Microbiology Final Exam

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1

When pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms, the result is a/an _______ bond.
a) ionic
b) covalent
c) hydrogen
d) carbonic

covalent

2

Mitochondria:
a) are responsible for converting sunlight to chemical energy
b) are present only in photosynthetic organisms
c) have a double membrane
d) are responsible for protein synthesis

have a double membrane

3

Which of the following statements is false?
a) All bacteria are capable of forming capsules.
b) The chemical composition of each capsule is unique to a particular strain of bacteria.
c) Slime layers are usually thinner than capsules.
d) A slime layer protects bacteria against drying and helps trap nutrients near a cell.

All bacteria are capable of forming capsules.

4

Koch's postulates were:
a) specific to anthrax and tuberculosis but don't apply to other diseases
b) designed to establish a casual relationship between a causative microbe and a disease c) strict in that microorganisms isolated from experimentally inoculated hosts had to be different from the microorganism that was introduced into the host.
d) interpreted as many organism could cause the same disease

designed to establish a casual relationship between a causative microbe and a disease

5

Light of ________ wavelength typically will result in ________ resolution.
a) longer, better
b) shorter, better
c) any, poor
d) shorter, worse

shorter, better

6

Which is the correct ordering of cell wall components starting from outside the cell and going inward?
a) In gram positive bacteria: peptidoglycan, cell membrane
b) In gram negative bacteria: peptidoglycan, lipopolysaccharide, periplasmic space, outer membrane, cell membrane
c) In acid fast bacteria: peptidoglycan, lipid layer, cell membrane
d) In gram negative bacteria: peptidoglycan, periplasmic space, lipid membrane

In gram positive bacteria: peptidoglycan, cell membrane

7

Which of the following is not a common bacterial shape?
a) Spirochete
b) Coccus
c) Disc
d) Bacillus

Disc

8

The lens closest to the slide during a microscopic examination is the _____.
a) ocular
b) objective
c) condenser
d) compound

objective

9

The most important structural component of bacterial cell walls is _____.
a) teichoic acid
b) lipotechoic acid
c) peptidoglycan
d) glutamic acid

peptidoglycan

10

In bacteria, the cell membrane functions in the all of the following ways except:
a) regulate movement of materials into and out of the cell
b) synthesizes cell wall components
c) serve as the site for protein synthesis
d) assists with DNA replication

serve as the site for protein synthesis

11

An ion is all of the following except:
a) a charged atom
b) an atom that has lost or gained one or more electrons
c) either a cation or an anion
d) an atom with the same number of protons as electrons

an atom with the same number of protons as electrons

12

Why do basic dyes attach to most bacterial surfaces?
a) Most bacterial surfaces are negatively charged.
b) Bacterial cells take up safranin.
c) Most bacterial surfaces resist taking up the stain.
d) Most bacterial surfaces do not have a charge.

Most bacterial surfaces are negatively charged.

13

Peptidoglycan makes up more than 50% of a ________ cell wall.
a) Gram negative
b) Gram positive
c) Gram variable
d) acid-fast

Gram positive

14

Phospholipids:
a) have a charged phosphate group that can mix with water and insoluble fatty acids.
b) can serve as hormones.
c) always remain liquid at room temperature.
d) form straight chains in water.

have a charged phosphate group that can mix with water and insoluble fatty acids.

15

A parasitologist studies parasites. What does a mycologist study?
a) protozoa
b) how viruses cause disease and are involved in cancer
c) the development of chemical substances to treat diseases
d) fungi

fungi

16

The Fluid-mosaic model describes the structure of _____.
a) cell walls
b) cell membranes
d) capsules
d) endosymbiotic relationships

cell membranes

17

What discovery was crucial to the founding of the field of microbiology?
a) Isolation of lepers limiting the spread of infectious disease
b) Agglutination of bacteria in immune serum
c) The chemical composition of DNA, the genetic material
d) Microscopes which allowed for the direct observation of microbes

Microscopes which allowed for the direct observation of microbes

18

A small comma shaped bacteria is described as being a ________.
a) spirochete
b) bacillus
c) spirillum
d) vibrio

vibrio

19

The English scientist Robert Hooke coined the term cell because the small boxes he saw in the microscope reminded him of a monk's room. What is the cell theory that was later proposed?
a) Cells are fundamental units of life.
b) Replication requires the division of cells into two equal cells.
c) Hereditary information is passed on in the form of DNA.
d) All organisms are unicellular, made up of one cell.

