micro 2117 chapters 1,4, 5,10

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1

Microorganisms are involved in each of the following processes EXCEPT

A) infection.

B) decomposition of organic material.

C) O2

D) food production.

E) smog production.

E) smog production.

2

Each of the following organisms would be considered a microbe EXCEPT

A) yeast.

B) protozoan.

C) bacterium.

D) mushroom.

E) virus.

D) mushroom.

3

The term used to describe a disease-causing microorganism is

A) microbe.

B) bacterium.

C) virus.

D) pathogen.

E) infection.

D) pathogen.

4

Common commercial benefits of microorganisms include synthesis of

A) riboflavin.

B) acetone.

C) insulin.

D) aspirin.

E) riboflavin, acetone and insulin.

E) riboflavin, acetone and insulin.

5

Commercial utilization of microbial products has become increasingly popular due to their environmentally friendly nature. Production of these products which are readily degraded and, thus, non-toxic typically utilizes

A) enzymes.

B) organic acids.

C) organic solvents.

D) soap.

E) alcohol.

A) enzymes.

6

The formal system for classifying and naming organisms was developed by

A) Robert Koch.

B) Ignaz Semmelweis.

C) Aristotle.

D) Carolus Linnaeus.

E) Louis Pasteur.

D) Carolus Linnaeus.

7

In the name Staphylococcus aureus, aureus is the

A) genus.

B) domain name.

C) species.

D) kingdom.

E) family name.

C) species.

8

A prokaryotic cell may possess each of the following cellular components EXCEPT

A) flagella.

B) a nucleus.

C) ribosomes.

D) a cell wall.

E) a cell membrane.

B) a nucleus.

9

Which of the following is NOT associated with viruses?

A) organelles

B) nucleic acid

C) envelope

D) chemical reactions

E) protein coat

A) organelles

10
card image

The bacterial shape of the cells in the scanning electron micrograph shown in Figure 1.1 would best be described as

A) bacillus.

B) spiral.

C) coccus.

D) ovoid.

E) columnar.

A) bacillus.

11

Protozoan motility structures include

A) cilia.

B) flagella.

C) pseudopods.

D) cilia and pseudopods only.

E) cilia, flagella, and pseudopods.

E) cilia, flagella, and pseudopods.

12

Viruses are not considered living organisms because they

A) cannot reproduce by themselves.

B) are structurally very simple.

C) can only be visualized using an electron microscope.

D) are typically associated with disease.

E) are ubiquitous in nature.

A) cannot reproduce by themselves.

13

The infectious agent that causes AIDS is a

A) virus.

B) bacterium.

C) yeast.

D) protozoan.

E) mold.

A) virus.

14

Which of the following is NOT a domain in the three-domain system?

A) animalia

B) archaea

C) bacteria

D) eukarya

A) animalia

15

Classification of organisms into three domains is based on

A) the presence of a cell wall.

B) the number of cells in the organism.

C) cellular organization.

D) nutritional requirements.

E) cellular proteins.

C) cellular organization.

16

Archaea differ from bacteria in that archaea

A) have diverse cell wall compositions.

B) lack nuclei.

C) use organic compounds for food.

D) reproduce by binary fission.

E) are prokaryotic.

A) have diverse cell wall compositions.

17

Who is credited with first observing cells?

A) Robert Hooke

B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

C) Robert Koch

D) Louis Pasteur

E) Carolus Linnaeus

A) Robert Hooke

18

Who is credited with first observing microorganisms?

A) Robert Hooke

B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

C) Robert Koch

D) Louis Pasteur

E) Carolus Linnaeus

B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

19

Biogenesis refers to the

A) spontaneous generation of organisms from nonliving matter.

B) development of life forms from preexisting life forms.

C) development of aseptic technique.

D) germ theory of disease.

B) development of life forms from preexisting life forms.

20

If you were setting up an experiment to disprove spontaneous generation in a liquid medium, which of the following would be essential to the experiment?

A) supplying the liquid with nutrients

B) starting with a liquid that contains microorganisms

C) adding antibiotics to the liquid

D) using a sterile liquid and eliminating exposure to microorganisms

E) adding carbon dioxide to the liquid

D) using a sterile liquid and eliminating exposure to microorganisms

21

The arguments supporting spontaneous generation were finally disproved by

A) Louis Pasteur.

B) Francesco Redi.

C) Rudolf Virchow.

D) John Needham.

E) Lazzaro Spallanzani.

A) Louis Pasteur.

22

Regarding Louis Pasteur's experiments with the S-neck flask, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) Air exchange was involved.

B) A food source was provided.

C) The possibility of contamination was removed.

D) All preexisting microorganisms were killed.

E) All of the answer choices are correct.

E) All of the answer choices are correct.

23

The microbial process of converting sugars to alcohol is known as

A) fermentation.

B) pasteurization.

C) tyndallization.

D) lyophilization.

E) alcoholism.

A) fermentation.

24

Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by

A) Pasteur.

B) Lister.

C) Koch.

D) Wasserman.

E) Semmelweis.

C) Koch.

25

The use of phenol (carbolic acid) as a wound disinfectant was first practiced by

A) Lister.

B) Semmelweis.

C) Pasteur.

D) Holmes.

E) Koch.

A) Lister.

26

Mycology is the study of

A) mycoplasma.

B) mushrooms.

C) protozoa.

D) molds.

E) molds, yeast, and mushrooms.

E) molds, yeast, and mushrooms.

27

The first step for directly linking a microbe to a specific disease according to Koch's postulates is to

A) culture the blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal using nutrient medium.

