Micro-Final Exam

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Microbiology
Chapters 22-24
updated 3 years ago by Kimberly_Shoemaker
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1

Most cavities are caused by which of the following organisms of the human normal flora?

A. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Candida albicans
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

B. Streptococcus mutans

2

The image above shows a symptom that is associated with the infection of what component of the digestive system?(The image shows a yellowing around the eyes; jaundice)

A. The stomach
B. The intestines
C. The liver
D. The pancreas

C. The liver

3

If you were looking in an adult patient’s mouth and saw an infection where white spots were splattered all over the throat/tonsils, what health concern might you conclude your patient had?

A. An impaired immune system
B. Plaque
C. Gingivitis
D. Tooth decay

A. An impaired immune system

4

The gastrointestinal tract is a warm, safe environment full of nutrients and is ideal for many types of microbes. Why would an organism capable of colonizing the intestine produce toxins that would lead to diarrhea, increasing the likelihood that it would be washed out of its habitat?

A. Diarrhea increases the dissemination of the organism into the environment, where it can encounter new hosts.
B. Causing illness in the host makes it easier to get nutrients from the host’s body.
C. Causing illness in the host decreases the likelihood that the host immune system will find or destroy the pathogen.
D. There is no advantage to the pathogen. Diarrhea is completely due to the immune system trying to remove the pathogen, not caused by actions of the pathogen.

A. Diarrhea increases the dissemination of the organism into the environment, where it can encounter new hosts.

5

The norovirus (Norwalk virus) principally affects which of the following demographic groups?

A. Adults
B. Infants (0–2 years old)
C. Toddlers (2–4 years old)
D. Immunosuppressed individuals

A. Adults

6

Kathrine tested positive for antibodies against the virus that causes hepatitis A. What does the word "hepatitis" refer to?

A. Hepatitis refers to the symptom of inflammation of the liver.
B. Hepatitis refers to any infection of the gastrointestinal tract.
C. Hepatitis refers to the diseases caused by a specific family of viruses.
D. Hepatitis refers to any viral infection of the gastrointestinal tract.

A. Hepatitis refers to the symptom of inflammation of the liver.

7

What symptoms of Kathrine's infections are key indicators of hepatitis?

A. Her nausea and vomiting
B. That she was very tired
C. Her yellow-tinged eyes and dark urine
D. That she was achy and running a fever

C. Her yellow-tinged eyes and dark urine

8

Because Kathrine's infection is caused by the hepatitis A virus, Kathrine most likely contracted the virus through which of the following routes?

A. Via food or drink contaminated with fecal matter from an infected person
B. Via sex with an infected individual
C. Via contaminated blood (such as sharing needles)
D. Via kissing, sharing a drinking glass, or anything that would bring her into contact with an infected person's saliva

A. Via food or drink contaminated with fecal matter from an infected person

9

When using the endoscope, the doctor saw red areas at the bottom of a patient's stomach. Why was this area red?

A. The redness was due to inflammation of the tissue.
B. Red is the natural color of the stomach lining.
C. The redness was due to the bacterial enzyme urease.
D. The color was due to the neutralization of the acid in that area.

A. The redness was due to inflammation of the tissue.

10

Why would antacids provide (temporary) relief from the symptoms caused by a bacterial infection?

A. The antacids were blocking the growth of the bacteria and slowing the spread of the infection.
B. The antacids were a placebo that had no real effect on what was happening in the stomach.
C. The infection was inhibiting the stomach's ability to protect itself from the acid environment, so reducing the acid temporarily relieved the pain.
D. The antacids were neutralizing the bacterial toxins that were damaging the lining of the stomach.

C. The infection was inhibiting the stomach's ability to protect itself from the acid environment, so reducing the acid temporarily relieved the pain.

11

The first test done on a stomach tissue biopsy sample was a urease test. Why would Helicobacter pylori need urease?

A. The enzyme degrades the stomach lining, and as a result the organism causes painful ulcers.
B. The enzyme blocks the white blood cells of the immune system from finding the pathogen.
C. The products created by this enzyme are alkaline and help the organism neutralize the stomach acid.
D. The enzyme digests the membrane of epithelial cells to provide nutrients for the bacteria.

C. The products created by this enzyme are alkaline and help the organism neutralize the stomach acid.

12

What is the typical reason that a person would develop Clostridium difficile colitis?

