Test 2

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1

What is the main function of the lymphatic system?

A. The lymphatic system produces high fluid pressures.

B. The lymphatic system transports blood and lymph throughout the body.

C. The lymphatic system returns leaked fluid and plasma proteins that escape from the bloodstream to the blood.

D. The lymphatic system makes blood cells through a process known as hematopoiesis

C

2

Which statement describes the origin of lymph fluid?

A. Lymph is collected from fluid that accumulates in veins as blood slowly circulates back toward the heart.

B. Lymph is collected from atrial to venous anastomoses.

C. Lymph is excess fluid formed from plasma that accumulates in the tissues as interstitial fluid.

D. Lymph is secreted into the lymph vessel

C

3

Which of the following gases has NO effect in the blood until hyperbaric conditions occur, such as in scuba diving, and can form bubbles in blood when an individual surfaces too quickly?

a. carbon monoxide

b. oxygen

c. helium

d. carbon dioxide

e. nitrogen

e

4

Which of the following areas in a secondary lymphoid organ allows intimate contact between blood and the lymphocytes?

A. germinal centers of the lymph nodes

B. Hassall's corpuscles of the thymus

C. white pulp of the spleen

D. red pulp of the spleen

C

5

Where in the lymph node do the T cells first encounter antigens presented by dendritic cells?

A. deep in the cortex

B. germinal centers of the cortex

C. medullary cords in the medulla

D. lymphoid follicles of the outer cortex

A

6

Collections of lymphoid tissues, called MALT, are strategically placed throughout the respiratory, digestive, and genitourinary systems. Which one of these is located at the end of the small intestine?

A. appendix

B. tonsils

C. Peyer's patches

C

7

There is a decrease in our ability to fight infection as we age. Which lymphoid organ may have a role in this decline?

A. thymus

B. spleen

C. lymph node

A

8

What region of the lymph node contains follicles filled with dividing B cells?

A. hilus

B. subcapsular sinus

C. cortex

D. meulla

C

9

What region of the lymph node contains follicles filled with dividing B cells?

A. hilus

B. subcapsular sinus

C. cortex

D. meulla

C

10

Lymphatic ________ are formed from the union of the largest collecting lymphatic vessels.

A. nodes

B. ducts

C. capillaries

D. trunks

D

11

From the right leg, lymph moves in which order?

A. right lumbar trunk, thoracic duct, left subclavian vein

B. right lumbar trunk, right lymphatic duct, right subclavian vein

C. right lumbar trunk, thoracic duct, right subclavian vein

D. right lumbar trunk, right lymphatic duct, left subclavian vein

A

12

What is the function of the mini-valves in lymph capillaries?

A. increase permeability

B. reduce pressure in the lymphatic capillary

C. connect to blood capillaries

D. enforce a one way flow from lymphatic system into capillary bed

A

13

Which of the following mechanisms is NOT used to propel lymph through lymphatic vessels?

A. pulmonary motion

B. the milking action of muscles

C. small heart-like pumps

D. gravity

C

14

Where are the three large clusters of superficial lymph nodes?

A. the cervical, acromial, and mammary regions

B. the axillary, brachial, and subclavian regions

C. the cervical, inguinal, and axillary regions

D. the lumbar, inguinal, and femoral regions

C

15

Which of the following vessels delivers lymph into the junction of the internal jugular vein and the subclavian vein?

A. subclavian trunk

B. thoracic duct

C. cisterna chyli

D. jugular trunk

B

16

Once collected, lymph ultimately drains into __________.

A. the liver for detoxification

B. lymph nodes

C. venous circulation

D. arterial circulation

C

17

Describe IgD

A. large, pentamer-shaped antibody

B. most abundant class of antibodies

C. antigen receptor found on B cells

D. antibody that mediates some allergies

E. dimeric antibody found in body secretions

c

18

When the lymphatic structures of a limb are blocked due to tumors, the result is ________.

A. shrinkage of tissues distal in the limb to the blockage due to inadequate delivery of lymph

B. severe localized edema distal to the blockage of that limb

C. increased pressure in the lymphatics proximal in the limb to the blockage

D. abnormally high lymph drainage from the distal region

B

19

Describe IgA

A. large, pentamer-shaped antibody

B. most abundant class of antibodies

C. antigen receptor found on B cells

D. antibody that mediates some allergies

E. dimeric antibody found in body secretions

e

20

What structures direct lymph into the bloodstream?

A. lymphatic capillaries

B. right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct

C. lumbar, bronchomediastinal, subclavian, and jugular trunks

D. cisterna chyli

B

21

Which of the following statements about the lymphatic system is correct?

A. Lymph travels first through large trunks, then through smaller vessels, and then into lymph capillaries.

B. Lymph vessels are thick-walled, much like arteries of the circulatory system.

C. Lymph vessels are located in superficial layers of the skin and demonstrate a pulse.

D. Lymph vessels carry lymph in only one direction: toward the heart.

D

22

Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?

A. transport absorbed fats to the bloodstream

B. transport oxygen to body tissues

C. transport excess interstitial fluid to the bloodstream

D. transport invading bacteria and viruses to lymph nodes

B

23

Which of these lymphoid organs is part of a collection of tissues called the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT) and removes pathogens entering the pharynx (throat)?

A. Tonsils

B. Thymus

C. Spleen

D. Peyer’s patches

A

24

Which lymphoid organ extracts aged and defective blood cells and platelets from the blood in addition to storing some of the breakdown products for later reuse?

A. Tonsils

B. Thymus

C. Spleen

D. Peyer’s patches

C

25

Which of these lymphoid organs destroys bacteria before it can breach the intestinal wall and generates “memory” lymphocytes for long-term memory?

A. Tonsils

B. Thymus

C. Spleen

D. Peyer’s patches

D

26

Which of these lymphatic organs is organized with trabeculae and compartments containing white pulp and red pulp?

A. Tonsils

B. Thymus

C. Spleen

D. Peyer’s patches

C

27

Which lymph cells produce antibodies?

A. plasma cells

B. dendritic cells

C. reticular cells

D. macrophages

A

28

Which cells are the main "warriors" of the immune system?

A. lymphocytes

B. monocytes

C. basophils

D. macrophages

A

29

Which of the following is considered a primary lymphoid organ?

A. thymus

B. tonsils

C. spleen

D. appendix

A

30

Which of the following lymphoid cells trap antigens and transport them to lymph nodes?

A. plasma cells

B. dendritic cells

C. T lymphocytes

D. Macrophages

B

31

Which lymphoid organ(s) serve(s) as the site where B lymphocytes become immunocompetent B cells?

A. tonsils

B. red bone marrow

C. thyroid gland

D. thymus gland

B

32

The filtration of lymph and activation of the immune system are the two basic functions of the

A. Peyer's patches

B. tonsils

C. lymph nodes

D. spleen

C

33

Which of the following is NOT considered a lymph node function?

A. to filter blood

B. to transport lymph

C. to fight infection

D. to house immune cells

A

34

What causes the increased size of an activated cervical lymph node during infection?

A. fluid accumulation

B. lymph backflow

C. lymphocyte division

D. low pressure

C

35

Which part of the spleen is the site of immune function?

A. red pulp

B. white pulp

C. splenic cords

D. splenic sinusoids

B

36

Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ________.

A. lymph nodes

B. T lymphocytes

C. medullary cords

D. plasma cells

D

37

Which of the following lymph organs is NOT matched with its function?

A. Peyer's patches: mature B cells

B. thymus: mature T cells

C. bone marrow: form lymphocytes

D. spleen: remove red blood cells

A

38

With what does our immune system coat pathogens to facilitate their capture and accelerate phagocytosis?

A. histamine

B. mucin

C. defensins

D. opsonins

D

39

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Natural Killer (NK) cells?

A. NK cells attack transplanted organs.

B. NK cells attack infected or cancerous cells.

C. NK cells induce the target cell to undergo “apoptosis” (cell suicide).

D. NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane.

D

40

Which of the following innate internal defenses work by interfering with viral replication?

A. interferons

B. phagocytes

C. complement proteins

D. T lymphocytes

A

41

How do phagocytes recognize foreign cells or bacteria?

A. The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells.

B. All the foreign cells or bacteria are marked with opsonins that the phagocytes recognize.

C. The phagocytes look for the absence of “self” proteins.

D. Phagocytes recognize a specific antigen on the cell surface.

A

42

Which of the innate defense mechanisms can lyse bacteria and mark cells for phagocytosis?

A. interferons

B. complement proteins

C. natural killer (NK) cells

D. cytokines

B

43

Which of the following can act as opsonins on bacteria, thus enhancing phagocytosis?

A. T cells

B. interferons

C. natural killer (NK) cells

D. antibodies and complement proteins

D

44

What constitutes the body's first line of defense against disease?

A. the adaptive defense system

B. intact skin and mucous membranes

C. antimicrobial proteins and various phagocytic cells

D. inflammation

B

45

Which lymphoid organ atrophies as we age?

A. spleen

B. tonsils

C. appendix

D. thymus

D

46

Four (or five) cardinal signs indicate inflammation. What specific sign of inflammation is the result of exudate in the tissue spaces?

A. edema (swelling)

B. heat

C. impaired function

D. redness

A

47

Which cells secrete histamines that trigger inflammatory pathways?

A. NK cells

B. mast cells

C. macrophages

D. neutrophils

B

48

What characterizes the chemotaxis phase of phagocyte mobilization?

A. Neutrophils actively ingest bacteria.

B. Neutrophils and other WBCs migrate up the gradient of chemotactic agents to the site of injury.

C. Neutrophils cling to the inner walls of capillaries and postcapillary venules.

D. Neutrophils flatten to squeeze between the endothelial cells of the capillary walls.

B

49

What characterizes the diapedesis phase of phagocyte mobilization?