B) inject a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal into a healthy animal.

C) obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal.

D) compare the blood of a sick animal to blood obtained from a healthy animal.

E) isolate microbes from the blood of healthy animals.

C) obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal.

28

In which of the following situations would Koch's postulates be utilized?

A) determination of the cause of a new emerging disease by scientists studying disease transmission

B) development of a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab

C) determination of the cause of cancer in a patient

D) formulation of a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab

E) whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem

A) determination of the cause of a new emerging disease by scientists studying disease transmission

29

Robert Koch identified the cause of

A) smallpox.

B) anthrax.

C) diphtheria.

D) AIDS.

E) tuberculosis.

B) anthrax.

30

Which physician is first associated with vaccination?

A) Ehrlich

B) Jenner

C) Lister

D) Koch

E) Escherich

B) Jenner

31

Which of the following findings was essential for Edward Jenner's vaccination process?

A) Exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity.

B) A weakened microorganism will not cause disease.

C) Someone who recovers from a disease will not acquire that disease again.

D) Disease is caused by viruses.

E) Pathogenic microorganisms infect all humans and animals in the same manner.

A) Exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity.

32

Penicillin was discovered by accident by

A) Alexander Fleming.

B) Paul Ehrich.

C) Edward Jenner.

D) Robert Koch.

E) Joseph Lister.

A) Alexander Fleming.

33

Who was the first scientist to pursue a "magic bullet" that could be used to treat infectious disease?

A) Jenner

B) Pasteur

C) Ehrlich

D) Lister

E) Semmelweis

C) Ehrlich

34

Fungal infections are studied by

A) virologists.

B) bacteriologists.

C) parasitologists.

D) mycologists.

E) herpetologists.

D) mycologists.

35

Which disease has been eliminated through the use of vaccines?

A) tuberculosis

B) measles

C) rubella

D) smallpox

E) influenza

D) smallpox

36

Recombinant DNA refers to the

A) study of bacterial ribosomes.

B) study of the function of genes.

C) interaction between human and bacterial cells.

D) synthesis of proteins from genes.

E) DNA resulting when genes from one organism are inserted into another organism.

E) DNA resulting when genes from one organism are inserted into another organism.

37

Molecular biology includes the study of

A) DNA synthesis.

B) RNA replication.

C) protein synthesis.

D) enzyme function.

E) how genetic information directs protein synthesis.

E) how genetic information directs protein synthesis.

38

Microorganisms are essential to our life. Each of the following is an example of a beneficial function of microorganisms EXCEPT

A) alternative fuel production.

B) bioremediation.

C) gene therapy.

D) agriculture.

E) increased number of illnesses.

E) increased number of illnesses.

39

The major food producers for other living organisms is/are

A) higher plants.

B) cyanobacteria.

C) algae.

D) higher plants and algae.

E) higher plants, cyanobacteria, and algae.

E) higher plants, cyanobacteria, and algae.

40

Gene therapy is currently used to treat all of the following diseases EXCEPT

A) severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID).

B) Duchenne's muscular dystrophy.

C) cystic fibrosis.

D) LDL-receptor deficiency.

E) colon cancer.

E) colon cancer.

41

Recombinant DNA technology has become an increasingly important part of our life. It is used for all of the following EXCEPT

A) vaccine production.

B) enhancing food longevity.

C) synthesis of water.

D) drug production.

E) increasing the nutritional value of food.

C) synthesis of water.

42

Normal microbiota are typically found in and on all the following body locations EXCEPT the

A) skin.

B) mouth.

C) colon.

D) blood.

E) upper respiratory system.

D) blood.

43

Which of the following statements about biofilms is FALSE?

A) Compared to free-living bacteria, biofilms are more sensitive to antibiotics.

B) Biofilms in pipes can block the flow of water.

C) Biofilms in your body protect mucous membranes from harmful microbes.

D) Biofilms on medical devices cause infections.

E) Biofilms on rocks provide food for animal life.

A) Compared to free-living bacteria, biofilms are more sensitive to antibiotics.

44

Development of emerging infectious disease can be a result of all of the following EXCEPT

A) microbial mutation.

B) modern transportation.

C) use of genetically modified foods.

D) changes in the environment.

E) overuse of antibiotics.

C) use of genetically modified foods.

45

Infectious disease is almost totally eradicated in our world.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: FALSE

46

A student has obtained a sample of pond water for study. Using the high-power lens, he observes several cells with nuclei. He can conclude that the cells are NOT bacteria.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

47

The process of pasteurization to reduce food spoilage utilizes high heat to kill all bacteria present.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: FALSE

48

Anton van Leeuwenhoek was the first microbiologist to use a microscope to examine environmental samples for the presence of microorganisms.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

49

Spontaneous generation refers to living cells arising only from other living cells.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: FALSE

50

Microbes are associated with life-sustaining benefits as well as life-threatening diseases.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

51

All cells possess a cell wall.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: FALSE

52

All pathogens known to infect humans have been identified at this point in time.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: FALSE

53

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic cells?

A) Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane.

B) They lack membrane-enclosed organelles.

C) They typically have a circular chromosome.

D) They reproduce by binary fission.

E) They lack a plasma membrane.

E) They lack a plasma membrane.

54

Each of the following statements concerning the gram-positive cell wall is true EXCEPT

A) it maintains the shape of the cell.

B) it is sensitive to lysozyme.

C) it protects the cell in a hypertonic environment.

D) it contains teichoic acids.

E) it is sensitive to penicillin.

C) it protects the cell in a hypertonic environment.