Cells are fundamental units of life.

20

The first person to use a microscope to observe cells invisible to the naked eye was:
a) Robert Hooke
b) Matthias Schleiden
c) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
d) Louis Pasteur

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

21

Osmosis most directly involves:
a) water moving down a concentration gradient
b) organic molecules crossing a membrane
c) energy being expended to import large molecules into the cell
d) sugars and salts moving down their concentration gradient

water moving down a concentration gradient

22

Which of the following is not found in bacterial cells?
a) A cell membrane, usually surrounded by a cell wall
b) An internal cytoplasm with ribosomes, a nuclear region and in some cases granules c) A variety of external structures, such as capsules, flagella and pili
d) Respiratory enzymes contained in an internal structure surrounded by membranes

Respiratory enzymes contained in an internal structure surrounded by membranes

23

A simple stain:
a) uses only a single dye.
b) requires only one step to stain a slide.
c) distinguishes between two different parts of an organism. d) is composed of an equal balance of acid and basic dyes.

uses only a single dye.

24

Electron microscopes have a much better resolving power when compared to light microscopes because electrons _____.
a) are invisible to the eye
b) have longer wavelengths than visible light rays
c) have shorter wavelengths than visible light rays
d) are negatively charged

have shorter wavelengths than visible light rays

25

Microbes live in us, on us and nearly everywhere around us. Which of the following activities are microbes involved in?
a) Decomposing dead organisms
b) Aiding the digestive processes of grazing animals
c) Capturing energy from the sun
d) All of the above

All of the above

26

When glucose is dissolved in water, the water is the ________ and the glucose is the ________.
a) solvent, solute
b) solvent, solution
c) solute, solvent
d) solute, solution

solvent, solute

27

Endospores are typically found in the genus: a) Streptococcus
b) Clostridium
c) Mycobacterium
d) Staphylococci

Clostridium

28

Bacteria move by means of:
a) cilia
b) flagella
c) fimbriae
d) pili

flagella

29

The shape of a bacterial cell is determined (and maintained) by the _____.
a) cell membrane b) cell wall
c) capsule
d) slime layer

cell wall

30

Which stain would be the best choice for detecting mycobacterium (the bacteria responsible for tuberculosis and leprosy)?
a) simple stain
b) endospore stain
c) acid-fast stain
d) Gram stain

acid-fast stain

31

Bacteria with flagella all over their surface are said to be:
a) monotrichous
b) peritrichous
c) amphitrichous
d) lophotrichous

peritrichous

32

All of the following are considered microbes except:
a) viruses
b) bacteria
c) protozoa
d) worms

worms

33

The three fundamental particles of the atom are _____.
a) elements, molecules, and compounds
b) ions, cations, and anions.
c) proteins, lipids, and sugars
d) protons, neutrons, and electrons.

protons, neutrons, and electrons.

