Microbiology-Exam 2

Helpfulness: 0
Set Details Share
created 3 years ago by Kimberly_Shoemaker
223 views
book cover
Microbiology
Chapters 19-21
Smartwork 5 Questions
updated 3 years ago by Kimberly_Shoemaker
Grade levels:
College: Third year
show moreless
Page to share:
Embed this setcancel
COPY
code changes based on your size selection
Size:
X
Show:
1

Varicella zoster infection of the epidermal cells produces fluid accumulation that results in the characteristic vesicles of chickenpox. The virus is transferred by which of the following methods?

Choose one or more:

A. Insect bites
B. Fecal-oral route
C. Inhalation when aerosolized
D. Direct contact

C. Inhalation when aerosolized
D. Direct contact

2

The following are all examples of what type of infection?

Smallpox
Warts
Shingles
Roseola
Measles

Viral infection

3

The following are all examples of what type of infection?

Necrotizing fasciitis
Cellulitis
Acne

Bacterial Infection

4

The following are all examples of what type of infection?

Dermatophytosis
Candidiasis
Tinea versicolor

Fungal Infections

5

Which of the following viral skin infections can be prevented by a vaccination?
Choose one or more:

A. Roseola infantum
B. German measles (rubella)
C. Shingles
D. Measles
E. Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)

B. German measles (rubella)
C. Shingles
D. Measles

6

Medieval doctors, ignorant of microscopic fungi but well versed in Latin, called fungal infections “tinea” (Latin for “gnawing worm”). Thus, if the lesion sits on the scalp, it is called which of the following?

A. Tinea capitis
B. Tinea pedis
C. Tinea corporis
D. Tinea cruris

A. Tinea capitis

7

Conjunctivitis caused by staphylococci and streptococci includes which of the following symptoms?

A. Necrosis of the retina
B. Blindness caused by inflammation of the cornea
C. Itching around the surface of the eyelid
D. Mucopurulent discharge that can produce crusting of the affected eye

D. Mucopurulent discharge that can produce crusting of the affected eye

8

Which of the following is NOT a feature of endophthalmitis?

A. It is an infection of the inner eye structures.
B. It can result from direct spread of a superficial eye infection.
C. It is extremely common.
D. It can result from seeding of the internal eye structures with bacteria carried by blood from another infected site.

C. It is extremely common.

9

Which of the following viral infections of the skin starts with a condition known as "Koplik's spots"?

A. Fifth disease (erythema infectiosum)
B. Rubella (German measles)
C. Measles
D. Roseola infantum

C. Measles

10

There are six exanthema diseases of childhood. Which one is also known as first disease?

A. roseola
B. chickenpox
C. German measles
D. measles

D. Measles

11

Which of the following infections presents as a “slapped cheek” rash?

A. Rubeola
B. Roseola
C. Rubella
D. Fifth Disease

D. Fifth Disease

12

A 65-year-old patient presents with a localized painful dermatomal rash traveling along the sensory nerve from his shoulder to his chest. What is the cause of this rash?

A. varicella-zoster
B. papillomavirus
C. herpes simplex
D. enterovirus

A. varicella-zoster

13

Herpes infections are typically treated with________.

A. acyclovir
B. vancomycin
C. There is no treatment.
D. penicillin

A. acyclovir

14

Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by:

A. coagulase-negative staph
B. varicella-zoster
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. P. acnes

C. streptococcus pyogenes

15

P. acnes can be treated with which of the following?

A. IV antibiotics
B. anti-viral drugs
C. amputation
D. topical retinoids

D. topical retinoids

16

Tinea pedis is a fungal infection found where?

A. groin
B. scalp
C. body
D. foot

D. foot

17

Which of the following is NOT true about Candida?

A. It is found in the gastrointestinal tract, vaginal tract, oral cavity, and skin.
B. It is not part of the normal biota.
C. It is a dimorphic yeast.
D. It can cause serious problems in patients who are immunocompromised.

B. It is not part of the normal biota

18

Which of the following is FALSE regarding gas gangrene?

