4 + NaCl

C. NaHCO3 + H2O

D. Na2HPO4 + H2O

B

449

Identify the possible consequences of hypercalcemia

A. Burns (calcium trapped in damaged tissues); hypoparathyroidism; vitamin D deficiency; renal tubular disease; renal failure; hyperphosphatemia; diarrhea; alkalosis

B. Decreased neuromuscular excitability leading to cardiac arrhythmias and arrest, skeletal muscle weakness, confusion, stupor, and coma; kidney stones; nausea and vomiting.

C. Increased neuromuscular excitability leading to tingling fingers, tremors, skeletal muscle cramps, tetany, convulsions; depressed excitability of the heart; osteomalacia; fractures.

D. Hyperparathyroidism; excessive vitamin D; prolonged immobilization; renal disease (decreased excretion); malignancy

B

450

Match the following buffer systems with its correct product: HCl + NaHCO3.

A. NaHCO3 + H2O

B. Na2HPO4 + H2O

C. H2CO3 + NaCl

D. NaH2PO4 + NaCl

C

451

Match the following electrolyte with its description: HPO42-

A. Major extracellular anion

B. Major intracellular anion

C. Major intracellular cation

D. Major extracellular cation

B

452

Match the following electrolyte with its description: HPO42-.

A. Major intracellular anion

B. Major extracellular anion

C. Major intracellular cation

D. Major extracellular cation

A

453

__________ can be caused by burns (calcium trapped in damaged tissues); hypoparathyroidism; vitamin D deficiency; renal tubular disease; renal failure; hyperphosphatemia; diarrhea; alkalosis

hypocalcemia

454

Cardiac arrhythmias, flattened T wave; muscular weakness; metabolic alkalosis; mental confusion; nausea; vomiting can be possible consequences of __________.

hypokalemia

455

Most common signs are those of neurologic dysfunction due to brain swelling. If sodium amounts are normal but water is excessive, the symptoms are the same as those of water excess: mental confusion; giddiness; coma if development occurs slowly; muscular twitching, irritability, and convulsions if the condition develops rapidly. In hyponatremia accompanied by water loss, the main signs are decreased blood volume and blood pressure (circulatory shock) are possible consequences of _______

hyponatremia

456

Increased neuromuscular excitability leading to tingling fingers, tremors, skeletal muscle cramps, tetany, convulsions; depressed excitability of the heart; osteomalacia; fractures are the possible consequences of _____

hypocalcemia

457

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea; bradycardia; cardiac arrhythmias, depression, and arrest; skeletal muscle weakness; flaccid paralysis are possible consequences of ________

hyperkalemia

458

Dehydration; uncommon in healthy individuals; may occur in infants or the confused aged (individuals unable to indicate thirst) or may result from excessive intravenous NaCl administration are the possible causes of __________

hypernatremia

459

Decreased neuromuscular excitability leading to cardiac arrhythmias and arrest, skeletal muscle weakness, confusion, stupor, and coma; kidney stones; nausea and vomiting are the possible consequences of _____

hypercalcemia

460

Gastrointestinal tract disturbances (vomiting, diarrhea), gastric suction; Cushing’s syndrome; inadequate dietary intake (starvation); hyperaldosteronism; diuretic therapy are possible causes of ______

hypokalemia

461

Solute loss, water retention, or both (e.g., excessive Na+ loss through vomiting, diarrhea, burned skin, gastric suction, or excessive use of diuretics); deficiency of aldosterone (Addison’s disease); renal disease; excess ADH release; excess H2O ingestion are possible causes of _____

hyponatremia

462

Renal failure; deficit of aldosterone; rapid intravenous infusion of KCl; burns or severe tissue injuries that cause K+ to leave cells are the possible causes of _____

hyperkalemia

463

Thirst. CNS dehydration leads to confusion and lethargy progressing to coma; increased neuromuscular irritability evidenced by twitching and convulsions are possible consequences of _____

hypernatremia

464

Hyperparathyroidism; excessive vitamin D; prolonged immobilization; renal disease (decreased excretion); malignancy are possible causes of ________

hypercalcemia