34

The charged, phosphate end of a membrane phospholipid is:
a) water-fearing
b) hydrophilic
c) hydrophobic
d) none of the above

hydrophilic

35

Genetic information in bacteria is:
a) found in the nucleus
b) found only in RNA
c) found in DNA condensed by histones
d) sometimes found in the form of plasmids

sometimes found in the form of plasmids

36

Microbiology is the study of bacteria, algae, fungi, viruses and protozoa. Most of these are single-celled, except for which two:
a) bacteria (some of which are multicellular) and algae
b) algae and fungi (some have many cells)
c) protozoa and fungi
d) bacteria and viruses

algae and fungi (some have many cells)

37

The counterstain in the endospore stain is _____.
a) malachite green
b) crystal violet
c) safranin
d) methylene blue

safranin

38

Charged atomswith electrostatic attraction are generally held together by _____.
a) covalent bonds
b) ionic bonds
c) hydrogen bonds
d) municipal bonds

ionic bonds

39

Ultraviolet light is a key component of:
a) bright-field microscopy
b) dark-field microscopy
c) phase-contrast microscopy
d) fluorescence microscopy

fluorescence microscopy

40

The atomic nucleus consists of:
a) cations and anions
b) protons, electrons and neutrons
c) protons and neutrons
d) solutes and colloids

protons and neutrons

41

Which of the following groups of organisms is not prokaryotic?
a) Archaea
b) Bacteria
c) Eubacteria
d) Eukarya

Eukarya

42

What is true about the index of refraction?
a) If light rays are taken up by the object than it has a high index of refraction.
b) Refraction measures the frequency of the light as it reflects from a material.
c) Oil immersion lenses increase the problem of refraction.
d) Light will bend as it passes through two substances with different indices of refraction.

Light will bend as it passes through two substances with different indices of refraction.

43

Endocytosis:
a) releases material in the form of phagosomes.
b) is the process of taking materials into the cell.
c) directs material to the endoplasmic reticulum.
d) uses simple diffusion move material across the plasma membrane.

is the process of taking materials into the cell.

44

During diffusion, molecules _____.
a) move from hotter areas to cooler areas
b) move from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration
c) move from areas of lower concentration to areas of higher concentration
d) expend energy to more around

move from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration

45

A microorganism that causes disease is _______ .
a) pathogenic
b) phagocytic
c) virulent
d) algae

pathogenic

46

In a Gram stain, the mordant is _____.
a) crystal violet
b) iodine
c) water
d) alcohol

iodine

47

Eukaryotic cells add rigidity to their plasma membrane by including what component in the membrane?
a) Protein
b) Lipids
c) Sugars
d) Sterols

sterols

48

Amino acids in a protein are joined together by _____.
a) peptide bonds
b) hydrogen bonds
c) phosphodiester bonds
d) tertiary bonds

peptide bonds

49

When light passes through an object, ________ of the light has occurred.
a) reflection
b) absorption
c) transmission
d) fluorescence

transmission

50

While a doctor may diagnose and treat a patient who presents with a disease, an epidemiologist:
a) helps in the development and use of vaccines
b) investigates what organism is responsible for a particular patients disease
c) figures out how to use microorganisms to clean up the environment
d) studies the frequency and distribution of the disease in the community

studies the frequency and distribution of the disease in the community

51

A compound light microscope can generally see objects as no smaller than a _____.
a) ribosome
b) large protozoa
c) small bacterium
d) typical virus

small bacterium

52

Some bacteria can transfer DNA to another cell using:
a) conjugation pili
b) fimbriae
c) axial filaments
d) lophotrichous flagella

conjugation pili

53

A typical bacterial cell has a salt concentration of about 1%. If the cell is placed in a solution containing 10% salt, the net flow of water will be _____.
a) out of the cell
b) into the cell
c) equally in and out of the cell
d) none of the above since water doesn't cross bacterial cell membranes

out of the cell

54

Which bacterial genus normally lacks a cell wall?
a) Mycobacterium
b) Streptococcus
c) Mycoplasma
d) Bacillus

Mycoplasma

55

Which of the following cellular structures can be found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a) Golgi apparatus
b) lysosomes
c) peroxisomes
d) ribosomes

ribosomes

56

Penicillin controls the growth of bacteria by _____.
a) destroying cell membranes
b) preventing protein synthesis
c) removing cell walls
d) preventing peptidoglycan synthesis

preventing peptidoglycan synthesis

57

What is true about atomic weight?
a) It is the sum of the number of electrons and protons in an atom.
b) The higher the atomic weight the more likely an atom will form a chemical bond.
c) It is always a whole number.
d) Atoms of a particular element that have different atomic weights are called isotopes.