A. Treatment includes the use of hyperbaric chambers.
B. The organism is aerobic.
C. Pockets of gas produced in muscle choke off the blood supply.
D. The disease is caused by C. perfringens.

B. The organism is aerobic

19

Pinkeye can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT________.

A. trauma
B. particles
C. infection
D. allergies

B. particles

20

Which of the following viruses presents as a common cold in adults (runny and congested nose, sore throat), but in young children presents with more serious symptoms and can lead to heart failure, low blood pressure, and seizures?

A. Influenza
B. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
D. Croup

C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

21

Tears contain a component called _______ that can help eliminate bacteria.

A. salt

B. lysozyme

B. lysozyme

22

Cold viruses can easily spread from person to person by contact or by inhaling aerosols. In the following list, which is the only effective preventive measure against spreading a cold?

A. Frequent hand washing
B. Drinking plenty of water
C. Consuming vitamin C
D. Taking antibiotics

A. frequent hand washing

23

Streptococcal species other than Streptococcus pneumoniae are divided into groups A-U based on what?

A. The order in which they were discovered
B. The antigenic composition of their carbohydrates
C. The severity of their symptoms
D. The toxins they release

B. The antigenic composition of their carbohydrates

24

Some strains of Streptococcus pyogenes produce exotoxins called streptococcal pyogenic exotoxins that can cause fever and a red rash known as what?

A. Measles
B. Shingles
C. Typhoid fever
D. Scarlet fever

D. Scarlet Fever

25

How does a rapid strep test detect the presence of group A streptococci (GAS) in the throat of the patient?

A. It responds to toxins produced by the GAS bacteria.
B. It responds to GAS-specific antibodies on the throat swab.
C. It responds to GAS-specific antigens on the throat swab.
D. It responds to enzymes produced by GAS bacteria.

C. It responds to GAS-specific antigens on the throat swab.

26

Which of the following is caused by a parainfluenza virus and presents with symptoms of a seal-like bark, hoarseness, cough, fever, and respiratory distress in children?

A. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
B. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
C. Croup
D. Pneumonia

C. Croup

27

Which of the following factors increases the likelihood a child will acquire an otitis media infection?

A. A longer Eustachian tube
B. Poor hygiene
C. Ear wax buildup
D. Attendance at a day-care facility

D. Attendance at a day-care facility

28

Rank the following three bacteria in order of their frequency of causing acute otitis media infections.

-Streptococcus pneumoniae

-Moraxella catarrhalis

-Haemophilus influenzae

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae

2. Haemophilus influenzae

3. Moraxella catarrhalis

29

Whooping cough is a highly contagious illness that has an incubation period of 7 to 21 days, after which the disease progresses through three stages. Order these stages from beginning to end.

-Catarrhal

-Convalescent

-Paroxysmal

1. Catarrhal

2. Paroxysmal

3. Convalescent

30

Which of the following bacterial diseases of the respiratory tract can be prevented by a vaccine?

A. Lobar pneumonia (pneumococcal pneumonia)
B. Walking (atypical) pneumonia
C. Pseudomonas pneumonia
D. Pharyngitis

A. Lobar pneumonia (pneumococcal pneumonia)

31

In the influenza virus, the process of RNA segment mixing produces what is called an antigenic ________, which typically happens every 10 to 15 years.

A. shift

B. drift

A. shift

32

Which of the following structures is affected by acute otitis media?

A. pharynx
B. larynx
C. alveoli
D. middle ear

D. middle ear

33

Why is it easy for upper respiratory infections to spread into the middle ear?

A. Lacrimal ducts lead from the nasal cavity to the middle ear.
B. The immune system does not have access to the middle ear.
C. The mucociliary escalator moves mucus into the middle ear.
D. The middle ear is connected to the nasal cavity by the Eustachian tube.

D. The middle ear is connected to the nasal cavity by the Eustachian tube.

34

Which of the following would you expect to result in an influenza pandemic?

