Immunology Chapters 13-16

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1

1. Latex particles act as ______________________ in nephelometry.

a. antigen-coated reaction intensifiers

2

2. Cryoglobulins are proteins that precipitate or gel when cooled to __________.

b. 0° C

3

A blood specimen for testing for the presence of cryoglobulins should be:

a. immediately placed in warm water after collection.

4

Laser is an acronym for:

a. light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation.

5

A photon is a:

b. basic unit of all radiation.

6

The principle of flow cytometry is based on:

reaction of dyes with the cellular component of interest.

7

All the following are true in regard to polymerase chain reaction (PCR) except:

the target sequence to be amplified can be unknown.

8

The name of the product of the PCR is an __________________.

amplicon

9

Amplification of nucleic acid fragments from a different target is performed with:

multiplex PCR.

10

Real-time PCR:

is less susceptible to amplicon contamination.

11

What is the correct order of the following steps in the enzymatic process of the PCR cycle?

1. Primer annealing

2. DNA denaturation

3. Extension of the primed DNA sequence

DNA Denaturation, Primer Annealing, and Extension of the Primed DNA Sequence

12

The gold standard of molecular testing is:

DNA sequencing.

13

Each cycle of PCR theoretically quadruples the amount of specific DNA sequence and results in an exponential accumulation of the DNA fragment being amplified.

False it doubles it.

14

Southern blot

DNA

15

Northern blot

RNA, specifically mRNA

16

Western blot

Use of labeled antibodies specific for the protein of interest

17

Factors that can influence exposure to, or actual development of, an infectious disease include all the following factors except:

  1. immune status of an individual.
  2. pathogenicity of the microbial agent.
  3. season of the year.
  4. appropriate portal of entry.

Season of the year

18

For an infectious disease actually to develop in a host, a microorganism must:

  1. penetrate the skin or mucous membrane barrier (first line of defense).
  2. survive natural body defense mechanisms.
  3. survive adaptive body defense mechanisms.
  4. all of the above.

All of the above

19

Major immunologic defense mechanisms against bacteria include:

  1. lysozyme.
  2. phagocytosis.
  3. interferon production.
  4. both a and b.

Both a and b

20

A microorganism can survive phagocytosis if it possesses a:

Capsule

21

Parasites can avoid being phagocytized because of:

  1. their ability to migrate away from an inflamed area.
  2. their relatively large size.
  3. the presence of a body (cell) wall.
  4. all of the above.

All of the above

22

Immune responses to parasitic infection include:

  1. immunoglobulin production.
  2. antibody-dependent, cell-mediated cytotoxicity.
  3. cell defenses, such as eosinophils and T lymphocytes.
  4. all of the above.

All of the above

23

Histoplasmosis

Caused by a virus; can be found in soil contaminated with chicken, bird, or bat excreta.

24

Rubella

Sequelae of virus infection include three distinct neurologic syndromes.

25

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

The most common congenital virus infection in the world.

26

Toxoplasmosis

Hydrocephalus, intracranial calcification, and retinochoroiditis are the most common manifestations of tissue damage.

27

Vaccines can be divided into ________ and _______ vaccines.

live attenuated and non replicating

28

The earliest host response to vaccination is:

a. an innate immune response.

b. a memory response

c. an anamnestic response

d. both a and b

An innate immune response

29

Protection against bioterrorism

Anthrax vaccine

30

Not available for preventing congenital infection

Cytomegalovirus vaccine

31

DNA-base vaccine

Hay fever vaccine

32

Protection against cervical cancer

Human papilloma virus vaccine

33

Annual vaccination required

Influenza vaccine

34

Since the introduction of this vaccine, diarrhea-associated health care utilization for US children has decreased substantially

Rotavirus vaccine

35

Has reduced disease by 99%

Polio vaccine

36

Given to high-risk individuals

Smallpox vaccine

37

Nephelometry measures the light scatter of:

Macromolecules

38

Nephelometry can be used to assay all of the following except:

IgM

Ig G

IgD

IgA

IgD

39

Cryoglobulins are proteins that precipitate or gel when cooled to:

0 degrees C (32 degrees F)

40

Cryoglobulin analysis can be useful in the diagnosis of:

Raynaud's phenomenon

41

All of the following are descriptive characteristics of laser light except:

a. intensity

b. stability

c. polychromaticity

d. monochromaticity

Polychromaticity

42

In comparison to serologic assays, nucleic acid testing offers all the following benefits except:

a. reduced cost

b. enhanced specificity

c. increased sensitivity

d. all of the above

a. reduced cost

43

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing is useful in:

Forensic and genetic testing and disease diagnosis

44

The traditional PCR technique

Copies the target region of DNA

45

For the PCR reaction to occur, the clinicians must provide which of the following:

a. oligonucleotide primers

b. individual deoxynucleotides

c. Thermostable DNA polymerase

d. All of the above

All of the above

46

The enzyme reverse transcriptase converts:

mRNA to cDNA

47

DNA polymerase catalyzes:

Primer extension

48

Messenger RNA is studied

Northern blot immunoassay

49

Called immunoblot, it is used to detect antibodies to subspecies of antigens

Western blot immunoassay

50

Single-stranded DNA is studied

Southern blot immunoassay

51

Which of the following techniques uses signal amplification?

bDNA

TMA

NASBA

RT-PCR

bDNA

52

Which of the following nucleic acid amplification techniques does not require the use of a thermocycler?

PCR

SDA

NASBA

TMA

SDA

53

Factors that influence the development of an infectious disease include all of the following except:

a. immune status of the individual

b. incidence of an organism in the population

c. pathogenicity of the agent

d. sole presence of the agent or microorganism

Sole presence of the agent or microorganism

54

Interferon

Viruses

55

Lysozymes and phagocytosis

Bacteria

56

Immunoglobulins, complement, antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, and cellular defenses

Parasites

57

Possibly the activation of complement

Yeast

58

The detection of _______ can be of diagnostic significance during the first exposure of a patient to an infectious agent.

IgM

59

Serologic procedures for the diagnosis of recent infection should include:

Acute and convalescent specimens

60

An important factor affecting microbial disease development is the:

a. Ability of some microorganism to multiply in an intracellular habitat

b. Display of antigen variation

c. Presence of a related microorganism

d. Both a and b

Both a and b

61

For an infectious disease to develop in a host, the organism must initially:

Penetrate the skin or mucous membrane barrier

62

Affected by immune responses such as immunoglobulin, complement, and antibody-dependent, cell-mediated cytotoxicity

Parasitic disease

63

Inhibited by antibiotics, lysozyme, and phagocytosis

Bacterial disease

64

Stimulates production of, and is in turn inhibited by, interferon

Viral disease

65

The first type antibody that may be apparent in the immune response to an infectious disease:

IgM

66

A distinguishing characteristic of the herpesvirus is that:

a. They are cell-associated viruses

b. They are enveloped RNA

c. Human beings are the only known reservoir of infection

d. Both a and c

Both a and c

67

Up to _______ of infants develop antibody to HHV-6 by 10 to 11 months of age.

75%

68

Varicells-zoster virus causes:

Chickenpox and shingles

69

Varicella-zoster virus can be reactivated in:

a. AIDS patients

b. Older adults

c. Immunocompromised persons

d. All of the above

All of the above

70

Rapid preliminary diagnosis of varicella-zoster virus can be done in the laboratory by:

Direct immunofluorescence

71

Histoplasmosis is caused by a:

Fungus

72

Aspergillosis is:

an opportunistic organism

73

The first test to be positive in coccidioidomycosis is:

Hypersensitivity testing

74

Subcutaneous lymphatic mycosis

Sporotrichosis

75

Vector in infected pigeons

Cryptococcosis

76

Chronic fungal disease

Blastomycosis

77

The Center of Biologics Evaluation and Research CBER regulates:

Vaccine products

78

Pathogens adapted for biological warfare include

Smallpox, Bacillus anthraces, and Q fever

79

Vaccines can be divided into ________ and ________ vaccines.

Live attenuated and non replicating

80

To meet FDA requirements, a vaccine must:

a. Produce protective immunity with only minimal side effects

b. Be immunogenic enough to produce a strong and measurable immune response

c. Be stable during its shelf life

d. All of the above

All of the above

81

Successful in cats

Leukemia vaccine

82

Procedure depends on light-scattering properties of antigen-antibody complexes; antigen-coated latex particles act as reaction intensifiers and agglutinate by their corresponding antibody measures complement components, immune compels, and several antibodies

nephelometry

83

the formation of macromolecular complex is a fundamental prerequisite for nephelometric protein quantitation (between protein and antiserum)

Nephelometry

84

relationship between the quantity of antigen and the measuring signal at a constant antibody concentration; antigen overwhelms antibody, signal drops

Heidelberger Curve

85

measuring method routinely used for precipitation reactions

fixed-time method

86

combines fluid dynamics, optics, laser science, high-speed computers, and fluorochrome-conjugated monoclonal antibodies that rapidly classify groups of cells in heterogenous mixtures

cell cytometry

87

a dye that stains a specific component, or some marker, with a specific reactivity

fluorochrome

88

major applications include identification of cells and cell sorting before further analysis

flow cell cytometry

89

physical sight of clumping (agglutination)

phenotyping

90

antigen combining not visible

genotyping

91

used for monitoring HIV infections and diagnosing AIDS

CD4:CD8 ratio

92

Clinically relevant to the evaluation of seronegative spondyloarthropathies (chronic diseases of the joints)