A. margination

B. leukocytosis

C. Neutrophils flatten to squeeze between the endothelial cells of the capillary walls.

D. chemotaxis

C

50

How do interferons protect against viral infection in healthy cells?

A. Interferons perform opsonization to coat microorganisms.

B. Interferons activate complement.

C. Interferons promote fever, or an abnormally high body temperature.

D. Interferons block viral reproduction in healthy cells through the production of antiviral proteins.

D

51

Membrane attack complex (MAC) kills by ________.

A. disrupting the selectively permeability of a bacteria's plasma membrane

B. penetrating the capsule of the bacteria giving antibiotic drugs access to bacterial cells

C. providing a passage for antibodies to enter into the bacterial cytosol

D. allowing the organelles to spill free from the bacteria

A

52

Natural killer (NK) cells ________.

A. can kill cancer cells before the adaptive immune system is activated

B. are cells of the adaptive immune system

C. are also called cytotoxic T cells

D. are a type of phagocyte

A

53

What type of immune system cell performs the most phagocytosis in the body?

A. natural killer, or NK, cells

B. B lymphocytes.

C. neutrophils

D. macrophages

D

54

Which of the following inflammatory chemicals is/are released by mast cells?

A. complement

B. prostaglandins

C. histamine

D. kinins

C

55

Which type of chemical induces fever?

A. complement

B. antibodies

C. pyrogens

D. interferon

C

56

All but one of the following occur during the inflammatory response. Select the example below that does not describe the process of inflammation.

A. Vasoconstriction will prevent excessive blood loss due to injury.

B. Chemotaxis draws leucocytes to the site of injury.

C. Increases capillary permeability.

D. Release of prostaglandins resulting in pain.

A

57

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________.

A. vasoconstriction

B. complement production

C. phagocyte mobilization

D. vasodilation

D

58

Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?

A. phagocytes

B. gastric juice

C. keratin

D. cilia

A

59

The primary immune response ________.

A. occurs when memory cells are stimulated

B. occurs more rapidly and is stronger than the secondary response

C. is another name for immunological memory

D. has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells

D

60

The antivenom used to treat venomous snake bites is an antibody produced in an animal such as a horse. Suppose these antibodies are injected into a patient who has been bitten by a venomous snake--how would you classify the resulting humoral immunity?

A. passive immunity, artificially acquired

B. active immunity, naturally acquired

C. active immunity, artificially acquired

D. passive immunity, naturally acquired

A

61

How does a lymphocyte exhibit immunocompetence?

A. by rapidly proliferating to form an army of cells exactly like themselves and bearing the same antigen-specific receptors

B. by being relatively unresponsive to self-antigens so that they do not attack the body’s own cells

C. by being able to recognize their one specific antigen

D. by recognizing self-antigen

C

62

Select the correct statement about antigens.

A. Only small antigens exhibit reactivity.

B. The largest type of antigen is called a hapten.

C. "Self-antigens" is another name for incomplete antigens.

D. One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

D

63

Adaptive defenses require us to use what molecules that can identify whether a cell is a self or nonself cell?

A. interferons

B. antibodies

C. complement proteins

D. antigens

B

64

Forms antibody producing cells

B cells

65

Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells

Cytotoxic T cell

66

Absence results in no immune response

Helper T cell

67

Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen

Memory cell

68

Slows or stops the immune response

Regulatory T cell

69

Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called ________.

A. ions

B. reagins

C. haptens

D. antibodies

C

70

Which of the area must be occupied by T lymphocytes, at least for a while, but is NOT required for the production of B lymphocytes?

A. the bone marrow

B. lymph nodes

C. the thymus

D. the general circulation

C

71

Proliferation of lymphocytes occurs immediately after

A. Release from the bone marrow

B. entering the circulation

C. seeding of secondary lymphoid organs

D. activation

D

72

Which of the following are antigen-presenting cells (APC)?

A. B cells

B. memory cells

C. natural killer cells

D. T cells

A

73

Select the best description of the negative selection process of lymphocyte maturation.

A. teaching a lymphocyte to recognize "self" from foreign antigens

B. removal of lymphocytes that fail to recognize "self" cells

C. allowing the survival of lymphocytes that cannot bind to MHC proteins

D. removal of lymphocytes that react with "self" cells

D

74

Without the positive selection process in lymphocyte maturation ________.

A. T-cells would not be able to properly bind to APC's and therefore not be activated by them

B. autoimmune diseases would be likely to result

C. monocytes would not be able to migrate into infected tissue and differentiate into macrophages

D. NK cells would be non-functional

A

75

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.

A. bone marrow

B. lymph nodes

C. thymus

D. spleen

A

76

Which of the following cells engulf antigens and present fragments of them on their own surfaces for recognition?

A. plasma cells

B. T lymphocytes

C. NK cells

D. dendritic cells

D

77

What part of the antibody’s structure determines its class?

A. light (L) chain

B. variable (V) region

C. heavy (H) chain

D. constant (C) region

D

78

How many sites on this antibody molecule have potential to bind to a non-self molecule?

1

2

3

4

2

79

Which of the following occurs when antibodies block specific sites on viruses or bacterial exotoxins?

A. complement fixation and activation

B. neutralization

C. agglutination

D. precipitation

B

80

What class of antibody acts to clump red blood cells because of a transfusion of mismatched blood?

A. immunoglobulin A (IgA)

B. immunoglobulin D (IgD)

C. immunoglobulin G (IgG)

D. immunoglobulin M (IgM)

D

81

Which mechanism(s) of antibody action result(s) in cell lysis?

A. complement fixation and activation

B. precipitation

C. neutralization

D. agglutination

A

82

Which of the following statements regarding the primary versus the secondary immune response is true?

A. The antibodies produced in a primary response bind to antigens more efficiently than the antibodies produced in a secondary immune response.

B. A primary response leads to higher levels of antibodies than does a secondary response.

C. A primary response occurs faster than a secondary response.

D. A primary response results when naive lymphocytes are activated, while a secondary response is a result of activating memory cells.

D

83

Vaccines provide what type of immunity?

A. natural passive

B. artificial active

C. natural active

D. artificial passive

B

84

In clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned?

A. complement

B. antibody

C. antigen

D. interferon

C

85

Which immunoglobulin class is attached to the external surface of B cells and acts as an antigen receptor of the B cell?

A. IgA

B. IgM

C. IgE

D. IgD

E. IgG

D

86

What type of cell is the precursor to the helper T cell?

A. memory T cell

B. regulatory T cell

C. CD4 cell

D. CD8 cell

C

87

Where does most exogenous antigen presentation take place?

A. in the thymus

B. in blood plasma

C. in the bone marrow

D. in lymphoid tissues and organs

D

88

Which of the following activate CD8 cells?

A. peptides containing 14-17 amino acids

B. antigens on class II MHC proteins

C. exogenous antigens

D. antigen fragments on class I MHC proteins

D

89

What type of T cell can directly attack and kill other cells, such as virus-infected cells?

A. helper T (TH) cells

B. regulatory T (TReg) cells

C. APC

D. cytotoxic T (TC) cells

D

90

Which of these mechanisms do cytotoxic T (TC) cells use to destroy a target--that is, deliver a lethal hit?

A. opsonization

B. agglutination of target cells

C. perforation of the membrane

D. the seeking of cells lacking class I MHC proteins

C

91

Which type of T cell will recognize antigens associated with an organ transplant?

A. regulatory T (TReg) cell

B. CD8 cells

C. helper T (TH) cells

D. cytotoxic T (TC) cells

D

92

T cells achieve self-tolerance in the __________

A. lymph nodes

B. thymus

C. tonsils

D. bone marrow

B

93

Which lymphocytes act as the bridge between the cellular and humoral responses?

A. B cells

B. cytotoxic T cells

C. regulatory T cells

D. helper T cells

D

94

What occurs if a T cell binds to an antigen and the T cell does NOT receive a co-stimulatory signal?

A. The T cell releases interleukins.

B. The T cell is activated.

C. The T cell enters a state of anergy.

D. The T cell becomes a memory cell.

C

95

Activated CD8 cells become __________.

A. helper T cells

B. NK cells

C. B cells

D. cytotoxic T cells

D

96

Which of the following are NOT appropriately matched?

A. B cells: produce free antibodies

B. cytotoxic T cells: destroy virally infected cells

C. helper T cells: destroy infected cells

D. macrophages: antigen-presenting cells

C

97

Which class of tissue graft is the LEAST likely to be accepted by a patient's body?

A. isograft

B. allograft

C. xenograft

D. autograft

C

98

T-cell activation requires ________.

A. antigen binding and antibody production

B. antigen binding, antibody production, and co-stimulation

C. antigen binding and co-stimulation

D. antibody production and co-stimulation

C

99

Immunocompetence ________.

A. is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it

B. requires exposure to an antigen

C. occurs in one specific organ of the adaptive immune system

D. prevents intercellular communication so that only specific cell types respond to the invader

A

100

Helper T cells ________.

A. bind tightly to target cells and release a lymphotoxin called perforin

B. function in the adaptive immune system activation

C. release B7 proteins

D. often function to decrease the immune response

B

101

Which of the following cells has the largest role and most widespread effect on immunity?

A. cytotoxic T cell

B. helper T cell

C. B cell

D. APC

B

102

Class II MHC proteins are found on which of the following cell types?

A. antigen-presenting cells

B. all nucleated cells

B

103

Which class of MHC proteins presents exogenous antigens?