Atoms of a particular element that have different atomic weights are called isotopes.

58

In a properly executed Gram stain, Gram positive organisms appear ________ while Gram negative organisms appear ________.
a) pink, clear
b) pink, purple
c) purple, pink
d) purple, blue

purple, pink

59

All of the following statements agree with the germ theory of disease, except:
a) microorganisms can invade other organisms and cause disease
b) maggots only grow on meat that is left in an open flask because microbes are transmitted by flies and do not spontaneously generate
c) disease causing organisms will spontaneously arise from decaying meat
d) disease is not caused by bad air or spirits

disease causing organisms will spontaneously arise from decaying meat

60

When light rays pass into an object but do not emerge, ________ has taken place.
a) reflection
b) absorption
c) refraction
d) transmission

absorption

61

Which statement about acids and bases is false?
a) A hydrogen ion (H+) is a proton.
b) Acids are proton acceptors.
c) Bases are proton acceptors
d) A hydroxyl ion donor is also a proton acceptor

Acids are proton acceptors.

62

The periplasmic space is found _____.
a) only in Gram positive organisms
b) between the nuclear area and the cell membrane
c) primarily in acid fast bacteria
d) between the innercell membrane and outer cell wall membrane

between the innercell membrane and outer cell wall membrane

63

The lens closest to your eyes during a microscopic examination is the _____.
a) ocular
b) objective
c) condenser
d) compound

ocular

64

When light bends as it passes through an object, ________, of the light has occurred.
a) reflection
b) absorption
c) transmission
d) refraction

refraction

65

The total number of protons in an atom is equal to its _____.
a) atomic weight
b) molecular weight
c) chemical weight
d) atomic number

atomic number

66

Bacteria capsules can best be visualized by _______ staining.
a) flagellar
b) crystal violet
c) negative
d) mordant

negative

67

The concept of putting microbes to work to clean up the environment is called:
a) bioremediation
b) pasteurization
c) immunization
d) fermentation

bioremediation

68

Inclusions found in bacteria generally would not include:
a) granules
b) volutin
c) metachromatic granules
d) ribosomes

ribosomes

69

Exoenzymes:
a) produced by gram positive rods act in the medium around the organism
b) are released by the golgi apparatus into the cytoplasm where they act
c) produced by gram negative rods act in the periplasmic space
d) two of the above

two of the above

70

In glycolysis, each molecule of glucose eventually produces ________ molecules of pyruvic acid.
a) one b) two c) three d) four

two

71

The transfer of DNA between bacterial cells by a virus is:
a) transformation
b) transduction
c) transferration
d) conjugation

transduction

72

Which of the following is true about glycolysis?
a) The net yield of ATP is two ATPs for each molecule of glucose.
b) It provides cells with a relatively large amount of energy.
c) Four molecules of ATP are used in the initial phosphorylation steps.
d) The ATP that is used up during glycolysis is not considered in calculating the net yield of ATP.

The net yield of ATP is two ATPs for each molecule of glucose.

73

A bacterial population grows most rapidly during ________ phase.
a) lag
b) log
c) stationary
d) death

log

74

Amino acids move from the cytoplasm to the ribosome with the help of _____.
a) mRNAs
b) tRNAs
c) siRNAs
d) rRNAs

tRNAs

75

Organisms with special nutritional needs are said to be _____.
a) barophiles
b) fastidious
c) aerobes
d) none of the above

fastidious

76

Which type of cell will generally shift to aerobic metabolism when oxygen is available but will carry on fermentation otherwise?
a) aerotolerant anaerobes
b) facultative anaerobes
c) obligate anaerobes
d) obligate aerobes

facultative anaerobes

77

Factors that affect the rate of enzyme catalyzed reactions include:
a) temperature
b) pH
c) concentration of enzyme
d) all of the above

all of the above

78

Which of the following is not a carrier molecule that carries hydrogen atoms or electrons in oxidative reactions?
a) Cytochrome
b) FAD
c) Niacin
d) NAD+

Niacin

79

Microbial growth:
a) refers to the increase in the size of a microbial cell
b) refers to the increase in the frequency of cell division
c) in a single generation time leads to double the cell size
d) in a single generation time leads to double the number of microbes.

in a single generation time leads to double the number of microbes.