55

Which of the following statements best describes what happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5% NaCl?

A) Sucrose will move into the cell from a higher to a lower concentration.

B) The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.

C) Water will move out of the cell.

D) Water will move into the cell.

E) No change will result; the solution is isotonic.

C) Water will move out of the cell.

56

A gram-positive bacterium suddenly acquires resistance to the antibiotic methicillin. This trait most likely occurred due to acquisition of new genetic information through

A) conjugation.

B) binary fission.

C) meisosis.

D) transformation.

E) transduction.

A) conjugation.

57

By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration?

A) simple diffusion

B) facilitated diffusion

C) active transport

D) extracellular enzymes

E) aquaporins

C) active transport

58

Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of most bacterial plasma membranes?

A) site of energy production

B) composed of a phospholipid bilayer

C) contains proteins

D) contains cholesterol

E) is selectively permeable

D) contains cholesterol

59

Which one of the following organisms has a cell wall?

A) protoplasts

B) fungi

C) L forms

D) mycoplasmas

E) animal cells

B) fungi

60

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) Endospores are for reproduction.

B) Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes by producing a dormant period with no growth.

C) Endospores are easily stained in a Gram stain.

D) A cell produces one endospore and keeps growing.

E) A cell can produce many endospores.

B) Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes by producing a dormant period with no growth.

61

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) endoplasmic reticulum — internal transport

B) Golgi complex — secretion

C) mitochondria — ATP production

D) centrosome — food storage

E) lysosome — digestive enzymes

D) centrosome — food storage

62

Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell?

A) nucleus

B) mitochondrion

C) Golgi complex

D) vacuole

E) cell wall

B) mitochondrion

63

Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is a tetrad?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

B) b

64

Which drawing in Figure 4.1 possesses an axial filament?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

A) a

65

Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is streptococci?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

D) d

66

Antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis ultimately cause bacterial cell death as a result of

A) osmotic lysis.

B) inhibition of molecular transport.

C) decreased synthesis of plasma membrane.

D) plasmolysis.

E) cell shrinkage.

A) osmotic lysis.

67

Bacteria are a commonly used organism for studies of genetic material in the research laboratory. The nucleic acids must first be isolated from the cells for these studies. Which of the following would most likely be used to lyse gram-positive bacterial cells for nucleic acid isolation?

A) lysozyme

B) polymixins

C) alcohol

D) water

E) mycolic acid

A) lysozyme

68

Which of the following statements about gram-negative cell walls is FALSE?

A) They protect the cell in a hypotonic environment.

B) They have an extra outer layer composed of lipoproteins, lipopolysaccharides, and phospholipids.

C) They are toxic to humans.

D) They are sensitive to penicillin.

E) Their Gram reaction is due to the outer membrane

D) They are sensitive to penicillin.

69

Which of the following structures is NOT found in some prokaryotic cells?

A) flagellum

B) axial filament

C) cilium

D) pilus

E) peritrichous flagella

C) cilium

70

Functions of the glycocalyx include all of the following EXCEPT

A) biofilm formation.

B) increased virulence.

C) source of nutrition.

D) protection against dehydration.

E) binary fission.

E) binary fission.

71

Which structure acts like an "invisibility cloak" and protects bacteria from being phagocytized?

A) slime layer

B) fimbriae

C) capsule

D) cell membrane

E) cell wall

C) capsule

72

Which of the following is NOT part of the passive transport process?

A) plasma membrane

B) transporter proteins

C) ATP

D) concentration gradient

E) aquaporins

C) ATP

73

Which of the following terms best describes the cell in Figure 4.2?

A) peritrichous flagella

B) amphitrichous flagella

C) lophotrichous flagella

D) monotrichous flagellum

E) axial filament

C) lophotrichous flagella

74

In bacteria, photosynthetic pigments are found in

A) chloroplasts.

B) cytoplasm.

C) chromatophores.

D) mesosomes.

E) ribosomes.

C) chromatophores.

75

The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion

A) moves materials from a higher to a lower concentration.

B) moves materials from a lower to a higher concentration.

C) requires ATP.

D) requires transporter proteins.

E) does not require ATP.

D) requires transporter proteins.

76

) The terms "run" and "tumble" are generally associated with

A) cell wall fluidity.

B) taxic movements of the cell in response to attractants or repellents.

C) clustering properties of certain rod-shaped bacteria.

D) cell membrane synthesis.

B) taxic movements of the cell in response to attractants or repellents.

77

You have isolated a motile, gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus. You can safely assume that the cell

A) has 9 pairs + 2 flagella.

B) has a mitochondrion.

C) has a cell wall.

D) lives in an extreme environment.

E) has cilia.

C) has a cell wall.

78

Fimbriae and pili differ in that

A) there are only one or two pili per cell.

B) pili are used for motility.

C) pili are used to transfer DNA.

D) pili are used for transfer of DNA and motility.

E) pili are used for attachment to surfaces.

D) pili are used for transfer of DNA and motility.

79

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is a gram-negative cell wall?

A) a

B) b

C) both a and b

D) neither a nor b

E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

B) b

80

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall possesses lipid A/endotoxin responsible for symptoms associated with infection?

A) a

B) b

C) both a and b

D) neither a nor b

E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

B) b

81

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall has a structure that protects against osmotic lysis?

A) a

B) b

C) both a and b

D) neither a nor b

E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

C) both a and b

82

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is decolorized by alcohol?

A) a

B) b

C) both a and b

D) neither a nor b

E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

B) b

83

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is resistant to many antibiotics (e.g., penicillin)?