A. class II MHC proteins

B. class I MHC proteins

B

104

Class I MHC proteins are recognized by which of the following cell types (that are destined to become T cells)?

A. CD4

B. CD8

B

105

Which of the following types of cells display protein fragments produced by the cancer within them?

A. macrophages

B. all nucleated cells

C. B cells

D. dendritic cells

B

106

Which major class of lymphocytes become cytotoxic T cells?

A. CD6 cells

B. CD4 cells

C. CD8 cells

C

107

Which of the following are NOT correctly matched?

A. severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID): genetic defect resulting in a shortage of B and/or T cells

B. multiple sclerosis: autoimmune disorder

C. AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome): helper T cells are destroyed by a virus

D. immediate hypersensitivity: allergic contact dermatitis

D

108

Which of the following examples below describes an autoimmune disease?

A. Release of bacterial endotoxins that block acetylcholine release result in muscle paralysis.

B. Antibody binding to acetylcholine receptors of the motor end plate resulting in muscle weakness.

C. Infection and death of T-helper cells by a virus, resulting in a loss of adaptive immunity.

D. Uncontrolled cell division resulting in cell surface abnormalities recognized by NK cells.

B

109

Allergens differ from antigens because ________.

A. allergens produce an abnormally large immune response to what is an otherwise harmless particle

B. allergens do not involve the leucocytes, they simply stimulate the inflammatory response

C. allergens are only active seasonally and are generally harmless to the body

D. allergens are primarily plant derived while antigens are bacterial or viral in nature

A

110

Select the correct statement about immunodeficiency.

A. The causative agent in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a virus that recognizes CD4 proteins.

B. The most common form of immunodeficiency is graft-versus-host (GVH) disease.

C. Hodgkin's disease is a hereditary immunodeficiency found in children.

D. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) disease is an acquired condition.

A

111

Tears and mucus membranes would be a part of which defense system?

A. innate external defenses

B. innate internal defenses

C. adaptive defenses.

A

112

Phagocytotic cells such as macrophages identify a variety of enemies by recognizing markers unique to pathogens. They would be classified as which type of defense system?

A. innate internal defenses

B. innate external defenses

C. adaptive defenses

A

113

What cells make antibodies?

A. memory T cells

B. cytotoxic T cells

C. plasma B cells

D. memory B cells

C

114

What is the name of the unique area (specific region) that a lymphocyte recognizes and binds to?

A. antibody

B. an antigenic determinant

C. antigen

D. pathogen

B

115

What type of immunity can be transferred by bodily fluids from one person to another, thus conferring immunity to the recipient?

A. cellular immunity

B. cell-mediated immunity

C. humoral immunity

C

116

If a virus attacks a cell, which type of immunity would be activated?

A. humoral immunity

B. cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)

C. antibody-mediated immunity

B

117

Cancer cells would be attacked by which of the following cells?

A. Cytotoxic T cells

B. B cells

C. Macrophages

A

118

Which of the following processes is NOT properly matched with its description?

A. transport of respiratory gases: hemoglobin binds O2

B. internal respiration: O2 diffuses out of the blood

C. external respiration: CO2 diffuses into the blood stream

D. pulmonary ventilation: bulk movement of gases

C

119

Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal conchae?

A. filtering, heating, and moistening incoming air during inhalation

B. routing air and food into proper channels

C. increasing the mucosal surface area exposed to air

D. reclaiming heat and moisture from expired air

B

120

Which of the following is the region where the respiratory path has to cross the digestive pathway?

A. esophagus

B. trachea

C. larynx

D. pharynx

D

121

Which of these structures is/are NOT properly matched with one of its/their functions?

A. nasal conchae: create turbulence for incoming air

B. nasopharynx: conduct air toward and from the larynx

C. paranasal sinuses: surface for odor receptors

D. pharyngeal tonsil: immune response

C

122

The adenoids normally destroy pathogens because they contain ______.

A. white pulp that performs immune functions

B. red pulp that performs immune functions

C. lymph nodes

D. lymphocytes

D

123

Which of the following plays a role in removing particles such as dust from inspired air?

A. ciliated mucous lining in the nose

B. abundant blood supply to nasal mucosa

C. porous structure of turbinate bones

D. action of the epiglottis

A

124

What part of the larynx covers the laryngeal inlet during swallowing to keep food out of the lower respiratory passages?

A. glottis

B. vocal folds

C. thyroid cartilage

D. epiglottis

D

125

Which cartilage belonging to the larynx anchors vocal cords?

A. cricoid cartilage

B. epiglottis

C. arytenoid cartilage

D. thyroid cartilage

C

126

What type of epithelial tissue forms the walls of the alveoli?

A. stratified squamous epithelium

B. simple cuboidal epithelium

C. simple squamous epithelium

D. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

C

127

In children with infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS), the walls of the alveoli cling to each other and make them difficult to inflate. It is common in babies born prematurely. What cells in these infants are NOT fully developed and are NOT doing their job?

A. endothelial cells of alveolar capillaries

B. type II alveolar cells

C. alveolar macrophages

D. type I alveolar cells

B

128

Tracheal obstruction by a large piece of food typically involves obstruction of the ______.

A. carina

B. trachealis muscle

C. larynx

D. tracheal cartilage

C

129

The main site of gas exchange is the ________.

A. alveoli

B. alveolar sacs

C. respiratory bronchiole

D. alveolar duct

A

130

The respiratory membrane is a combination of ________.

A. respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts

B. atria and alveolar sacs

C. respiratory bronchioles and alveolar sacs

D. alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes

D

131

Which of the following is a conducting zone structure?

A. alveolar sac

B. respiratory bronchiole

C. alveolar duct

D. terminal bronchiole

D

132

Which of the following cavities surround(s) the lungs alone?

A. thoracic cavity

B. pleural cavities

C. mediastinum

D. pericardial cavity

B

133

The indentation on the medial surface of each lung through which pulmonary and systemic blood vessels, bronchi, lymphatic vessels, and nerves enter and leave is called the __________.

A. base

B. hilum

C. apex

D. cardiac notch

B

134

Which of the following pressures rises and falls with the phases of breathing but eventually equalizes with the atmospheric pressure?

A. transpulmonary pressure

B. atmospheric pressure

C. intrapleural pressure

D. intrapulmonary pressure

D

135

Which of the following pressures must remain negative to prevent lung collapse?

A. atmospheric pressure

B. intrapulmonary pressure

C. intrapleural pressure

D. transpulmonary pressure

C

136

Calculate the intrapleural pressure if atmospheric pressure is 765 millimeters of mercury, assuming that the subject is at rest (not inhaling or exhaling).

A. 4 millimeters of mercury

B. 0 millimeters of mercury

C. 761 millimeters of mercury

D. 765 millimeters of mercury

C

137

Which of the following pressure relationships best illustrates when inspiration will occur?

A. Ppul < Pip

B. Ppul = Patm

C. Ppul > Patm

D. Ppul < Patm

D

138

During inhalation,

A. the diaphragm relaxes.

B. oxygen molecules move into the lungs, and carbon dioxide molecules move out of the lungs.

C. air moves up the trachea.

D. the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases.

E. the diaphragm and rib muscles contract.

E

139

From which structures do oxygen molecules move from the lungs to the blood?

A. Nose

B. Bronchi

C. Bronchioles

D. Trachea

E. Alveoli

E

140

Which statement is correct?

A. Oxygen diffuses from large blood vessels into the body's cells.

B. Carbon dioxide diffuses from the alveoli into surrounding capillaries.

C. In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells.

D. As oxygen diffuses from the lungs into capillaries, blood becomes deoxygenated.

E. Oxygen is released from the mitochondria as a product of cellular respiration.

C

141

After blood becomes oxygenated,

A. it does not return to the heart, but goes directly to capillaries that supply the body's cells with oxygen.

B. it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to the lungs.

C. it does not return to the heart, but goes to the nose and mouth.

D. it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells.

E. it does not return to the heart, but goes directly to the lungs.

D

142

Hemoglobin

A. is the site of cellular respiration.

B. is found in blood plasma.

C. uses ATP to move oxygen from blood to body cells.

D. has five subunits.

E. is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen.

E

143

__________ pressure, the difference between the intrapulmonary and intrapleural pressures, prevents the lungs from collapsing.

A. Atmospheric

B. Intra-alveolar

C. Transpulmonary

D. Transthoracic

C

144

Quiet inspiration is __________, and quiet expiration is __________.

A. an active process, a passive process

B. a passive process, also a passive process

C. an active process, also an active process

D. a passive process, an active process

A

145

During inspiration, the external intercostal muscles can work to increase the volume changes that drive ventilation.

True

False

True

146

In pneumothorax, the lung collapses because ______.

A. intrapleural pressure is lower than transpulmonary pressure

B. intrapleural pressure is higher than intrapulmonary pressure

C. intrapulmonary pressure is lower than transpulmonary pressure

D. intrapulmonary pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure

B

147

The relationship between gas pressure and gas volume is described by ________.

A. Boyle's law

B. Dalton's law

C. Charles' law

D. Henry's law

A

148

Which of the choices below describes the forces that act to pull the lungs away from the thorax wall and thus collapse the lungs?

A. compliance and transpulmonary pressures

B. the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and transpulmonary pressures

C. the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid

D. compliance and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid

C

149

Which of the following descriptions accurately describes Boyle’s law?

A. The partial pressure of a gas in the air you breathe in is equal to the total atmospheric pressure times the fractional concentration of the gas.

B. The pressure of gas in your lungs is inversely proportional to the volume in your lungs.

C. How well a gas dissolves in a liquid such as blood depends on both its partial pressure and its solubility.

B

150

Which muscles, when contracted, would increase the volume of air in the thoracic cavity?