80

This illustration represents: (deleted segment between two structural genes, result in one strand)
a) conjugation or transformation b) transduction or mutation
c) genetic fusion
d) protoplast fusion or gene amplification

genetic fusion

81

Most bacteria reproduce by:
a) sexual reproduction
b) binary fission
c) budding
d) homologous recombination

binary fission

82

The type of cell reproduction in which a small, new cell develops from the surface of an existing cell and then separates from the parent cell is known as ________ and is the normal mode of replication in _____ .
a) binary fission, bacteria
b) binary fission, yeast
c) budding, bacteria
d) budding, yeast

budding, yeast

83

This molecule is used in the process of _____.
(mRNA codon + anticodon / amino acid accepter arm)
a) DNA replication
b) mitosis
c) meiosis
d) protein synthesis

protein synthesis

84

Serial dilutions are used to:
a) slow down the growth of microbes
b) speed up the growth of microbes
c) obtain bacterial cultures at several different concentrations d) form bacterial colonies

obtain bacterial cultures at several different concentrations

85

Which of the following processes requires contact between donor and recipient cells?
a) transduction
b) transcription
c) conjugation
d) transformation

conjugation

86

A viral cycle, which ends with the rupture of the cell and release of new viral particles, is the:
a) temperate cycle
b) lytic cycle
c) lysogenic cycle
d) prophage cycle

lytic cycle

87

Competitive inhibition of enzymes occurs when the inhibitor:
a) binds to the active site of the enzyme.
b) binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme.
c) inhibitor changes the shape of the enzyme.
d) inhibitor is acted upon by the enzyme.

binds to the active site of the enzyme.

88

All of the following are electron acceptors for anaerobic respiration, except:
a) carbon dioxide
b) oxygen
c) nitrate ions
d) sulfate ions

oxygen

89

Bacterial conjugation is an example of _____.
a) transduction
b) vertical gene transfer
c) horizontal gene transfer
d) bacterial transformation

horizontal gene transfer

90

Transcription results in the formation of what type of new molecule?
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Protein
d) lipid

RNA

91

Genes with different information at the same locus are called _____.
a) chromosomes
b) homologs
c) plasmids
d) alleles

alleles

92

When genes are passed on from parent to offspring, which of the following events has taken place?
a) horizontal gene transfer
b) transduction
c) vertical gene transfer
d) retrograde gene transfer

vertical gene transfer

93

The initial substrate molecule for the Krebs cycle is:
a) pyruvic acid
b) acetyl-CoA
c) acetic acid
d) butanediol

acetyl-CoA

94

Which reaction takes place in the mitochondrial membrane?
a) Glycolysis
b) Fermentation
c) Krebs cycle
d) Electron transport chain

Electron transport chain

95

Which of the following is most likely to have evolved to live in the deep layers of mud, where there is a complete lack of free oxygen?
a) Obligate aerobe
b) Obligate anaerobe
c) Facultative anaerobe
d) Aerotolerant anaerobe

Obligate anaerobe

96

Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
a) Alcohol - Fermentation
b) Pyruvate - Glycolysis
c) Carbon dioxide - Glycolysis d) Oxaloacetic acid - Krebs cycle