A. antigenic shift within a type A influenza virus
B. antigenic shift within a type C influenza virus
C. antigenic drift within a type B influenza virus
D. antigenic shift within a type B influenza virus

A. antigenic shift within a type A influenza virus

35

Why are humans susceptible to both avian and swine flu strains?

A. The immune system in humans is unable to produce antibodies against either strain.
B. International travel puts humans in contact with flu strains in various environments.
C. The human respiratory tract contains cell membrane receptors that bind both strains.
D. Humans often live in close proximity to domesticated birds and pigs.

C. The human respiratory tract contains cell membrane receptors that bind both strains.

36

A 6-month-old girl who attends day care develops a fever, chills, and respiratory wheezing. She is admitted to the local hospital where she is treated with hydration, oxygen, and bronchodilators. Her parents are distraught and feel that they could have done more to prevent their daughter’s illness. The physician assures them no vaccine is currently available for her illness because the exact mechanism of the immune response has not yet been delineated. The girl is infected with ________.

A. rhinovirus
B. respiratory syncytial virus
C. Type B influenza
D. Type A influenza

B. respiratory syncytial virus

37

Whooping cough is caused by ________.

A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Bordetella pertussis
C. Corynebacterium diphtheria
D. Haemophilus influenza

B. Bordetella pertussis

38

The bacterium that can cause the sequelae rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis is________.

A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Moraxella catarrhalis

A. Streptococcus pyogenes

39

A vaccine is available to prevent __________.

A. pharyngitis.
B. acute otitis media.
C. pneumococcal pneumonia.
D. walking pneumonia.

C. pneumococcal pneumonia.

40

Which of the following bacterial diseases of the respiratory system can be prevented by vaccine?

A. Pseudomonas pneumonia
B. diphtheria
C. bacterial sinusitis
D. pharyngitis

B. diphtheria

41

What is the typical method used to prevent malaria outbreaks?

A. Require vaccinations prior to traveling to regions in which malaria is endemic
B. Make sure that people in problematic areas get antibiotics such as penicillin as soon as a mosquito bite is detected
C. Wear a mask during peak malaria season to prevent breathing aerosols that contain the pathogen
D. Use insecticides and mosquito netting to prevent mosquito bites

D. Use insecticides and mosquito netting to prevent mosquito bites

42

In which of the following ways are Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and cytomegalovirus (CMV) similar?

A. Both are capable of causing latent infections.
B. Both are considered part of the TORCH complex.
C. Both are capable of crossing the placenta from an infected mother to her fetus.
D. Both are known causes of endemic Burkitt’s lymphoma.

A. Both are capable of causing latent infections.

43

What is the significance of cytomegalovirus (CMV) crossing the placenta from mother to fetus?

A. The fetus will begin making antibodies against CMV and will be protected after birth.
B. CMV is associated with complications, including hearing loss and mental retardation.
C. CMV transmitted through a placenta frequently cause pericarditis and myocarditis in newborns.
D. CMV infection of a fetus may lead to a high birth weight, resulting in complications during delivery.

B. CMV is associated with complications, including hearing loss and mental retardation.

44

The disease known as the Black Death during the Middle Ages leads to the development of buboes in individuals bitten by infected fleas and is caused by the bacterium

A. Brucella abortus.
B. Borrelia burgdorferi.
C. Francisella tularensis.
D. Yersinia pestis.

D. Yersinia pestis.

45

Robert, a middle-aged man living in Connecticut, decides to visit his physician because he has been experiencing general malaise and arthralgia in his large joints. Although he does not remember any tick bites or developing a “bull’s-eye” rash, Robert’s doctor feels he is experiencing a the second stage of the systemic bacterial disease known as________.

A. brucellosis
B. bubonic plague
C. Lyme disease
D. tularemia

C. Lyme disease

46

Avoiding contact with contaminated cat feces during a pregnancy is important in preventing ________.

A. toxoplasmosis
B. schistosomiasis
C. babesiosis
D. leishmaniasis

A. toxoplasmosis

47

Julie has been experiencing a mild fever, pharyngitis, and swollen cervical lymph nodes for several days. A lab technician notices large atypical lymphocytes. These lymphocytes are indicative of

A. streptococcal infection.
B. Epstein-Barr virus infection.
C. herpes simplex virus infection.
D. Burkitt's lymphoma.

B. Epstein-Barr virus infection.

48

The owl’s eye appearance in a giant cell would indicate the presence of _______.