A. internal intercostals and external oblique

B. diaphragm and external intercostals

C. diaphragm and internal intercostals

B

151

Which pressure is the result of the natural tendency of the lungs to decrease their size (because of elasticity) and the opposing tendency of the thoracic wall to pull outward and enlarge the lungs?

A. atmospheric pressure

B. intrapulmonary pressure

C. intrapleural pressure

C

152

During an allergic reaction, which of the following would aid respiration?

A. histamine

B. an increase in the parasympathetic nervous system

C. epinephrine

D. acetylcholine (ACh)

C

153

If the transpulmonary pressure equals zero, what will happen to the lung?

A. lungs will inflate

B. lung volume will stay the same

C. lungs will collapse

C

154

What is the total volume of exchangeable air for a normal male?

A. 2400 milliliters

B. 3600 milliliters

C. 4800 milliliters

D. 6000 milliliters

C

155

Which volumes are combined to provide the inspiratory capacity?

A. tidal volume (TV), inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), expiratory reserve volume (ERV), and residual volume (RV)

B. tidal volume (TV) and inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

C. expiratory reserve volume (ERV) and residual volume (RV)

D. tidal volume (TV), inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), and expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

B

156

What is the minute ventilation of an average adult male at rest breathing at a rate of 10 breaths per minute?

A. 5000 milliliters per minute

B. 36,000 milliliters per minute

C. 48,000 milliliters per minute

D. 60,000 milliliters per minute

A

157

The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called ________.

A. reserve air

B. inspiratory reserve volume

C. vital capacity

D. expiratory capacity

B

158

Using spirometry, a patient discovers their forced expiratory volume (FEV) after the first second is 40%. What does this suggest?

A. obstructive pulmonary disease

B. healthy lungs

C. restrictive disease

D. exposure to asbestos

A

159

Which of the following findings consistently matches pulmonary function with problems with ventilation?

A. A person with decreased FVC and increased FEV1 has an obstructive disorder.

B. A person with a decreased FVC and a normal FEV1 has a restrictive disorder.

C. A person with a decreased FVC and FEV1 has an obstructive disorder.

D. A person with a FEV1 below 80% has a restrictive disorder.

B

160

During pneumonia, the lungs become "waterlogged", this means that within the alveoli there is an abnormal accumulation of ______.

A. blood

B. blood plasma

C. interstitial fluid

D. water

C

161

Emphysema can result in an ______.

A. increased level of carbaminohemoglobin

B. increased level of deoxyhemoglobin

C. increased likelihood of the skin of Caucasians developing a slightly blue coloration

D. All of the listed responses are correct.

D

162

For gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be ________.

A. 0.5 to 1 micrometer thick

B. between 5 and 6 micrometers thick

C. at least 3 micrometers thick

D. The thickness of the respiratory membrane is not important in the efficiency of gas exchange.

A

163

The local matching of blood flow with ventilation is ________.

A. ventilation-perfusion coupling

B. chloride shifting

C. the Haldane effect

D. the Bohr effect

A

164

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ________.

A. osmosis

B. diffusion

C. filtration

D. active transport

B

165

Which of the following would induce the loss of oxygen from the hemoglobin and the blood?

A. a decrease in blood temperature

B. a drop in blood pH

C. decreases in plasma carbon dioxide

D. increase in hemoglobin that has oxygen bound to it already

B

166

What is the most common method of carbon dioxide transport?

A. chemically bound to hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin

B. as bicarbonate ions in the plasma

C. dissolved in the plasma

D. chemically bound to hemoglobin as oxyhemoglobin

B

167

Which of the following best describes the chloride shift?

A. Chloride is removed from hemoglobin when carbon dioxide binds to it.

B. Chloride binds bicarbonate and allows more of it to be carried in the bloodstream.

C. Chloride rushes into RBCs to counterbalance the outflow of bicarbonate.

D. Chloride is taken out of the blood to counterbalance the inflow of carbon dioxide.

C

168

Which form of hypoxia reflects poor O2 delivery resulting from too few RBCs or from RBCs that contain abnormal or too little hemoglobin?

A. anemic hypoxia

B. histotoxic hypoxia

C. ischemic (stagnant) hypoxia

D. hypoxemic hypoxia

A

169

Which form of CO2 transport accounts for the least amount of CO2 transported in blood?

A. as bicarbonate ion in plasma

B. chemically bound to hemoglobin

C. as carbon monoxide in plasma

D. dissolved in plasma

D

170

If your core temperature becomes colder, it is more difficult for oxygen to dissociate with hemoglobin at any PO2.

True

False

True

171

With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because a(n) ________.

A. increase in pH (alkalosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

B. increase in pH (alkalosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

C. decrease in pH (acidosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

D. decrease in pH (acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

D

172

Which of the following counteracts the movement of bicarbonate ions from the RBC?

A. chloride shifting

B. release of hydrogen ion

C. the Haldane effect

D. the Bohr effect

A

173

How is the bulk of carbon dioxide transported in blood?

A. chemically combined with the amino acids of hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin in the red blood cells

B. as bicarbonate ions in plasma after first entering the red blood cells

C. chemically combined with the heme portion of hemoglobin

D. as carbonic acid in the plasma

B

174

Which of the choices below is NOT a factor that promotes oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin?

A. partial pressure of carbon dioxide

B. number of red blood cells

C. partial pressure of oxygen

D. temperature

B

175

Which of the following is the primary factor in oxygen's attachment to, or release from, hemoglobin?

A. blood pH

B. partial pressure of oxygen

C. temperature

D. partial pressure of carbon dioxide

B

176

What is the primary form in which oxygen is carried in blood?

A. chemically bound to hemoglobin

B. as a bicarbonate ion in plasma

C. as carbonic acid in plasma

D. dissolved in plasma

A

177

The PO2 in the lungs at sea level is

PO2 of ~100 mm Hg

178

The saturation of hemoglobin in the lungs at sea level is _______at PO2 ~100 mm Hg.

~98% O2 saturation

179

The saturation of hemoglobin in the lungs at high altitude of PO2 ~80 mm Hg is

~95% O2 saturation

180

The saturation of hemoglobin at the lungs at an altitude representing PO2 ~60 mm Hg is closest to

~90% O2 saturation

181

The PO2 in the lungs at a high altitude is

PO2 of ~80 mm Hg

182

A firefighter breathes in air normally as he enters a building following an explosion and fire. He has a meter that predicts the PO2 will approximate 15 mm Hg in his tissue fluids as he actively moves about the room. Select the best statement.

A. The firefighter's hemoglobin saturation will be about one oxygen per hemoglobin, and he will require an external air tank.

B. The large changes in PO2 tissue environments cause only very small changes in hemoglobin O2 saturation, and no oxygen is needed.

C. The S-shaped saturation curve of hemoglobin is flat at this PO2, and O2 saturation doesn’t change much with PO2 changes in mm Hg.

D. The firefighter is at about 10% hemoglobin O2 saturation, and he requires an external air tank.

A

183

Which of the following initiate(s) inspiration?

A. midbrain

B. dorsal respiratory group (DRG)

C. ventral respiratory group (VRG)

D. pontine respiratory centers

C

184

Which of the following modifies and smoothes the respiratory pattern?

A. pontine respiratory centers

B. dorsal respiratory group (DRG)

C. diencephalon

D. ventral respiratory group (VRG)

A

185

Which of the following stimuli is the most powerful respiratory stimulant to increase respiration?

A. arterial pH

B. rising carbon dioxide levels

C. a rise in body temperature

D. an increase in blood pH

B

186

Which of the following conditions or scenarios increases the respiratory rate?

A. an increase in partial pressure of oxygen

B. acidosis

C. a drop in carbon dioxide levels in the blood

D. alkalosis

B

187

Which of the following inhibits/reduces the respiratory rate?

A. a rise in body temperature

B. partial pressure of oxygen below 60 millimeters of mercury at chemoreceptors

C. stimulation of stretch receptors in the lungs

D. elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood

C

188

The symptoms of hyperventilation may be averted by breathing into a paper bag because it ________.

A. lowers blood pH levels

B. reduces brain perfusion by constricting cerebral blood vessels

C. helps retain oxygen in the blood

D. helps retain carbon dioxide in the blood

D

189

Respiratory control centers are located in the ________.

A. midbrain and medulla

B. medulla and pons

C. pons and midbrain

D. upper spinal cord and medulla

B

190

Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include ________.

A. stretch receptors in the alveoli

B. temperature of alveolar air

C. voluntary cortical control

D. thalamic control

C

191

What area in the brain sets the respiratory rhythm?

A. ventral respiratory group (VRG)

B. hypothalamus

C. dorsal respiratory group (DRG)

D. pontine respiratory group (PRG)

A

192

Inspiratory neurons send information to the diaphragm via what nerve?

A. glossopharyngeal nerve

B. vagus nerve

C. intercostal nerves

D. phrenic nerve

D

193

What directly stimulates the central chemoreceptors, thus increasing respiration?

A. low O2 (oxygen)

B. high pH

C. H+ (hydrogen ions)

D. high CO2 (carbon dioxide)

C

194

As a result of hyperventilation, what will happen to the partial pressures of CO2 (pCO2) and pH?

A. decreased pCO2 and decreased pH

B. decreased pCO2 and increased pH

C. increased pCO2 and decreased pH

D. increased pCO2 and increased pH

B

195

Which receptors inhibit inspiration during hyperinflation of the lungs?

A. pulmonary stretch receptors

B. irritant receptors

C. Hypothalamic receptors

D. peripheral chemoreceptors

A

196

What stimulates increased respiration at the beginning of exercise?