A. The person was eating food that had been contaminated with animal feces.
B. The person was eating food that had been contaminated with human feces.
C. The person was drinking unfiltered brackish water.
D. The person was taking a high dose of broad-spectrum antibiotics.

D. The person was taking a high dose of broad-spectrum antibiotics.

13

Adults with a mumps infection have a 15% chance of developing which complication?

A. Hepatitis
B. Meningitis
C. Cirrhosis
D. Gastroenteritis

B. Meningitis

14

Which of the following is a characteristic of Yersinia species that increases the likelihood that they can cause infection?

A. Yersinia species are halophiles (they can live in salty environments like ocean water).
B. Yersinia species are not sensitive to pH, so stomach acid cannot kill it.
C. Yersinia species can get inside cells, so the immune system cannot eliminate it.
D. Yersinia species can grow in the refrigerator (they can grow at a temperature that would block the growth of most intestinal pathogens).

D. Yersinia species can grow in the refrigerator (they can grow at a temperature that would block the growth of most intestinal pathogens).

15

Receding of the gum from the tooth is a sign of ________________.

A. thrush
B. periodontal disease
C. dental caries
D. gingivitis

B. periodontal disease

16

________ is noticed as a white cottage cheese-like covering in the mouth.

A. dental caries
B. gingivitis
C. periodontal disease
D. thrush

D. thrush

17

Infection with _______________ causes swollen parotid glands.

A. mumps virus
B. sapovirus
C. rotavirus
D. norovirus

A. mumps virus

18

Which of the following would be the most likely treatment for self-limiting gastrointestinal infections?

A. antivirals
B. proton-pump inhibitors
C. antibiotics
D. hydration

D. hydration

19

The vast majority of ulcers within the digestive tract are caused by

A. a virus, hepatitis C.
B. a bacterium, Helicobacter pylori.
C. stress.
D. spicy foods.

B. a bacterium, Helicobacter pylori.

20

Which of the following bacterial infections causes an intoxication?

a. listeriosis
b. staphylococcal food poisoning
c. salmonellosis
d. Helicobacter pylori infection
e. Streptococcus mutans

B. staphylococcal food poisoning

21

What is the primary method of treatment for diarrhea caused by a virus?

a. rehydration therapy
b. antibiotic therapy
c. antitoxin therapy
d. vitamins
e. There is no effective therapy.

A. rehydration therapy

22

Which of the following bacterial infections can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease in women?
Choose one or more:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Haemophilus ducreyi
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Chlamydia trachomatis

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

C. Trichomonas vaginalis

D. Chlamydia trachomatis

23

Which of the following are true about characteristics associated with a Chlamydia infection?
Choose one or more:
A. Chlamydia species are Gram-negative, obligate intracellular bacteria.
B. Chlamydial disease has three main stages of progression: primary, secondary, and tertiary.
C. The reservoir for Chlamydia is the male urethra.
D. Chlamydia is the major cause of nongonococcal urethritis.

A. Chlamydia species are Gram-negative, obligate intracellular bacteria.

D. Chlamydia is the major cause of nongonococcal urethritis.

24

Condylomata acuminata, commonly called genital warts, is caused by

A. Gonorrhea
B. Human immunodeficiency virus
C. Chlamydia
D. Human papilloma virus (HPV)

D. Human papilloma virus (HPV)

25

Place the signs of syphilis in the order that they present.

- Gummas

- A painless ulcer

- A rash on the palms of hands and soles of feet

1. A painless ulcer

2. A rash on the palms of hands and soles of feet

3. Gummas

26

Which of the following organisms is responsible for the syphilis infection?

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Gardnerella vaginalis
C. Haemophilus ducreyi
D. Treponema pallidum

D. Treponema pallidum

27

Which of the following complications may a pregnant woman expect after a secondary syphilis diagnosis if she does not receive proper treatment?
Choose one or more:
A. The pregnancy may end in miscarriage or stillbirth, or the baby may be born with severe neurologic problems.
B. The baby may have perforated palates in the mouth.
C. At birth, infected newborns may have notched teeth visible on X-ray.
D. There is a very low chance that the baby will be infected with syphilis.