A) a

B) b

C) both a and b

D) neither a nor b

E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

B) b

84

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains teichoic acids?

A) a

B) b

C) both a and b

D) neither a nor b

E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

A) a

85

In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains porins?

A) a

B) b

C) both a and b

D) neither a nor b

E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

A) a

86

Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell?

A) flagella

B) around organelles

C) the plasma membrane

D) ribosomes

E) the plasma membrane and around organelles

C) the plasma membrane

87

Where are phospholipids most likely found in a eukaryotic cell?

A) surrounding flagella

B) around organelles

C) the plasma membrane

D) ribosomes

E) the plasma membrane, around organelles, and surrounding flagella

E) the plasma membrane, around organelles, and surrounding flagella

88

Which of the following is NOT found or observed to occur in both mitochondria and prokaryotes?

A) circular chromosome

B) 70S ribosomes

C) cell wall

D) binary fission

E) ATP-generating mechanism

C) cell wall

89

Which of the following statements is correct about passive diffusion?

A) It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell.

B) It is a process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration (or down a concentration gradient).

C) It is a process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration (or up a concentration gradient).

D) It may require a transport protein.

E) It involves movement of molecules down a concentration gradient and may require a transport protein.

E) It involves movement of molecules down a concentration gradient and may require a transport protein.

90

Oxygen crosses a plasma membrane

A) by osmosis.

B) through simple diffusion.

C) with the help of a nonspecific transporter.

D) through facilitated diffusion.

E) through porins.

B) through simple diffusion.

91

In a hypertonic solution, a bacterial cell will typically

A) lyse.

B) burst.

C) stay the same.

D) plasmolyze.

E) osmolyze.

D) plasmolyze.

92

What will happen if a bacterial cell is pretreated with a lysozyme solution, then placed in distilled water?

A) The cell will plasmolyze.

B) The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.

C) Water will leave the cell.

D) Lysozyme will diffuse into the cell.

E) No change will result; the solution is isotonic.

B) The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.

93

How do spirochetes and spirilla differ?

A) Spirochetes do not have a cell wall but spirilla do.

B) Spirilla are found in chains of cells whereas spirochetes exist as individual cells.

C) Spirilla have an external flagella but spirochetes have axial filaments.

D) Spirochetes have a rigid, corkscrew shape while spirilla are helical and more flexible.

E) Spirochetes and spirilla are basically the same organisms and the terms can be used interchangeably.

C) Spirilla have an external flagella but spirochetes have axial filaments.

94

Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) metachromatic granules - phosphate storage

B) lipid inclusions - energy reserve

C) ribosomes - carbon storage

D) sulfur granules - energy reserve

E) gas vacuoles - flotation

C) ribosomes - carbon storage

95

Which of the following are NOT energy reserves?

A) carboxysomes

B) polysaccharide granules

C) lipid inclusions

D) ribosomes

E) metachromatic granules

A) carboxysomes

96

Which of the following is NOT a functionally analogous pair?

A) nucleus -nucleiod region

B) mitochondria - prokaryotic plasma membrane

C) chloroplasts - thylakoids

D) cilia - pili

E) 9+2 flagella - bacterial flagella

D) cilia - pili

97

The DNA found in most bacterial cells

A) is surrounded by a nuclear membrane.

B) utilizes histones for chromosomal packaging.

C) is circular in structure.

D) is linear in structure.

E) is found in multiple copies.

C) is circular in structure.

98

The cell walls of bacteria are responsible for the shape of the bacteria and the difference in the Gram stain reaction.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

99

Antibiotics that target the cell wall are an effective treatment against many pathogenic bacteria.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

100

Cells placed in a hypotonic solution tend to lose water due to osmotic pressure.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: FALSE

101

Small, hydrophobic molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily by diffusion.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

102

Spheroplasts, protoplasts, and mycoplasms are bacterial cells without cell walls.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

103

Endospores are a reproductive structure.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: FALSE

104

The internal structure of eukaryotic cilia and flagella are the same.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

105

Many enzymes in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are compartmentalized within organelles.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: FALSE

106

The number of organelles such as chloroplasts, mitochondria, and rough endoplasmic reticulum is the same in all eukaryotic cells.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

107

If you observe rod-shaped red cells after the Gram stain, you can assume their cell walls contain endotoxin.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

108

Which of the following compounds is NOT an enzyme?

A) dehydrogenase

B) cellulase

C) coenzyme A

D) β-galactosidase

E) sucrase

C) coenzyme A

109

Which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in Figure 5.1?

A) isocitric acid and α-ketoglutaric acid

B) α-ketoglutaric acid and NAD+

C) NAD+

D) NADH

E) NADH and isocitric acid

C) NAD+

110

Which organism is NOT correctly matched to its energy source?

A) photoheterotroph - light

B) photoautotroph - CO2

C) chemoautotroph - Fe2+

D) chemoheterotroph - glucose

E) chemoautotroph-NH3

B) photoautotroph - CO2

111

Which of the following statements about anaerobic respiration is FALSE?

A) It yields lower amounts of ATP when compared to aerobic respiration.

B) The complete Kreb's cycle is utilized.

C) It involves the reduction of an organic final electron acceptor.

D) It generates ATP.

E) It requires cytochromes.

C) It involves the reduction of an organic final electron acceptor.

112

What type of reaction is in Figure 5.2?

A) decarboxylation

B) transamination

C) dehydrogenation

D) oxidation

E) reduction

B) transamination

113

What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses aerobic respiration?

A) It is reduced to lactic acid.

B) It reacts with oxaloacetate to form citrate.