A. decreased plasma oxygen levels

B. sensory input from receptors in joints, neural input from the motor cortex, and other factors

C. increased hydrogen ion levels

D. increased plasma carbon dioxide levels

B

197

A homeostatic control mechanism controls respiration. What acts as the effector(s) in this system?

A. respiratory muscles

B. central chemoreceptors

C. peripheral chemoreceptors

D. medulla oblongata

A

198

Which of the following is correct regarding acclimatization?

A. High-altitude conditions always result in lower-than-normal hemoglobin saturation levels because less O2 is available to be loaded.

B. At high altitudes, hemoglobin's affinity for O2 is increased because BPG concentrations increase.

C. Decreases in arterial PO2 cause the peripheral chemoreceptors to become less responsive to increases in PCO2.

D. When blood O2 levels decline, the kidneys produce more erythropoietin, which stimulates breakdown of red blood cells in the spleen.

A

199

Which of the following is NOT a form of lung cancer?

A. Kaposi's sarcoma

B. squamous cell carcinoma

C. adenocarcinoma

D. small cell carcinoma

A

200

Which of the disorders below is characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing abnormally large air spaces that remain filled with air during exhalation?

A. coryza

B. emphysema

C. tuberculosis

D. pneumonia

B

201

In chronic bronchitis, mucus production is decreased and this leads to the inflammation and fibrosis of the mucosal lining of the bronchial tree.

True

False

False

202

_______ has a greater partial pressure in the pulmonary capillaries than in the alveoli, so it diffuses into the _______.

A. O2; pulmonary cavities

B. CO2; pulmonary capillaries

C. CO2; alveoli

D. O2; alveoli

C

203

Despite the fact that the partial pressure difference is so much smaller for CO2, why is there as much CO2 exchanged between the alveoli and blood as there is O2?

A. CO2 is a smaller molecule and diffuses faster than O2.

B. The capillary walls are more permeable to CO2 than O2.

C. CO2 is much more soluble in blood than O2.

C

204

How would the partial pressures of O2 and CO2 change in an exercising muscle?

A. The partial pressure of O2 would increase, and the partial pressure of CO2 would decrease.

B. The partial pressures of O2 and CO2 would remain unchanged.

C. The partial pressure of O2 would decrease, and the partial pressure of CO2 would increase.

C

205

Which way would O2 and CO2 diffuse during internal respiration?

A. Both O2 and CO2 would diffuse into the systemic capillaries.

B. O2 would diffuse into the pulmonary capillaries and CO2 would diffuse into the alveoli.

C. O2 would diffuse into the cells, and CO2 would diffuse into the systemic capillaries.

D. O2 would diffuse into the systemic capillaries, and CO2 would diffuse into the cells.

C

206

Internal and external respiration depends on several factors. Which of the following is NOT an important factor in gas exchange?

A. rate of blood flow through the tissue

B. the molecular weight of the gas

C. available surface area

D. partial pressure of the gases

B

207

Which statement is correct?

A. The greater the available surface area the lower the amount of gas exchange during internal respiration.

B. During external respiration, equilibrium is reached for O2 when the partial pressure for O2 in the pulmonary capillaries and the alveoli are the same.

C. During external respiration, oxygen is unloaded from the blood.

D. During internal respiration, carbon dioxide is unloaded from the blood.

B

208

Blood plasma and lymph are identical except for their respective locations in the body.

True

False

false

209

What part of the lymphatic system is most closely associated with capillary beds?

A. lymphatic trunks

B. lymphatic ducts

C. lymph nodes

D. lymphatic capillaries

D

210

How are collecting lymphatic vessels different from veins?

A. Collecting lymphatic vessels have more internal valves than do veins.

B. Collecting lymphatic vessels have thicker walls than do veins.

C. Collecting lymphatic vessels do not form branches (anastomoses), veins do form branches.

D. Collecting lymphatic vessels have fewer tunics than do veins.

A

211

All lymph is eventually returned to circulation via the __________.

A. venae cavae

B. pulmonary trunk

C. aorta

D. subclavian veins

d

212

Which of the following is NOT a function of lymphatic vessels?

A. transportation of absorbed fat from the intestine to the blood

B. return of leaked proteins to the blood

C. return of excess tissue fluid to the bloodstream

D. delivery of nutrients to tissues

d

213

plasma cell are

A. phagocytic cell

B. captures antigens and brings them back to lymph nodes

C. fibroblast-like cell that produces the reticular fiber stroma

D. produces antibodies

d

214

Macrophage are

A. phagocytic cell

B. captures antigens and brings them back to lymph nodes

C. fibroblast-like cell that produces the reticular fiber stroma

D. produces antibodies

a

215

dendritic cells are

A. phagocytic cell

B. captures antigens and brings them back to lymph nodes

C. fibroblast-like cell that produces the reticular fiber stroma

D. produces antibodies

b

216

reticular cells are

A. phagocytic cell

B. captures antigens and brings them back to lymph nodes

C. fibroblast-like cell that produces the reticular fiber stroma

D. produces antibodies

c

217

Reticular connective tissue is found in all lymphoid organs and tissues.

True

False

false

218

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of lymph nodes?

A. Lymph nodes activate the immune system.

B. Lymph nodes filter lymph.

C. Lymph nodes have a capsule.

D. Lymph nodes produce lymph.

d

219

Which of the following lists the correct order of lymph flow through the lymph node?

A. efferent vessel, subcapsular sinus, medullary sinuses, afferent vessel

B. afferent vessel, subcapsular sinus, medullary sinuses, efferent vessel

C. subcapsular sinus, efferent vessel, afferent vessel, medullary sinuses

D. medullary sinuses, efferent vessel, afferent vessel, subcapsular sinus

B

220

Which of the following is NOT a role of the spleen?

a. to store platelets

b. to break down erythrocytes

c. to serve as a site of T cell maturation

d. to serve as an immune system surveillance organ

C

221

Choose the true statement about the thymus.

a. After puberty, the thymus begins to decrease in size.

b. The thymus contains reticular fibers.

c. The thymus directly fights foreign antigens.

d. B cells and T cells mature in the thymus.

A

222

The main role of the tonsils is to __________.

a. help T cells mature

b. filter lymph

c. gather and remove pathogens entering through the pharynx

d. help B cells mature

c

223

Which of the following is NOT a part of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)?

a. the appendix

b. Peyer's patches

c. the tonsils

d. the spleen

d

224

EXCEPT for the __________, which is/are an endodermal derivative, the lymphoid organs develop from mesodermal mesenchymal cells.

a. appendix

b. thymus

c. tonsils

d. lymph nodes

B

225

One of the major functions of the lymphatic system is __________.

a. maintaining the blood brain barrier

b. bicarbonate synthesis

c. elimination of nitrogenous wastes

d. maintaining blood volume

D

226

Aggregates of lymphoid nodules located in the wall of the ileum of the small intestine are __________.

a. submucosal tonsils

b. ileal tonsils

c. Peyer’s patches

d. Werner’s nodes

e. Appendices

c

227

Collections of lymphoid tissue that guard mucosal surfaces (MALT) include all the following EXCEPT __________.

a. Peyer’s patches

b. the tonsils

c. the thymus

d. the appendix

c

228

In addition to its lymphoid function, which organ holds a reservoir of platelets?

a. spleen

b. tonsil

c. cisterna chyli

d. left lymphatic duct

e. thymus

a

229

What tissue composes the stroma of most lymphoid organs?

a. dense, irregular connective tissue

b. simple squamous epithelium

c. reticular connective tissue

d. dense, regular connective tissue

e. adipose tissue

c

230

Which structure, attached to the cecum, is in an ideal location to destroy bacteria before they breach the intestinal wall?

a. thymus

b. spleen

c. tubal tonsil

d. appendix

e. palatine tonsil

d

231

What lymphatic vessel collects interstitial fluid?

a. collecting vessel

b. lymphatic duct

c. lymphatic capillary

d. cisterna chyli

e. lymphatic trunk

c

232

What lymphatic structure absorbs lipids in the intestine?

a. lacteal

b. lymphatic trunk

c. lymphatic duct

d. collecting vessel

e. Peyer’s patches

a

233

What lymphatic structures trap bacteria in the posterior oral cavity?

a. submandibular tonsils

b. palatine tonsils

c. pharyngeal tonsils

b

234

Which sequence best describes the flow of lymph through the lymphatic system?

a. ducts, trunks, capillaries, vessels

b. capillaries, trunks, vessels, ducts

c. ducts, vessels; trunks, capillaries

d. trunks, capillaries, vessels, ducts

e. capillaries, vessels, trunks, ducts

e

235

Which statement below describes the lymphatic system’s role in relation to the cardiovascular system?

a. Lymph transport is directly driven by heart contractions.

b. It maintains blood volume and, therefore, pressure.

c. It is the major source for distribution of all hormones.

d. It helps regulate heart rate.

b

236

Which statement is true of the thoracic duct?

a. It drains lymph only from the arms.

b. It drains the lymph from the right head, neck, shoulder, arm, and upper right chest.

c. It forms from the merging of collecting vessels on the right side of the body.

d. It forms from the merging of collecting vessels from the left upper limb and neck.

e. It drains the lymph from the entire left side of the body and the right abdomen and leg.

e

237

Which statement is true of lymph nodes?

a. They lack a capsule.

b. They contain red pulp.

c. They have fewer efferent vessels than afferent vessels.

d. There is a dense collection located in the feet and hands.

e. There are over 10,000 located throughout the body.