Carbon dioxide - Glycolysis

97

When cells are placed in a hypertonic environment they will undergo ________ .
a) lysis
b) no change in size
c) swelling of the cell which is contained by the cell wall
d) plasmolysis

plasmolysis

98

Hybridomas are used to produce large quantities of _____.
a) restriction enzymes
b) monoclonal antibodies
c) antibiotics
d) natural insecticides

monoclonal antibodies

99

With regard to the lac operon, which of the following is false under conditions of low (or no) lactose?
a) The RNA polymerase cannot transcribe structural genes
b) The repressor is bound to the operator
c) Lactose is not bound to the repressor
d) RNA polymerase can bind to the promoter

RNA polymerase can bind to the promoter

100

The information for a gene on a chromosome is used to create ____ which then moves to the ribosome to sere as a template for protein synthesis.

a) tRNA

b)rRNA

c) siRNA

d) mRNA

mRNA

101

A culture that contains only a single species of organism is known as a _____.
a) pure culture
b) Koch culture
c) mixed culture
d) contaminated culture

pure culture

102

When an E. coli cell contains high levels of lactose, the lactose will bind with the _____.
a) repressor
b) operator
c) promoter
d) RNA polymerase

repressor

103

In the stationary phase of bacterial growth:
a) the number of newly generated cells is greater than the number of dying cells b) the number of newly generated cells is less than the number of dying cells
c) the number of newly generated cells is the same as the number of dying cells
d) none of the above

the number of newly generated cells is the same as the number of dying cells

104

The end product of glycolysis is:
a) fructose-1,6-diphosphate
b) 1,3 diphosphoglyceric acid
c) phosphoenolpyruvic acid
d) pyruvic acid

pyruvic acid

105

Which of the following properties are exclusive to rRNA?
a) Combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes
b) Carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein
c) Molecules contain an anticodon
d) Contains the nucleotide thymine

Combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes

106

RNA polymerase uses ________ as a template to synthesize ________ .
a) RNA, proteins
b) RNA, DNA
c) DNA, RNA
d) DNA, proteins

DNA, RNA

107

At which temperature do enzymes begin to denature?
a) 20 degrees Celsius
b) 30 degrees Celsius
c) 40 degrees Celsius
d) 50 degrees Celsius

40 degrees Celsius

108

During replication DNA is synthesized by _____.
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA polymerase
c) ribosomes
d) ribozymes

DNA polymerase

109

An anticodon would be found in/on a ________ molecule.
a) mRNA
b) tRNA
c) the lagging strand
d) rRNA

tRNA

110

Photoautotrophs obtain energy from:
a) light and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source
b) organic molecules and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source
c) inorganic substances and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source
d) light and use organic substances as a carbon source

light and use carbon dioxide as a carbon source

111

Within a bacterial endospore, the spore is most closely surrounded by the _____.
a) spore membrane
b) cortex
c) cell membrane
d) spore coat

spore membrane

112

The genetic information needed for a cell to participate in conjugation resides in the DNA of a cell's _____.
a) bacterial chromosome
b) F plasmid
c) F pilus
d) mitochondria

F plasmid

113

A plasmid is a/an _____.
a) extrachromosomal piece of DNA
b) chromosomal site to which genetic activity can be traced
c) body found in the cytoplasm that directs protein synthesis
d) molecule that carries the genetic message of the chromosomal DNA

extrachromosomal piece of DNA

114

Capnophiles grow best under conditions of _____.
a) high carbon dioxide
b) low carbon dioxide
c) high osmotic pressure
d) low osmotic pressure

high carbon dioxide

115

Oxidation is defined as the ________ while reduction is the ________ .
a) gain of electrons, loss of protons
b) loss of electrons, gain of protons
c) loss of electrons, gain of electrons
d) loss of protons, gain of protons

loss of electrons, gain of electrons

116

A bacterium that is transformed:
a) cannot form a conjugation pilus
b) has acquired naked DNA from the environment
c) will probably die within 48 hours
d) if injected, it always will result in the death of a mouse

has acquired naked DNA from the environment

117

In the electron transport chain, the energy to make ATP comes directly from _____.
a) FAD
b) NADH
c) both FAD and NADH
d) neither FAD nor NADH

both FAD and NADH

118

Plasmids can do which of the following?