C) It is oxidized in the electron transport chain.

D) It is catabolized in glycolysis.

E) It is converted into acetyl CoA.

E) It is converted into acetyl CoA.

114
card image

How would a noncompetitive inhibitor interfere with a reaction involving the enzyme shown in Figure 5.3?

A) It would bind to a.

B) It would bind to b.

C) It would bind to c.

D) It would bind to d.

E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

B) It would bind to b.

115
card image

How is ATP generated in the reaction shown in Figure 5.4?

A) glycolysis

B) fermentation

C) photophosphorylation

D) oxidative phosphorylation

E) substrate-level phosphorylation

E) substrate-level phosphorylation

116
card image

Fatty acids are oxidized in

A) the Krebs cycle.

B) the electron transport chain.

C) glycolysis.

D) the pentose phosphate pathway.

E) the Entner-Doudoroff pathway.

A) the Krebs cycle.

117

Which of the graphs in Figure 5.5 best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is saturated with substrate?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

C) c

118

Which of the following is the best definition of oxidative phosphorylation?

A) Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to O2.

B) A proton gradient allows hydrogen ions to flow back into the cells through transmembrane protein channels, releasing energy that is used to generate ATP.

C) ATP is directly transferred from a substrate to ADP.

D) Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to an organic compound.

B) A proton gradient allows hydrogen ions to flow back into the cells through transmembrane protein channels, releasing energy that is used to generate ATP.

119

Which of the following statements about substrate-level phosphorylation is FALSE?

A) It involves the direct transfer of a high-energy phosphate group from an intermediate metabolic compound to ADP.

B) No final electron acceptor is required.

C) It occurs in glycolysis.

D) The oxidation of intermediate metabolic compounds releases energy that is used to generate ATP.

E) It occurs to a lesser degree in the Krebs cycle than in glycolysis.

D) The oxidation of intermediate metabolic compounds releases energy that is used to generate ATP.

120

Which of the following statements about photophosphorylation is FALSE?

A) Light liberates an electron from chlorophyll.

B) The oxidation of carrier molecules releases energy.

C) Energy from oxidation reactions is used to generate ATP from ADP.

D) It requires CO2.

E) It occurs in photosynthesizing cells.

D) It requires CO2.

121

A strictly fermentative bacterium produces energy

A) by glycolysis only.

B) by aerobic respiration only.

C) by fermentation or aerobic respiration.

D) only in the absence of oxygen.

E) only in the presence of oxygen.

A) by glycolysis only.

122

The advantage of the pentose phosphate pathway is that it produces all of the following EXCEPT

A) precursors for nucleic acids.

B) precursors for the synthesis of glucose.

C) three ATPs.

D) NADPH.

E) precursors for the synthesis of amino acids.

C) three ATPs.

123

Which biochemical process is NOT used during glycolysis?

A) substrate-level phosphorylation

B) oxidation-reduction

C) carbohydrate catabolism

D) beta oxidation

E) enzymatic reactions

D) beta oxidation

124
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In noncyclic photophosphorylation, O2 is released from

A) CO2.

B) H2

C) C6H12O6.

D) sunlight.

E) chlorophyll.

B) H2

125

Which of the following is the best definition of fermentation?

A) the partial reduction of glucose to pyruvic acid

B) the partial oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors

C) the complete catabolism of glucose to CO2and H2O

D) the production of energy by oxidative-level phosphorylation

E) the production of energy by both substrate and oxidative phosphorylation

B) the partial oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors

126

Which of the following is NOT necessary for respiration?

A) cytochromes

B) flavoproteins

C) a source of electrons

D) oxygen

E) quinones

D) oxygen

127

) Which one of the following would you predict is an allosteric inhibitor of the Krebs cycle enzyme, α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase?

A) citric acid

B) α-ketoglutaric acid

C) NAD+

D) NADH

E) ADP

D) NADH

128

) In green and purple bacteria, electrons to reduce CO2 can come from

A) CO2.

B) H2

C) C6H12O6.

D) H2

E) chlorophyll.

D) H2

129

Assume you are growing bacteria on a lipid medium that started at pH 7. The action of bacterial lipases should cause the pH of the medium to

A) increase.

B) decrease.

C) stay the same.

B) decrease.

130
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Which of the following uses CO2 for carbon and H2 for energy?

A) chemoautotroph

B) chemoheterotroph

C) photoautotroph

D) photoheterotroph

A) chemoautotroph

131
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Which of the following uses glucose for carbon and energy?

A) chemoautotroph

B) chemoheterotroph

C) photoautotroph

D) photoheterotroph

B) chemoheterotroph

132
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Which of the following has bacteriochlorophylls and uses alcohols for carbon?

A) chemoautotroph

B) chemoheterotroph

C) photoautotroph

D) photoheterotroph

D) photoheterotroph

133
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Cyanobacteria are a type of

A) chemoautotroph.

B) chemoheterotroph.

C) photoautotroph.

D) photoheterotroph.

C) photoautotroph.

134
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Which of the following statements are TRUE?

1-Electron carriers are located at ribosomes.

2-ATP is a common intermediate between catabolic and anabolic pathways.

3-ATP is used for the long-term storage of energy and so is often found in storage granules.

4-Anaerobic organisms are capable of generating ATP via respiration.

5-ATP can be generated by the flow of protons across protein channels.

A) 2, 4, 5

B) 1, 3, 4

C) 2, 3, 5

D) 1, 2, 3

E) All of the statements are true.

A) 2, 4, 5

135
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Microorganisms that catabolize sugars into ethanol and hydrogen gas would most likely be categorized as

A) aerobic respirers.