C

238

Which of the following best describes the arrangement of lymphatic vessels?

a. a system of large vessels designed to fill quickly with lymph as the heart pushes blood through the coronary sinus

b. a system that pumps lymph through lymphatic ventricles to the lymphatic capillaries and through lymph veins back to the atria

c. a system that carries lymph through lymphatic arteries, lymphatic capillaries, and lymphatic veins

d. a system that collects fluid from arteries and veins and takes it into lymphatic arteries to be pumped back to the blood circulation

e. a one-way system of vessels beginning with blind-ended lymphatic capillaries

e

239

Which of the following is/are the major lymphoid organ(s) that "train(s)" T lymphocytes to become immunocompetent?

a. Peyer’s patches

b. tonsils

c. thymus

d. spleen

e. MALT

c

240

While all lymphoid organs function in immunity, only __________ filter(s) lymph.

a. the spleen

b. MALT

c. Peyer’s patches

d. tonsils

e. lymph nodes

e

241

The lymphoid organ(s) located in the throat that defend(s) against invading bacteria coming in through the mouth and nose is/are __________.

a. the tonsils

b. the thymus

c. the spleen

d. Peyer’s patches

e. MALT

a

242

Which of the following statements about the spleen is FALSE?

a. It is best to perform a splenectomy if the spleen is damaged in a car accident.

b. The spleen’s capsule is very thin and can be ruptured easily by a direct blow.

c. If the spleen is removed, the liver will take over its function.

d. In children under the age of 12 years old, the spleen will regenerate if a small piece is left in the body.

a

243

Which of the following vessels transport interstitial fluid that leaks from the vascular system back into the blood?

a. lymphatics

b. capillaries

c. sinusoids

d. veins

a

244

Excess tissue fluid in the brain drains into the __________.

a. pleura

b. lymphatics

c. blood

d. CSF

d

245

Lymphangitis presents itself as __________.

a. enlarged tender tonsils

b. tender lymph nodes that are filled with pus

c. red lines under the skin that are sensitive to touch

d. severe localized edema

c

246

Which of the following features is NOT common to both lymphatic collecting ducts and veins?

a. transport of chyle

b. a wall made of three tunic layers

c. anatomical distributions of each vary among individuals

d. the presence of valves

a

247

When B lymphocytes are dividing rapidly, the __________ of the lymphoid tissue enlarge(s).

a. germinal centers

b. lymphoid nodules

c. diffused lymphoid tissue

d. reticular fibers

a

248

Trabeculae are extensions of __________.

a. the capsule

b. germinal centers

c. medullary sinuses

d. medullary cords

a

249

Large lymph capillaries in a lymph node spanned by crisscrossing reticular fibers are known as __________.

a. lymph follicles

b. lymph sinuses

c. trabeculae

d. medullary cords

b

250

Which of the following lymphatic trunks is unpaired?

a. intestinal trunk

b. lumbar trunk

c. jugular trunk

d. bronchomediastinal trunk

a

251

Which lymphatic structure may also be a site of erythrocyte production in the fetus?

a. thymus

b. spleen

c. bone marrow

d. liver

b

252

Areas of lymphocytes suspended by reticular fibers in the spleen are known as __________.

a. red pulp

b. lymph sinuses

c. white pulp

d. medullary cords

c

253

A sentinel node is the first lymph node __________.

a. to produce an antibody in an immune reaction

b. that receives lymph drainage from a body area suspected of cancer

c. to encounter an antigen

d. that contains mature lymphocytes

b

254

The enlarged terminus of the thoracic duct that receives lymph from the digestive viscera is called the __________.

a. cisterna chyli

b. right subclavian duct

c. right lymphatic duct

d. lymph node

a

255

Lymphocytes differentiate in different lymphoid organs into B cells and T cells. A major functional difference between the two is that B cells __________.

a. destroy antigens in the bone marrow

b. produce antigens

c. produce lymph

d. form antibody-producing plasma cells

d

256

Certain T cells directly destroy infected cells and are therefore said to mediate cellular immunity.

True

False

true

257

In which organ of the lymphatic system do you find red and white pulp?

a. cisterna chyli

b. lymph node

c. spleen

d. tonsil

c

258

Antibodies (immunoglobulins) are composed of one or more __________, each of which is made up of four protein chains connected by disulfide bridges.

a. antigens

b. monomers

c. albumin molecules

d. germinal centers

b

259

The Ouchterlony double-gel diffusion technique is a method used to isolate the five different types of immunoglobulins in serum.

True

False

false

260

The reaction seen in ABO blood typing is the interaction between antibodies and specific __________ on the surface of red blood cells.

a. antigens

b. sera

c. immunoglobulins

d. disulfide bonds

a

261

An antibody can bind to __________.

a. only one specific antigen

b. 1 to 5 similar antigens

c. as many as 50 different antigens

d. any antigen it encounters

c

262

In the case of breath holding or rebreathing air from a paper bag, the increased carbon dioxide in the blood plasma __________.

a. will enter a reaction to form water, which will have no effect on blood pH

b. will enter a reaction to form carbonic acid, which will eventually lead to a decrease in blood pH

c. will not combine but will accumulate and result in a decrease in blood pH

d. will combine with bicarbonate and result in an increase in blood pH

c

263

Carbonic anhydrase is the enzyme in red blood cells that speeds up the CO2 + H2O (H2CO3) reaction.

True

False

true

264

A solution in which carbon dioxide combines with water undergoes __________.

a. an increase in pH

b. a decrease in pH

c. no change in pH

d. an increase followed by a decrease in pH

b

265

The forced vital capacity (FVC) measures __________.

a. the amount of air moved during quiet respiration

b. the amount of air expelled forcefully and rapidly following the deepest possible breath

c. the amount of air inhaled following the deepest possible breath

d. the amount of air remaining in the lungs after exhaling forcefully and rapidly

b

266

In obstructive pulmonary diseases, the forced expiratory volume (FEV) after one second is reduced.

True

False

true

267

A timed forced expiratory volume (FEVT) looks at __________.

a. the percentage of the vital capacity achievable for a person's height and weight

b. the percentage of the vital capacity that is exhaled for a specific time during recording of forced vital capacity

c. the amount of the air inhaled and exhaled during a timed hyperventilation

b

268

the amount of air exhaled during a timed quiet breathing period tidal volume is

a. amount of air forcefully exhaled after a normal exhalation

b. amount of air moved in one minute

c. amount of air forcefully inhaled after a normal inhalation

d. volume of air inhaled or exhaled during quiet breathing

e. maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after maximal inspiration

d

269

vital capacity is

a. amount of air forcefully exhaled after a normal exhalation

b. amount of air moved in one minute

c. amount of air forcefully inhaled after a normal inhalation

d. volume of air inhaled or exhaled during quiet breathing

e. maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after maximal inspiration

e

270

inspiratory reserve volume is

a. amount of air forcefully exhaled after a normal exhalation

b. amount of air moved in one minute

c. amount of air forcefully inhaled after a normal inhalation

d. volume of air inhaled or exhaled during quiet breathing

e. maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after maximal inspiration

c

271

expiratory reserve volume is

a. amount of air forcefully exhaled after a normal exhalation

b. amount of air moved in one minute

c. amount of air forcefully inhaled after a normal inhalation

d. volume of air inhaled or exhaled during quiet breathing

e. maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after maximal inspiration

a

272

minute respiratory volume

a. amount of air forcefully exhaled after a normal exhalation

b. amount of air moved in one minute

c. amount of air forcefully inhaled after a normal inhalation

d. volume of air inhaled or exhaled during quiet breathing

e. maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after maximal inspiration

b

273

Rustling or a muffled breeze sound heard from the lung tissue during inspiration is called __________.

a. rales

b. bronchial sounds

c. vesicular breathing sounds

d. wheezing

c

274

A nonself substance that can provoke an immune response is called a(n) __________.

a. immunoglobulin

b. interferon

c. antibody

d. antigen

e. colony-stimulating factor

d

275

Active artificially acquired immunity is a result of __________.

a. vaccination

b. contact with toxins secreted by pathogens

c. antibodies passed on from mother to fetus through the placenta

d. contact with a pathogen

e. antibodies passed on from mother to baby through breast milk

a

276

Complement proteins work by __________.

a. creating an impermeable barrier

b. neutralization of antigens

c. producing antibodies

d. forming pores in the membranes of target cells

e. phagocytosis of target cells

d

277

Cytotoxic T cells kill target cells __________.

a. by secreting antibodies

b. by phagocytosis

c. through insertion of perforins into the target’s membrane

d. through injection of tumor necrosis factor

e. by releasing oxidizing agents

c

278

Lymphocytes that develop immunocompetence in the thymus are __________.

a. B lymphocytes

b. macrophages

c. T lymphocytes

d. NK cells

c

279

Saliva and lacrimal fluids contain which enzyme that destroys bacteria?

a. amylase

b. reverse transcriptase

c. pepsin

d. trypsin

e. lysozyme

e

280

Which immune cell is able to respond quickly after any subsequent encounter with the same antigen?

a. basophil

b. antigen-presenting cell

c. plasma cell

d. memory cell

e. helper T cell

d

281

Which of the following is/are secreted by leukocytes and macrophages and result(s) in a fever?

a. pyrogens

b. heparin

c. antibodies

d. keratin

e. histamine

a

282

Which type of disease results from the inability of the immune system to distinguish self- from nonself-antigens?

a. allergy

b. SCID

c. immunodeficiency

d. autoimmune disease

e. anaphylaxis

d

283

When a localized area exhibits increased capillary filtration, hyperemia, and swelling, it is an indication that __________.

a. inflammation is occurring

b. fever is developing

c. an immune response is underway

d. antibodies are phagocytizing target cells

e. antigens are present

a

284

Which cells do NOT have a direct role in phagocytosis?