HLA-B27 antigen

93

sequences of DNA carried on chromosomes that encode information for the translation of nucleic acid sequences into amino acids that results in protein production

genes

94

two purine bases, adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T); double stranded with specific based pairs linked together

DNA deoxyribonucleic acid

95

two purine bases, adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and uracil (U)

RNA ribonucleic acid

96

the bond broken when double strand of DNA molecule is denatured

hydrogen bond

97

the rejoining of complementary DNA strands that were denatured

anneal

98

generates a strand of messenger RNA (mRNA) which encodes for the gene and is expressed as a protein

transcription

99

the mRNA moves from the nucleus of a cell into the cytoplasm to the ribosomes; mRNA is translated into an amino acid sequence on the ribosome

translation

100

easily replicated and exists in three forms

RNA

101

translates

mRNA (messenger)

102

transports

tRNA (transfer)

103

protein synthesis

rRNA (ribosomal)

104

the piece of genetic material, such as DNA, that is formed as the product of a natural event, or more likely, as an artificial amplification technique such as PCR

amplicon

105

highly sensitive, but prone to producing false-positive results frequently caused by amplicon contamination

PCR (polymerase chain reaction)

106

in vitro method that amplifies low levels of specific DNA sequences in a sample to higher quantities suitable for further analysis; target sequence to be amplified must be known

polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

107

separation of double DNA strands into two single strands through the use of heat

DNA denaturation

108

recombination of the oligonucleotide primers (what you're looking for) with the original single-stranded DNA

Primer annealing

109

enzyme DNA polymerase synthesizes new complementary strands by extension of primers and repeats 30 times

Extension of primed DNA sequence

110

applications include DNA amplification, target sequence identification, and labeled antisense probe synthesis

PCR

111

detects gene mutations (early cancer detection), identifies DNA associated cancers, identifies genetic mutations

PCR analysis

112

modified for conversion of RNA to DNA using reverse transcriptase in initial steps; used for identification of RNA viruses such as HIV and hepatitis C

Reverse transcriptase PCR

113

uses numerous primers to amplify nucleic acid fragments from different targets

Multiplex PCR

114

uses fluorescence resonance energy transfer to quantitate specific DNA sequences; less susceptible to amplicon contamination

Real-time PCR

115

fast turnaround time, smaller sample volume required, and increased specificity and sensitivity

molecular testing

116

amplifies target by cloning, then adds primers to determine an exact match; gold standard molecular testing method

DNA sequencing

117

complementary probe pairing with a DNA or RNA strand derived from the patient specimen; uses labeled nucleic acid probe to examine a specimen for specific DNA or RNA sequence

hybridization

118

diseases associated with significant changes in DNA such as sickle cell anemia and hemophilia A; determines single-base mutation

Southern blot

119

used for detection of specific mRNA; not commonly used in the lab

Northern blot

120

proteins are separated electrophoretically, transferred to membranes, and identified through use of labeled antibodies specific for protein of interest; confirmation of HIV

Western blot

121

contracted by inhaling soil/dust with arthrospores

coccidioidomycosis

122

transmitted by vector from other animals, both wild and domestic such as rabies

zoonoses

123

viruses that mutate and evolve very readily

RNA viruses

124

spread by vector mosquito, caused by an RNA virus, worldwide public health challenge; diagnostic procedures include RT-PCR, ELISA, IgM and IgG ELISA

Dengue fever

125

large enveloped DNA viruses such as CMV and EBV, HSV, VZV, and HHV-6

Herpesviruses

126

Toxoplasma, other viruses, rubella, CMV, and herpes; ordered for pregnant female with possible infection or on the newborn

TORCH Panel

127

a biological suspension of weakened or killed pathogens or their components.

It can be purified protein subunits, conjugated and nonconjugated polysaccharides, or split virions.

vaccines

128

usually a bacterium or virus that the immune system recognizes in order to develop a defense

Pathogen

129

The history of vaccination begins as early as 1000 BCE, when the ______ used smallpox inoculation or variolation, a method of scratching the skin and applying pulverized powder from a smallpox scab.

Chinese

130

In 1796, ______, an English physician, used cowpox scabs to create immunity to smallpox.

Edward Jenner

131

The first vaccine for chicken cholera was created in the laboratory of ________ in 1879 and in 1885, developed a rabies vaccine.

Louis Pasteur