A. The pregnancy may end in miscarriage or stillbirth, or the baby may be born with severe neurologic problems.
B. The baby may have perforated palates in the mouth.
C. At birth, infected newborns may have notched teeth visible on X-ray.

28

Women are more prone to urinary tract infection than men are for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

A. the length of the urethra, which is longer than in men.
B. the proximity of the urethra to the anus.
C. hormonal changes.
D. sexual intercourse.

A. the length of the urethra, which is longer than in men.

29

An infection in the kidney would be considered what kind of infection?

A. an upper urinary tract infection
B. sepsis
C. a lower urinary tract infection
D. cystitis

A. an upper urinary tract infection

30

A common result of lower urinary tract infections is __________.

A. fever
B. sepsis
C. cystitis
D. back pain

C. cystitis

31

Symptomatic UTIs are commonly treated with

A. nothing;they are commonly not treated.
B. antifungal drugs.
C. antibiotics.
D. liquids to flush the system.

C. antibiotics.

32

Genital warts are caused by

A. herpes simplex virus 2.
B. herpes simplex virus 1.
C. human papillomavirus.
D. human immunodeficiency virus.

C. human papillomavirus.

33

A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. What is most likely the cause?

A. HPV
B. HSV
C. genital warts
D. HIV

B. HSV

34

Kaposi's sarcoma is often associated with ___________.

A. elderly patients
B. young patients
C. AIDS patients
D. immunocompetent patients

C. AIDS patients

35

In males, primary syphilis presents as

A. a gumma on the face.
B. a chancre on the penis
C. a macular rash on the skin.
D. nothing; primary syphilis is not detectable.

B. a chancre on the penis

36

The treatment of HIV includes

A. highly antiretroviral therapy.
B. antifungals.
C. antibiotics.
D. nothing; there are no treatment options.

A. highly antiretroviral therapy.

37

Candida causes which of the following non-sexually transmitted infections?

A. herpes virus infection
B. bacterial vaginitis
C. yeast infections
D. Fournier's gangrene

C. yeast infections

38

In males, infection of the testes is known as ___________.

A. cystitis
B. orchitis
C. prostatitis
D. epididymitis

B. orchitis

39

Which of the following is not a mechanism of urinary tract infection?

A. ascending infection from the urethra to the bladder

B. descending infection from the kidney

C. ascending infection to the kidney

D. descending infection from bladder to kidney

D. descending infection from bladder to kidney

40

Recurrent urinary tract infections are problematic for some women. Which of the following is not a risk factor for recurrent infections?

A. being sexually active
B. Incomplete emptying of the bladder
C. use of spermicide
D. long-term antibiotic use
E. none of the above

D. long-term antibiotic use

41

Which of the following is a mosquito-borne infection that can lead to viral encephalitis?

A. Coxsackievirus
B. Rabies virus
C. Polio virus
D. West Nile virus

D. West Nile virus

42

Which of the following can be done to prevent tetanus?

A. Treat with antiviral medication (ribavirin) to prevent the spread of the toxin
B. Properly cook and can food to prevent the spread of toxins
C. Receive inoculations of tetanus booster every 10 years
D. Treat the infection with antibiotics to eliminate the toxin

C. Receive inoculations of tetanus booster every 10 years

43

Which of the following protozoan infections is extremely dangerous for pregnant women and is associated with handling cats, especially cat feces?

A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Acanthamoeba
C. Trypanosoma brucei
D. Naegleria fowleri

A. Toxoplasma gondii

44

An infection in the CNS results in all of the following. Which occurs first?

A. damage to the brain or spinal cord
B. an increase in CSF pressure
C. inflammation of the meninges
D. occlusion of the arachnoid villi

C. inflammation of the meninges

45

What type of procedure is performed when a patient is suspected to have a CNS infection?

A. MRI
B. blood test
C. CT scan
D. lumbar puncture

D. lumbar puncture

46

Encephalitis is inflammation of the ____________.

A. meninges
B. spinal cord
C. spinal nerve root
D. brain

D. brain

47

All of the following are reservoirs for rabies EXCEPT ____________.

A. dog
B. people
C. fox
D. bat

B. people

48

Hydrophobia is a diagnostic symptom of which disease?

A. rabies
B. West Nile
C. polio
D. eastern equine encephalitis

A. rabies

49

A 67-year-old male patient presents with diarrhea and a fever that has progressed into a persistent headache and stiff neck. He reports eating some unpasteurized soft cheese 24 hours ago. Which of the following organisms is most likely the etiological agent?