A. Dengue virus.
B. cytomegalovirus.
C. Epstein-Barr virus.
D. Ebola virus.

B. cytomegalovirus.

49

Which of the following statements about rashes is NOT true?

A. A change in color and texture of the skin is usually referred to as a rash.

B. An exanthem is a widespread skin rash accompanied by systemic symptoms.

C. An enanthem is a rash on mucous membranes.

D. Exanthems are usually caused by infectious agents, and enanthems are usually caused by allergic reactions.

E. A variety of situations can affect the skin and cause a rash.

D. Exanthems are usually caused by infectious agents, and enanthems are usually caused by allergic reactions.

50

Which of the following viral infections can be passed across the placenta to a developing fetus?

A. Rubella

B. Roseola

C. Herpes simplex 1

D. Rubeola

E. Varicella-zoster

A. Rubella

51

Which of the following organisms commonly infects burn wounds?

A. Acanthamoeba species

B. Neisseria gonorrheae

C. Clostridium perfringens

D. Propionibacterium acnes

E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

52

Which of the following sequelae can occur as a result of a streptococcal infection?

A. formation of a pseudomembrane

B. rheumatic fever

C. encephalitis

D. legionellosis

E. whooping cough

B. rheumatic fever

53

Which of the following viral infections of the respiratory tract is especially concerning for premature infants?

A. rhinovirus

B. Bordetella pertussis

C. respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

D. otitis media

E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C. respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

54

Which is the cause of a fungal infection on the scalp?

A. tinea corporis

B. tinea pedis

C. tinea capitis

D. tinea cruris

C. tinea capitis

55

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT?

A. vector is the dog tick
B. most cases are in the northwest U.S.
C. etiology is Rickettsia rickettsii
D. petechial rash

B. most cases are in the northwest U.S.

56

What condition(s) could result from an untreated strep throat illness?

A. Rheumatic fever

B. Glomerulonephritis

C. Debilitating arthritis

D. Two of these are correct

D. Two of these are correct (A & B)

57

A term for a rash made of pin-point hemorrhages under the skin is _______.

A. septicemia

B. ischemia

C. lymphangitis

D. petechia

D. petechia

58

Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT?

A. boils

B. acne

C. carbuncles

D. pimples

B. acne

59

Which affects the lower respiratory tract, but NOT the upper respiratory tract?

A. acute otitis media

B. streptococcal pharyngitis

C. sinusitis

D. atypical "walking" pneumonia

D. atypical "walking" pneumonia

60

Which correctly matches the disease caused by Varicella-zoster?

A. shingles-carried in blood to various tissues

B. chickenpox-due to latent virus reactivated

C. chickenpox-confined to region supplied by particular nerve

D. shingles-cell mediated immunity drops below a critical level

D. shingles-cell mediated immunity drops below a critical level

61

The paroxysmal stage of whooping cough is characterized by ______

A. mild, dry, persistent cough

B. violent coughing

C. a migraine/headache

B. violent coughing

62

Lyme disease is characterized by all EXCEPT

A. etiology Borrelia burgdorferi

B. caused by a flea bite

C. bull's eye rash in 50%-75%

D. debilitating arthritis can be sequelae

B. caused by a flea bite

63

Epidemic typhus is caused by __________.

A. body louse

B. tick

C. flea

D. mosquito

A. body louse

64

A thick grayish pseudomembrane that bleeds when scripted is indicative of?

A. Corynebacterium diphtheria

B. Moraxella catarrhalis

C. Streptococcus pneumonias

D. Bordtella pertussis

A. Corynebacterium diphtheria

65

Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

A. caused by the human herpes virus (HHV)

B. most patients have a sore throat

C. can cause Burkitt's lymphoma

D. transmitted by mosquito

D. transmitted by mosquito