a. neutrophils

b. macrophages

c. NK cells

d. dendritic cells

c

285

Which cells stimulate both arms of the immune response?

a. basophils

b. plasma cells

c. helper T cells

d. killer T cells

e. complement cells

c

286

Which nonspecific defense cells specialize in attacking cancer cells and virus-infected cells?

a. plasma cells

b. macrophages

c. basophils

d. natural killer cells

e. helper T lymphocytes

d

287

Which of the following is/are a nonspecific barrier defense?

a. mucous membranes

b. natural killer cells

c. macrophages

d. antibodies

e. complements

a

288

Which of the following statements is characteristic of a secondary humoral response?

a. It results in less memory-cell circulation.

b. It results in less antibody secretion.

c. It occurs only in the spleen.

d. It occurs much more rapidly than a primary response.

e. It triggers fever.

d

289

Which type of molecule is produced by virus-infected cells to communicate to noninfected cells the presence of a virus?

a. complement

b. interleukin

c. pyrogen

d. interferon

e. antigen

d

290

Which of the following is/are NOT a surface barrier to pathogen influx?

a. saliva and tears

b. skin secretions

c. mucous membranes

d. complement cascade

d

291

Which of the following is NOT one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?

a. heat

b. swelling

c. pain

d. opsonization

e. redness

d

292

The process that begins when a helper T cell binds to a class II MHC protein on a displaying cell is known as __________.

a. antigen proliferation

b. costimulation

c. T cell proliferation

d. self-antigen recognition

b

293

All of the following are examples of autoimmune disorders EXCEPT __________.

a. myasthenia gravis

b. sickle-cell anemia

c. rheumatoid arthritis

d. Graves’ disease

e. systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

b

294

Which of the following is/are NOT an innate defense mechanism of the body?

a. skin

b. inflammation

c. fever

d. B lymphocytes

d

295

Which of the following is the first step in an inflammatory response?

a. positive chemotaxis

b. release of leukocytosis-inducing factor

c. diapedesis

d. adhesion of the neutrophil’s cell-adhesion molecules to antigen

b

296

In the respiratory burst, __________ are released, these have a potent cell-killing ability.

a. free radicals

b. histamines

c. platelet-derived growth factors

d. neutrophils

a

297

Which of the following is NOT a key characteristic of adaptive immunity?

a. It is specific.

b. Its primary response is fast.

c. It is systemic.

d. It has memory.

b

298

Toll-like receptors are found on __________.

a. macrophages

b. neutrophils

c. lymphocytes

d. mast cells

a

299

Interferons can be used to treat all of the following EXCEPT __________.

a. cancer

b. hepatitis C

c. viral infections

d. muscular dystrophy

d

300

Which of the following is NOT a function of interferons?

a. They are not virus-specific.

b. They mobilize natural killer cells.

c. They cannot be synthesized in a laboratory.

d. They interfere with viral replication in affected cells.

c

301

Which of the following minerals needed for bacterial reproduction do the liver and spleen sequester during a fever?

a. iron and zinc

b. magnesium and calcium

c. copper and gold

d. phosphorous and silica

a

302

Which hypersensitivity is caused by T lymphocytes?

a. acute

b. delayed

c. subacute

d. chronic

b

303

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of antibody action?

a. precipitation

b. B cell synthesis

c. agglutination

d. neutralization

b

304

Which of the following types of cells is involved in adaptive immunity?

a. macrophages

b. B cells

c. neutrophils

d. natural killer cells

b

305

Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation?

a. fever

b. pain

c. redness

d. swelling

a

306

The first step in inflammation is __________.

a. the release of inflammatory chemicals

b. swelling

c. phagocyte mobilization

d. vasodilation

a

307

Define leukocytosis

A. Phagocytes squeeze through the capillary endothelium.

B. White blood cells migrate to the site of tissue damage.

C. Phagocytic cells cling to the inner walls of the capillaries.

D. The number of white blood cells that are in circulation increases.

d

308

Define margination

A. Phagocytes squeeze through the capillary endothelium.

B. White blood cells migrate to the site of tissue damage.

C. Phagocytic cells cling to the inner walls of the capillaries.

D. The number of white blood cells that are in circulation increases.

c

309

Define diapedesis

A. Phagocytes squeeze through the capillary endothelium.

B. White blood cells migrate to the site of tissue damage.

C. Phagocytic cells cling to the inner walls of the capillaries.

D. The number of white blood cells that are in circulation increases.

a

310

Define chemotaxis

A. Phagocytes squeeze through the capillary endothelium.

B. White blood cells migrate to the site of tissue damage.

C. Phagocytic cells cling to the inner walls of the capillaries.

D. The number of white blood cells that are in circulation increases.

b

311

Which of the following is NOT a property of interferons (IFNs)?

a. IFNs activate macrophages.

b. IFNs have antiviral activity.

c. IFNs have an anticancer role.

d. IFNs stimulate B cells to produce antibodies.

a

312

A moderate fever is an example of an innate body defense.

True

False

true

313

Humoral immunity is provided by __________.

a. antibodies

b. complement proteins

c. T cells

d. Interferons

a

314

__________ are substances that can trigger the adaptive defenses and provoke an immune response.

a. Interleukins

b. Haptens

c. Antibodies

d. Antigens

d

315

__________ is the property of lymphocytes that prevents them from attacking the body's own cells.

a. Immunocompetence

b. Self-tolerance

c. Antigenicity

d. Immunological memory

b

316

Self-reactive B cells are eliminated in the __________.

a. bone marrow

b. spleen

c. thymus

d. lymph nodes

a

317

Which of the following is a characteristic of a secondary immune response?

a. A secondary immune response is started by naive lymphocytes, while a primary immune response is initiated by memory cells.

b. A secondary immune response produces as many antibodies as a primary immune response.

c. A secondary immune response is slower than a primary immune response.

d. A secondary immune response lasts longer than a primary immune response.

a

318

A vaccination works to establish __________.

a. artificial active immunity

b. artificial passive immunity

c. natural active immunity

d. natural passive immunity

a

319

Describe IgG

A. large, pentamer-shaped antibody

B. most abundant class of antibodies

C. antigen receptor found on B cells

D. antibody that mediates some allergies

E. dimeric antibody found in body secretions

b

320

Describe IgM

A. large, pentamer-shaped antibody

B. most abundant class of antibodies

C. antigen receptor found on B cells

D. antibody that mediates some allergies

E. dimeric antibody found in body secretions

a

321

Describe IgA

A. large, pentamer-shaped antibody

B. most abundant class of antibodies

C. antigen receptor found on B cells

D. antibody that mediates some allergies

E. dimeric antibody found in body secretions

e

322

Describe IgD

A. large, pentamer-shaped antibody

B. most abundant class of antibodies

C. antigen receptor found on B cells

D. antibody that mediates some allergies

E. dimeric antibody found in body secretions

c

323

Describe IgE

A. large, pentamer-shaped antibody

B. most abundant class of antibodies

C. antigen receptor found on B cells

D. antibody that mediates some allergies

E. dimeric antibody found in body secretions

d

324

Which are correctly matched?

a. cytotoxic T cells: activated by antigens bound to MHC I

b. regulatory T cells: make antibodies

c. helper T cells: recognize virus-infected cells

d. B cells: suppress the immune response once the foreign antigen has been cleared from the body

a

325

MHC II proteins are found on __________.

a. antigen-presenting cells

b. helper T cells

c. cytotoxic T cells

d. red blood cells

a

326

What is the second step of T cell activation?

a. antigen binding

b. co-stimulation

c. chemotaxis

d. anergy

b

327

Which of the following are MISMATCHED?

a. regulatory T cells: release inhibitory cytokines to dampen the immune response

b. cytotoxic T cells: carry out cellular immune responses

c. B cells: can be activated to produce antibodies

d. helper T cells: directly target and kill cancer cells

d

328

The most common type of organ transplant is the __________.

a. autograft

b. allograft

c. isograft

d. xenograft

b

329

What is severe combined immunodeficiency(SCID) syndrome

A. allergic contact dermatitis

B. genetic defect resulting in a shortage of B and/or T cells

C. allergy

D. autoimmune disorder

E. condition in which T helper cells are destroyed by a virus

b

330

What is AIDS

A. allergic contact dermatitis

B. genetic defect resulting in a shortage of B and/or T cells

C. allergy

D. autoimmune disorder

E. condition in which T helper cells are destroyed by a virus

e

331

What is rheumatoid arthritis

A. allergic contact dermatitis

B. genetic defect resulting in a shortage of B and/or T cells

C. allergy

D. autoimmune disorder

E. condition in which T helper cells are destroyed by a virus

d

332

What is immediate hypersensitivity

A. allergic contact dermatitis

B. genetic defect resulting in a shortage of B and/or T cells

C. allergy

D. autoimmune disorder

E. condition in which T helper cells are destroyed by a virus

c

333

What is delayed hypersensitivity

A. allergic contact dermatitis

B. genetic defect resulting in a shortage of B and/or T cells

C. allergy

D. autoimmune disorder

E. condition in which T helper cells are destroyed by a virus

a

334

During inspiration, air moves into the lungs because __________.

a. the volume of the lungs decreases with inspiration

b. contraction of the internal intercostal muscles decreases the thoracic cavity volume

c. abdominal muscles contract

d. the gas pressure in the lungs becomes lower than the outside pressure as the diaphragm contracts

e. contraction of the diaphragm decreases the volume of the pleural cavity

d

335

Alveolar ventilation rate is __________.

a. the movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli

b. the movement of air into and out of the alveoli during a particular time

c. the utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism

d. the movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood

e. less than the pulmonary ventilation rate because of dead space

b

336

Hemoglobin has a tendency to release oxygen where __________.