B) anaerobic respirers.

C) heterolactic fermenters.

D) homolactic fermenters.

E) alcohol fermenters.

C) heterolactic fermenters.

136
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Which of the following statements regarding metabolism is FALSE?

A) Heat may be released in both anabolic and catabolic reactions.

B) ATP is formed in catabolic reactions.

C) ADP is formed in anabolic reactions.

D) Anabolic reactions are degradative.

D) Anabolic reactions are degradative.

137

Which of the following is TRUE about this reaction?

A) This process requires O2.

B) This process occurs anaerobically.

C) This process requires the entire electron transport system.

D) This process requires light.

E) This process requires O2and the electron transport system.

B) This process occurs anaerobically.

138

) Which of the following statements regarding the Entner-Doudoroff pathway is TRUE?

A) It involves glycolysis.

B) It involves the pentose phosphate pathway.

C) NADH is generated.

D) ATP is generated.

E) NADH and ATP are generated.

D) ATP is generated.

139

Assume you are working for a chemical company and are responsible for growing a yeast culture that produces ethanol. The yeasts are growing well on the maltose medium but are not producing alcohol. What is the most likely explanation?

A) The maltose is toxic.

B) O2is in the medium.

C) Not enough protein is provided.

D) The temperature is too low.

E) The temperature is too high.

B) O2is in the medium.

140

The rates of O2 and glucose consumption by a bacterial culture are shown in Figure 5.6. Assume a bacterial culture was grown in a glucose medium without O2. Then O2 was added at the time marked X. The data indicate that

A) these bacteria don't use O2.

B) these bacteria get more energy anaerobically.

C) aerobic metabolism is more efficient than fermentation.

D) these bacteria cannot grow anaerobically.

C) aerobic metabolism is more efficient than fermentation.

141

An enzyme, citrate synthase, in the Krebs cycle is inhibited by ATP. This is an example of all of the following EXCEPT

A) allosteric inhibition.

B) competitive inhibition.

C) feedback inhibition.

D) noncompetitive inhibition.

B) competitive inhibition.

142

If a cell is starved for ATP, which of the following pathways would most likely be shut down?

A) Kreb's cycle

B) glycolysis

C) pentose phosphate pathway

D) Krebs cycle and glycolysis

C) pentose phosphate pathway

143

Which of the following statements regarding the glycolysis pathway is FALSE?

A) Two pyruvate molecules are generated.

B) Four ATP molecules are generated via substrate-level phosphorylation.

C) Two NADH molecules are generated.

D) One molecule of ATP is expended.

E) Two molecules of water are generated.

D) One molecule of ATP is expended.

144

The graph at the left in Figure 5.7 shows the reaction rate for an enzyme at its optimum temperature. Which graph shows enzyme activity at a higher temperature?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

B) b

145

A bacterial culture grown in a glucose-peptide medium causes the pH to increase. The bacteria are most likely

A) fermenting the glucose.

B) oxidizing the glucose.

C) using the peptides.

D) not growing.

C) using the peptides.

146

Gallionella bacteria can get energy from the reaction Fe2+ → Fe3+. This reaction is an example of

A) oxidation.

B) reduction.

C) fermentation.

D) photophosphorylation.

E) the Calvin-Benson cycle.

A) oxidation.

147

In Figure 5.8, where is ATP produced?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

E) e

148

Refer to Figure 5.8. In aerobic respiration, where is water formed?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

D) d

149

In Figure 5.8, the structure labeled "1" is

A) NAD+.

B) ATP synthase.

C) a plasma membrane.

D) a cell wall.

E) cytoplasm.

C) a plasma membrane.

150

In Figure 5.8, the path labeled "2" is the flow of

A) electrons.

B) protons.

C) energy.

D) water.

E) glucose.

B) protons.

151

What is the most acidic place in Figure 5.8?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

A) a

152

A urease test is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis because

A) urease is a sign of tuberculosis.

B) M. tuberculosis produces urease.

C) urea accumulates during tuberculosis.

D) some bacteria reduce nitrate ion.

E) bovis can cause tuberculosis.

B) M. tuberculosis produces urease.

153

Researchers are developing a ribozyme that cleaves the HIV genome. This pharmaceutical agent could be described as

A) an RNA molecule capable of catalysis.

B) a hydrolase.

C) a genetic transposable element.

D) a protease inhibitor.

E) a competitive inhibitor for reverse transcriptase.

A) an RNA molecule capable of catalysis.

154

Which statements correspond to amphibolic pathways?

  1. anabolic and catabolic reactions are joined through common intermediate
  2. shared metabolic pathways
  3. Feedback inhibition can help regulate rates of reactions
  4. both types of reactions are necessary but do not occur simultaneously

A) 1 only

B) 1, 2, 3

C) 1, 2, 3, 4

D) 2, 4

E) 2, 3, 4

B) 1, 2, 3

155

Catabolic reactions are generally degradative and hydrolytic.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

156

The pentose phosphate pathway can be characterized as an anabolic pathway.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: FALSE

157

In general, ATP is generated in catabolic pathways and expended in anabolic pathways.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

158

An apoenzyme that loses its coenzyme subunit will be non-functional.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

159

The use of enzymes is necessary to increase the activation energy requirements of a chemical reaction.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: FALSE

160
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Glycolysis is utilized by cells in both respiration and fermentation.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

161

Carbon fixation occurs during the light-independent phase of photosynthesis.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

162

Both respiration and photosynthesis require the use of an electron transport chain.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

163
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Both respiration and photosynthesis use water molecules for the donation of hydrogen ions.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: FALSE

164

Once an enzyme has converted substrates into products, the active site reverts back to its original form.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

165

Which of the following statements about archaea is FALSE?