a) direct synthesis of conjugation pili

b)provide resistances to certain antibiotics

c) induce the formation of tumors in plants

d) all of the above are functions of various plasmids

all of the above are functions of various plasmids

119

Bacterial chromosomes:
a) must be present for a bacteria to stay alive and reproduce
b) are small segments of DNA that have the ability to move from one position to another
c) contain genetic information that is helpful but not necessary for survival
d) are always circular and only one is present in each bacteria

must be present for a bacteria to stay alive and reproduce

120

Sulfa drugs bind to the active site of the enzyme which normally converts para-amino benzoic acid (PABA) to folic acid, preventing the production of folic acid and, eventually purine synthesis. In this case, the sulfa drug is acting as a/an:
a) allosteric inhibitor
b) competitive inhibitor
c) noncompetitive inhibitor
d) uncompetitive inhibitor

competitive inhibitor

121

Where would you expect to find a barophile?
a) At the bottom of the ocean
b) In unpasteurized milk
c) In the large intestine
d) In sewage

At the bottom of the ocean

122

Microaerophiles:
a) grow best when the environment has a small amount of carbon dioxide.
b) grow best when the environment has a small amount of free oxygen.
c) need a high concentration of carbon dioxide.
d) need a high concentration of oxygen.

grow best when the environment has a small amount of free oxygen.

123

An obligate psychrophile would produce a turbid culture at ________ degrees Celsius.
a) 15
b) 30
c) 45
d) 60

15

124

Most human pathogens are _____.
a) psychrophiles
b) mesophiles
c) thermophiles
d) acidophiles

mesophiles

125

As electrons are passed from carrier to carrier, their energy changes. At which point in the chain, would you expect the energy of the electrons to be the lowest?
a) A
b) G
c) C
d) F
e) E

G

126

Organisms which get their carbon from other organisms are:
a) autotrophs
b) chemotrophs
c) phototrophs
d) heterotrophs

heterotrophs

127

In an experiment such as Griffith's pneumococcal experiment which of the following, when injected into a mouse, would result in its death?
a) Heat-killed, smooth pneumoccocci
b) Live, rough pneumococci
c) A mixture of heat killed smooth pneumococci and live rough pneumococci
d) A mixture of heat killed rough pneumococci and live rough pneumococci

A mixture of heat killed smooth pneumococci and live rough pneumococci

128

A virus which incorporates its DNA into the DNA of its host organism is existing as a _____.
a) virulent phage
b) prophage
c) lytic phage
d) none of the above

prophage

129

In a culture containing both F- and F+ cells, which of the following will occur if we wait long enough?
a) No conjugation will occur
b) The cells will all become genetically identical
c) All F- will become F+ cells
d) All F+ cells will become F- cells

All F- will become F+ cells

130

In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is:
a) water
b) oxygen
c) sulfur
d) coenzyme Q

oxygen

131

An enzyme-substrate complex forms when substrate binds to an enzyme at the enzyme's ______ site.
a) catalytic
b) allosteric
c) operative
d) active

active

132

In eukaryotes, transcription takes place in the ________ while translation takes place in the ________.
a) nucleus, nucleus
b) nucleus, cytoplasm
c) cytoplasm, nucleus
d) cytoplasm, cytoplasm

nucleus, cytoplasm

133

During the process of lysogeny:
a) a phage integrates into the chromosome of the bacterium
b) a bacterium takes up DNA from the media
c) new phage particles are assembled in the host bacterium
d) a bacterium is split open to release new phage particles

a phage integrates into the chromosome of the bacterium

134

A typical transposon is flanked by:
a) resistance factors
b) inverted repeat terminals
c) RTF genes
d) repressor sites