a. pH is more acidic

b. partial pressures of oxygen are higher

c. temperature is lower

d. pH is more alkaline

e. partial pressures of carbon dioxide are lower

a

337

In the alveoli, the partial pressure of oxygen is __________.

a. much higher than the PO2 of systemic arterial blood

b. approximately 104 millimeters of mercury

c. lower than the PO2 of systemic venous blood

d. equal to that in the tissues

e. equal to the PO2 of systemic venous blood

b

338

Most of the carbon dioxide transported by the blood is __________.

a. carried by white blood cells

b. converted to bicarbonate ions and transported in plasma

c. bound to the same protein as oxygen

d. bound to hemoglobin

e. dissolved in plasma

b

339

The elastic cartilage that shields the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the __________.

a. epiglottis

b. cricoid cartilage

c. cuneiform cartilage

d. corniculate cartilage

e. thyroid cartilage

a

340

The movement of air into and out of the lungs is called __________.

a. cellular respiration

b. external respiration

c. oxidative phosphorylation

d. pulmonary ventilation

e. internal respiration

d

341

Which tissue lines the trachea?

a. stratified squamous epithelium

b. hyaline cartilage

c. areolar connective tissue

d. pseudostratified columnar epithelium

e. simple squamous epithelium

d

342

Of the respiratory measurements listed, which one normally has the greatest value?

a. tidal volume

b. expiratory reserve volume

c. vital capacity

d. residual volume

e. inspiratory capacity

c

343

Which respiratory structure has the smallest diameter?

a. secondary bronchi

b. trachea

c. pharynx

d. bronchiole

e. larynx

d

344

Involuntary hyperventilation during an anxiety attack can cause a person to become faint because of __________.

a. decreased O2 levels in the blood, causing cells to lack adequate ATP synthesis

b. increased temperature caused by increased intercostal muscle activity

c. increased CO2 levels caused by an increase in cellular respiration, reducing brain perfusion and causing ischemia

d. lowered CO2 levels in the blood and consequent constriction of cerebral blood vessels

e. the effects of increased O2 levels in the blood and the consequent constriction of cerebral blood vessels

d

345

Which of the following gases has NO effect in the blood until hyperbaric conditions occur, such as in scuba diving, and can form bubbles in blood when an individual surfaces too quickly?

a. carbon monoxide

b. oxygen

c. helium

d. carbon dioxide

e. nitrogen

e

346

Which of the following terms describes the increase in depth and force of breathing that occurs during vigorous exercise?

a. hyperventilation

b. hyperpnea

c. hypercapnia

d. anoxia

e. hypoxia

b

347

Approximately 20% of carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as __________.

a. oxyhemoglobin

b. hydrogen ions

c. dissolved gas in the plasma

d. bicarbonate ions

e. carbaminohemoglobin

e

348

Which of the following control(s) the respiratory rate?

a. medulla

b. alveolar sacs

c. pons

d. spinal cord

e. cerebral cortex

a

349

Which of the following is NOT a function of the conducting zone of the respiratory tract?

a. cleansing of air

b. gas exchange

c. warming of air

d. mucous secretion

e. transport of air

b

350

Which of the following statements about voice production is INCORRECT?

a. Loudness of voice depends on the size of the vocal cords.

b. The more tense the vocal cords, the higher the pitch.

c. The glottis is wide when deep tones are produced.

d. The larynx enlarges in males during puberty.

a

351

Which of the following is NOT a function of the trachealis muscle?

a. It allows the esophagus to expand anteriorly when food is swallowed.

b. It helps expel mucus during coughing.

c. It decreases its diameter during expiration to expel air with greater force.

d. It prevents the trachea from collapsing and keeps it patent despite the pressure changes that take place during breathing.

d

352

What enzyme, which is ideally located in the lung capillary membrane of the pulmonary circuit, acts on material in the blood, thereby activating an important blood pressure hormone?

a. interferon

b. angiotensin converting enzyme

c. renin

d. prostaglandin

b

353

What type of pressure keeps the air spaces in the lungs open?

a. intrapulmonary

b. transpulmonary

c. atmospheric

d. intrapleural

b

354

Which of the following would NOT cause atelectasis?

a. loss of lung elasticity

b. a chest wound that perforates the pleura and allows air into the pleural cavity

c. plugging of bronchioles

d. when intrapleural pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure

a

355

Airway resistance is insignificant in relationship to gas flow because __________.

a. the gas flow stops in the medium-sized bronchioles and diffusion takes over, therefore, airway resistance is no longer an issue

b. the airway resistance is not related to the diameter of the conducting tubes in the respiratory system

c. the airways branch extensively as they get smaller, resulting in a huge total cross-sectional area

d. the blood flow is very high in comparison to the viscosity of air

c

356

The transpulmonary pressure is the difference between the __________ and the __________ pressure.

a. Atmospheric: intrapulmonary

b. Intrapulmonary: intrapleural

c. Intrapleural: alveolar

d. Atmospheric: intrapleural

b

357

Which of the following conditions would NOT decrease the total respiratory compliance?

a. increase in lung compliance

b. thorax deformities

c. calcification of the coastal cartilages

d. paralysis of the intercostal muscles

a

358

Which substance, produced by type II alveolar cells, decreases alveolar surface tension?

a. elastic fibers

b. surfactant

c. macrophages

d. alveolar pores

b

359

All of the following would be caused by breathing excessively high concentrations of oxygen for a long period EXCEPT __________.

a. oxygen toxicity

b. coma

c. emphysema

d. the production of huge amounts of free radicals

c

360

Which of the following nonrespiratory movements is caused by irritation of the nasal cavity?

a. coughing

b. hiccups

c. sneezing

d. crying

c

361

The dorsal respiratory group __________.

a. is a rhythm-generating center

b. is located near the root of cranial nerve IX

c. ends at the pons-medullary junction

d. excites the diaphragm via the phrenic nerve

b

362

The pontine respiratory group is responsible for all of the following functions EXCEPT __________.

a. causing apneustic breathing if it is damaged

b. regulating and modifying the activity of the medullary neurons

c. smoothing out the transition from inspiration to expiration

d. stimulating the contraction of the diaphragm

d

363

Which of the following would NOT be found in a “blue bloater”?

a. cyanosis

b. right-sided heart failure

c. weight loss

d. pulmonary hypertension

c

364

Which of the following is NOT involved in respiration?

a. pulmonary ventilation

b. internal respiration

c. external respiration

d. external ventilation

d

365

The respiratory zone is composed of the trachea and the paranasal sinuses.

a. True

b. False

false

366

Which of the following are the hairs within the nasal cavity that filter coarse particles, such as pollen and dust, from inspired air?

a. vibrissae

b. alveoli

c. cilia

d. microvilli

a

367

__________ is the inflammation of the nasal mucosa accompanied by excessive mucus production, nasal congestion, and postnasal drip.

a. Bronchitis

b. Sinusitis

c. Rhinitis

d. Laryngitis

c

368

Which of the following lists the regions of the pharynx from superior to inferior?

a. laryngopharynx, oropharynx, nasopharynx

b. nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, oropharynx

c. oropharynx, laryngopharynx, nasopharynx

d. nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

d

369

The __________ is covered by a mucosa containing taste buds and keeps food out of the lower respiratory passages.

a. epiglottis

b. glottis

c. uvula

d. vestibular folds

a

370

The bronchial, or respiratory, tree branches approximately 23 times within the lungs.

a. True

b. False

true

371

The __________ are the main site of gas exchange within the lungs.

a. hila

b. alveoli

c. bronchi

d. respiratory bronchioles

b

372

The two lungs differ in shape and size.

a. True

b. False

true

373

The __________ is the elastic connective tissue found within the lungs.

a. Stroma

b. pulmonary plexus

c. visceral pleura

d. parietal pleura

a

374

__________, or lung collapse, is a homeostatic imbalance that occurs when a bronchiole becomes plugged.

a. Pneumothorax

b. Hypoxia

c. Pleurisy

d. Atelectasis

d

375

Which of the following occurs during infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS)?

a. Histamine and other inflammatory chemicals cause the baby's bronchioles to constrict.

b. The baby is unable to keep his or her alveoli inflated between breaths because of a lack of surfactant.

c. The baby's cilia are damaged or destroyed, and only coughing can prevent mucus from accumulating in the lungs.

d. The pleurae produce an excessive amount of fluid, putting pressure on the baby's lungs, hindering breathing.

b

376

Henry's law states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures exerted independently by each gas in the mixture.

a. True

b. False

false

377

Henry's law states that when a gas is in contact with a liquid, that gas will dissolve in the liquid in proportion to its partial pressure.

a. True

b. False

true

378

Which form of hypoxia occurs when body cells are unable to use O2 even though adequate amounts are delivered? (This type of hypoxia is usually the consequence of metabolic poisons, such as cyanide.)

a. hypoxemic hypoxia

b. ischemic (stagnant) hypoxia

c. histotoxic hypoxia

d. anemic hypoxia

c

379

Which form of CO2 transport accounts for the greatest amount of CO2 transported in blood?

a. as carbon monoxide in plasma

b. as bicarbonate ions in plasma

c. chemically bound to hemoglobin

d. dissolved in plasma

b

380

The increase in ventilation in response to metabolic needs is called __________.

a. hyperventilation

b. hyperpnea

c. Hering-Breuer reflex

d. Hypocapnia

b

381

Emphysema is distinguished by permanent enlargement of the alveoli and loss of lung elasticity.

a. True

b. False

true

382

Lung cancer is among the easiest forms of cancer to successfully treat and cure.

a. True

b. False

false