A) They are prokaryotes.

B) They lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls.

C) Some are thermoacidophiles; others are extreme halophiles.

D) They evolved before bacteria.

E) Some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen.

D) They evolved before bacteria.

166

Which of the following characterizes the Domain Bacteria?

A) prokaryotic cells; ether linkages in phospholipids

B) eukaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids

C) prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids

D) complex cellular structures

E) multicellular

C) prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids

167

If two organisms have similar rRNA sequences, you can conclude that they

A) live in the same place.

B) evolved from a common ancestor.

C) will have different G-C ratios.

D) will both ferment lactose.

E) mated with each other.

B) evolved from a common ancestor.

168

What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi?

A) All members are photosynthetic.

B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter.

C) Members absorb dissolved inorganic matter.

D) All members are microscopic.

E) All members are macroscopic.

B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter.

169

) Which of the following statements about members of the Kingdom Plantae is FALSE?

A) They are multicellular.

B) They are composed of eukaryotic cells.

C) They undergo photosynthesis.

D) They use organic carbon sources.

E) They synthesize organic molecules.

D) They use organic carbon sources.

170

Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Animalia is FALSE?

A) They are multicellular.

B) They are composed of eukaryotic cells.

C) They undergo photosynthesis.

D) They ingest nutrients through a mouth.

E) They are heterotrophs.

C) They undergo photosynthesis.

171

A genus can best be defined as

A) a taxon composed of families.

B) a taxon composed of one or more species and a classification level lying below family.

C) a taxon belonging to a species.

D) a taxon comprised of classes.

E) the most specific taxon.

B) a taxon composed of one or more species and a classification level lying below family.

172

A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial species

A) does not breed with other species.

B) has a limited geographical distribution.

C) can be distinguished from other bacterial species.

D) is a population of cells with similar characteristics.

E) breeds with its own species.

D) is a population of cells with similar characteristics.

173

Which of the following is the best evidence for a three-domain system?

A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains.

B) There are three distinctly different sets of metabolic reactions.

C) There are three distinctly different Gram reactions.

D) Some bacteria live in extreme environments.

E) There are three distinctly different types of nuclei.

A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains.

174

A biochemical test, in the microbiology world, is used to determine

A) staining characteristics.

B) amino acid sequences of enzymes.

C) nucleic acid-base composition of DNA sequences.

D) capability of a microbe to perform a specific enzymatic activity.

E) All of the answers are correct.

D) capability of a microbe to perform a specific enzymatic activity.

175

Which of the following is NOT based on nucleic-acid hybridization?

A) DNA chip

B) FISH

C) PCR

D) Southern blotting

E) Western blotting

E) Western blotting

176

The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on

A) cell morphology.

B) Gram reaction.

C) rRNA sequences.

D) habitat.

E) diseases.

C) rRNA sequences.

177

Which of the following statements is a reason for NOT classifying viruses in one of the three

domains of life (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) rather than in a fourth separate domain?

A) Some viruses can incorporate their genome into a host's genome.

B) Viruses direct anabolic pathways of host cells.

C) Viruses are obligate parasites.

D) Viruses are not composed of cells.

E) All of the answers are correct.

D) Viruses are not composed of cells.

178

Which of the following provides taxonomic information that includes the information obtained in the others listed?

A) nucleic acid hybridization

B) nucleic acid-base composition

C) amino acid sequencing

D) biochemical tests

E) cladogram

E) cladogram

179

Fossil evidence indicates that prokaryotic cells first existed on the Earth

A) 350 years ago.

B) 3500 years ago.

C) 35000 years ago.

D) 3.5 billion years ago.

E) 3.5 × 1012years ago.

D) 3.5 billion years ago.

180
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In Figure 10.1, species "c." is most closely related to which of the following?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

D) d

181
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In Figure 10.1, the closest ancestor for both species "a." and species "b." would be which of the following?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 5

E) 5

182

Protists are a diverse group of organisms that are similar in

A) rRNA sequences.

B) metabolic type.

C) motility.

D) ecology.

E) None of the answers is correct.

A) rRNA sequences.

183

In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the

A) specific epithet.

B) genus.

C) family.

D) order.

E) kingdom.

B) genus.

184

The arrangement of organisms into taxa

A) shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.

B) shows relationships to common ancestors.

C) was designed by Charles Darwin.

D) is arbitrary.

E) is based on evolution.

A) shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.

185

Bacteria and Archaea are similar in which of the following?

A) peptidoglycan cell walls

B) methionine as the start signal for protein synthesis

C) sensitivity to antibiotics

D) considered prokaryotic cells

E) plasma membrane ester linkage

D) considered prokaryotic cells

186

Which of the following best defines a strain in microbiological terms?

A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species

B) a group of organisms with a limited geographical distribution

C) a mixed population of cells,genetically distinct, but with highly similar phenotypic characteristics

D) groups of cells all derived from and identical to a single parent species

E) same as a species

A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species

187

Serological testing is based on the fact that

A) all bacteria have the same antigens.

B) antibodies react specifically with an antigen.

C) the human body makes antibodies against bacteria.

D) antibodies cause the formation of antigens.

E) bacteria clump together when mixed with any antibodies.

B) antibodies react specifically with an antigen.

188

Phage typing is based on the fact that

A) bacteria are destroyed by viruses.