inverted repeat terminals

135

Pyruvic acid is metabolized in the absence of oxygen during the process of:
a) glycolysis
b) fermentation
c) oxidation
d) dark reactions

fermentation

136

The first step in protein metabolism is the breakdown of proteins into:
a) nucleotides
b) fatty acids
c) amino acids
d) coenzymes

amino acids

137

Which of the following statements is true?
a) During DNA replication the leading strand serves as template for replication of lagging strand.
b) Fragments on the lagging strand are joined together by DNA ligase.
c) A bacterial chromosome is made up of individual units called Okazaki fragments.
d) Two strands of double helix combine by base pairing in a parallel fashion.

Fragments on the lagging strand are joined together by DNA ligase.

138

An ideal antimicrobial agent will be soluble in body fluids.

True

139

Enveloped animal viruses typically leave the host cell by:

a) host cell lysis

b) host cell rupture

c) budding

d) animal viruses never leave the host cell

budding

140

A eukaryotic, unicellular organism with no cell wall would be classified as ____.

a) Monera

b) Animal

c) Fungi

d) Protista

Protista

141

The reason that retroviruses can direct the formation of DNA from RNA is because most retroviruses contain the following enzyme.

a) RNA polymerase

b) DNA polymerase

c) DNA ligase

d) reverse transcriptase

reverse transcriptase

142

A strain is a subgroup of a ______.

a) phylum

b) class

c) family

d) species

species

143

Classification is necessary to _____.

a) establish criteria for identifying organisms

b) arrange related organisms into groups

c) provide information on how organisms evolved

d) All of the above

All of the above

144

Antibiotics that bind to RNA polymerase ______.

a) act as base analogs

b) inhibit of cell wall synthesis

c) disrupt of cell membrane function

d) inhibit transcription

inhibit transcription

145

Which of the following is not an example of a plantlike protist?

a) Euglenoids

b) Diatoms

c) Amebozoans

d) Dinoflagellates

Amebozoans

146

Cells walls in fungi are often made of ______.

a) cellulose

b) peptidoglycan

c) chitin

d) calcium carbonate

chitin

147

Viruses have some of the properties of cellular life forms. Which of the following is a characteristic of all organisms except viruses?
a) presence of a plasma membrane
b) capable of mutation
c) ability to reproduce inside a living host
d) grow in response to their environmental conditions

presence of a plasma membrane

148

Which of the following represents the correct order of steps in a typical virus replication cycle?
a) maturation adsorption penetration release synthesis
b) adsorption penetration release maturation synthesis
c) adsorption penetration synthesis maturation release
d) adsorption penetration maturation synthesis release

adsorption penetration synthesis maturation release

149

Which of the following directly pertain to inhibition of cellular protein synthesis by antimicrobial agents?
A) cellular cytoplasm is lost
B) binding and inhibition of RNA polymerase
C) imitation or molecular mimicry of normal molecules
D) interferes with accurate translation of mRNA message

interferes with accurate translation of mRNA message

150

An organism that lives at the expense of another organism is a _____.
a) mutualistic
b) commensal
c) parasite
d) symbiont

parasite

151

Which of the following statements about protists is true?
a) The protozoan responsible for malaria is classified as a ciliate.
b) Eutrophication occurs when protists stop growing in a body of water.
c) Amoeba move by means of cilia.
d) All protists are eukaryotic.

All protists are eukaryotic.

152

Protozoa that move using flagella are members of the _____.

a) Mastigophorans

b) Amebozoans

c) Apicomplexans

d) Ciliophorans

Mastigophorans

153

Protozoans found in the human intestinal tract would most likely be ______.

a) Mastigophorans

b) Amebozoans

c) Apicomplexans

d) Ciliophorans

Ciliophorans

154

A mechanical vector:

a) lives on or in another organism at the expense of the host

b) simply carries microbes on the outside of its body

c) reproduces as an asexual form in this host

d) infects by mechanical insertion of a syringe

simply carries microbes on the outside of its body