A. tetanus toxin
B. L. monocytogenes
C. N. meningitidis
D. botulinum toxin

B. L. monocytogenes

50

Botulism and tetanus are preventable diseases. How do we prevent botulism?

A. vaccination
B. immunoglobulin therapy
C. antibiotic treatment
D. properly cooking canned food

D. properly cooking canned food

51

Prions are known to cause all of the following EXCEPT

A. mad cow disease.
B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD).
C. African sleeping sickness.
D. scrapie.

C. African sleeping sickness.

52

The bullet-shaped virus is responsible for a zoonotic disease capable of infecting any mammal. This virus is

A. echovirus.
B. rabies virus.
C. coxsackievirus.
D. West Nile virus.

B. rabies virus.

53

A individual was infected by Neisseria meningitidis. The larger purple spots that develop are referred to as:

A. hematomas.
B. papules.
C. purpura.
D. petechiae.

C. purpura.

54

A toxin that prevents the fusion of synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitter with the terminal end of an axon in a motor neuron is produced by

A. Listeria monocytogenes.
B. Treponema pallidum.
C. Clostridium botulinum.
D. Escherichia coli.

C. Clostridium botulinum.

55

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that appears cloudy indicates the presence of which type of pathogen?

a. bacteria
b. virus
c. prion
d. aseptic meningitis
e. not enough information

a. bacteria

56

Which of the following CNS infections can be foodborne?

a. tetanus
b. listeriosis
c. rabies
d. meningococcal meningitis
e. Candida meningitis

b. listeriosis

57

Which of the following diseases is more common in children?

a. rabies
b. transmissible spongiform encephalopathies
c. bacterial meningitis
d. coccidioidal meningitis
e. African sleeping sickness

c. bacterial meningitis

58

For which of the following CNS diseases is a vaccine not available?

a. meningococcal meningitis
b. listeriosis
c. tetanus
d. poliomyelitis
e. none of the above

b. listeriosis

59

Which of the following diseases is carried by an insect vector?

a. rabies
b. West Nile encephalitis
c. poliomyelitis
d. meningococcal meningitis
e. listeriosis

b. West Nile encephalitis

60

Vaccination is available for all of the following EXCEPT

A. Neisseria meningitis

B. rabies

C. tetanus

D. botulism

D. botulism

61

All of the following about MUMPS are true EXCEPT

A. may lead to sterility in males due to swelling of the testes

B. incidence is less since vaccine was licensed

C. caused by a bacterium

D. parotid glands swell after exposure

C. caused by a bacterium

62

Which of the following infections is due to a prokaryotic organism?

A. stomach ulcers

B. hepatitis

C. peptic ulcers

D. two are correct

D. two are correct (A & C)

63

Which gastrointestinal bacterial disease causes systemic symptoms with NO diarrhea?

A. Asiatic cholera

B. Staphylococcus poisoning

C. Typhoid fever

D. Shigella

C. Typhoid fever

64

A food-borne pathogen that can cause meningitis is

A. Neisseria meningitis

B. Streptococcus epidermis

C. Staphylococcus epidermis

D. Listeria monocytogenes

D. Listeria monocytogenes

65

Prions are known to cause all of the following EXCEPT

A. mad cow disease

B. scrapie

C. CJD (Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease)

D. Giardiasis

Giardiasis

66

Which is a structural component of the innate immunity that protects the brain from infection?

A. blood-brain barrier

B. lysozyme

C. ganglia

D. alveolar macrophages

A. blood-brain barrier

67

Which of the following hepatitis viruses is most likely transmitted via contaminated food?

A. Hepatitis A

B. Hepatitis C

C. Hepatitis B

D. all of these

A. Hepatitis A

68

Helicobacter pylori survives in the stomach due to

A. a thick capsule layer

B. techoic acid receptor

C. a viral envelope

D. the production of ammonia to neutralize pH

D. the production of ammonia to neutralize pH

69

Which of the following is FALSE about rabies?

A. it can be cured only with timely antibiotics

B. hydrophobia is associated with the disease

C. rabies is caused by a virus

D. there is a vaccine that you can receive post-exposure

A. it can be cured only with timely antibiotics