B) viruses cause disease.

C) bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species.

D) Staphylococcus causes infections.

E) phages and bacteria are related.

C) bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species.

189

Organism A has 70 moles % G+C, and organism B has 40 moles % G+C. Which of the following can be concluded from these data?

A) The two organisms are related.

B) The two organisms are unrelated.

C) The organisms make entirely different enzymes.

D) Their nucleic acids will completely hybridize.

E) None of the answers is correct.

B) The two organisms are unrelated.

190

Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that

A) the strands of DNA can be separated.

B) a chromosome is composed of complementary strands.

C) pairing between complementary bases occurs.

D) DNA is composed of genes.

E) all cells have DNA

C) pairing between complementary bases occurs.

191

One of the most popular taxonomic tools is DNA fingerprinting to develop profiles of organisms. These profiles provide direct information about

A) enzymatic activities.

B) protein composition.

C) the presence of specific genes.

D) antigenic composition.

E) the similarities between nucleotide sequences.

E) the similarities between nucleotide sequences.

192

All of the following statements are reasons why fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) has become a valuable tool for environmental microbiologists EXCEPT

A) it allows for detection of uncultured microbes.

B) it demonstrates the diversity of microbes in an environment.

C) it allows observation of microbes in their natural environment in association with other microbes.

D) it allows one to obtain pure cultures of microbes.

E) All of the answers are correct.

D) it allows one to obtain pure cultures of microbes.

193

Which of the following criteria is most useful in determining whether two organisms are related?

A) Both ferment lactose.

B) Both are gram-positive.

C) Both are motile.

D) Both are aerobic.

E) Each answer is equally important.

B) Both are gram-positive.

194

A clone is

A) genetically identical cells derived from a single cell.

B) a genetically engineered cell.

C) a taxon composed of species.

D) a mound of cells on an agar medium.

E) None of the answers is correct.

A) genetically identical cells derived from a single cell.

195
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In Figure 10.2, which figure shows the most closely related organisms?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

B) b

196
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In Table 10.1, which features are found in nearly all eukarya?

A) 2, 3, 5

B) 1, 4, 6

C) 3, 5

D) 2, 3

E) 1, 2, 5

A) 2, 3, 5

197
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In Table 10.1, which feature(s) is (are) found only in prokaryotes?

A) 1, 2, 3

B) 4, 6

C) 2

D) 1

E) 2, 4, 5

B) 4, 6

198

Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls?

A) Animalia

B) Archaea

C) Bacteria

D) Fungi

E) Plantae

D) Fungi

199
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In Figure 10.3, which two are most closely related?

A) 1 and 3

B) 2 and 4

C) 3 and 5

D) 2 and 5

E) 4 and 5

A) 1 and 3

200

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus?

A) Animalia

B) Bacteria

C) Fungi

D) Plantae

E) Protista

B) Bacteria

201

You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in the group

A) Animalia.

B) Archaea.

C) Bacteria.

D) Fungi.

E) Plantae.

B) Archaea.

202

Into which group would you place a unicellular organism that has 70S ribosomes and a peptidoglycan cell wall?

A) Animalia

B) Bacteria

C) Fungi

D) Plantae

E) Protist

B) Bacteria

203
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Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative cell that ferments lactose and uses citric acid as its sole carbon source.

A) Citrobacter

B) Escherichia

C) Lactobacillus

D) Pseudomonas

E) Staphylococcus

A) Citrobacter

204
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Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative coccus.

A) Neisseria

B) Pseudomonas

C) Staphylococcus

D) Streptococcus

E) Micrococcus

A) Neisseria

205

Into which group would you place a multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives inside the human liver?

A) Animalia

B) Fungi

C) Plantae

D) Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria)

E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

A) Animalia

206

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane?

A) Animalia

B) Fungi

C) Plantae

D) Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria)

E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)

207
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In the cladogram shown in Figure 10.4, which two organisms are most closely related?

A) Streptomyces and Micrococcus

B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium

C) Mycobacterium and Lactobacillus

D) Streptomyces and Lactobacillus

E) Streptomyces and Mycobacterium

B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium

208

Which of the following characteristics indicates that two organisms are closely related?

A) Both are cocci.

B) Both ferment lactose.

C) Their DNA can hybridize together.

D) Both normally live in clams.

E) Both are motile.

C) Their DNA can hybridize together.

209

Data collected to date indicate that

A) humans and marine mammals cannot be infected by the same pathogens.

B) marine mammals do not get infectious diseases.

C) new species of bacteria will not be discovered in wild animals.

D) marine mammals don't have an immune system.

E) None of the answers is correct.

E) None of the answers is correct.

210

The cell membranes of all three domains are composed of straight carbon chains attached to

glycerol by ester linkage.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: FALSE

211

Chloroplasts possess circular DNA and reproduce by binary fission.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

212

As molecular techniques improve, scientists are finding it necessary to reclassify some genera.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

213

The highest level in the current taxonomic hierarchy is "Kingdom."

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: FALSE

214

Pure cultures of the same species are not always identical in all ways.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

215

At this point in time, scientists believe the vast majority of the domain Bacteria have been discovered.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: FALSE

216

Once a culture is purified, the next logical step in the process of identifying bacteria is biochemical testing.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: FALSE

217

Serological testing is used for screening bacterial isolates for similarities.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

218

Western blotting is an immunological test used to identify the antibodies in the serum of an individual suspected of having Lyme disease.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE

219

When building a cladogram, the length of the horizontal branch is based on the calculated percent similarity between organisms.

TRUE

FALSE

Answer: TRUE