BIOL1020 - 2016 Semester One Final Examanation Flashcards


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1

Which polysaccharides provide energy storage for plants and animals, respectively?

  1. Starch and glycogen
  2. Cellulose and chitin
  3. Fructose and galactose
  4. Glucose and peptidoglycan e. None of the answers are correct

A

2

Phospholipids are key elements of all cell membranes – which of the following statements about phospholipids is NOT correct?

  1. Phospholipids contain a molecule of glycerol.
  2. Phosphatidyl choline is the most common type of phospholipid.
  3. Phospholipids contain three fatty acids.
  4. Phospolipids contain ester linkages.
  5. Phospholipids contain a hydrophobic tail group and a hydrophilic head group.

C

3

Without a cytoskeleton eukaryotic cells would not be able to carry out many essential processes including cell division. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

  1. Cells that are in G 0 phase and do not divide, no longer need to produce microtubules.
  2. Microtubules are the smallest type of cytoskeleton element.
  3. During cell division, the midbody organizes the microtubules that attach to the chromosomes.
  4. Transport proteins can move along microtubules to move e.g. vesicles around the cell.
  5. Because the subunits of microtubules already contain GTP, transport proteins do not require ATP to power their movement.

D

4

Which of the following statements about exergonic and endergonic reactions is INCORRECT?

  1. The delta G for these reactions is computed by subtracting the Gibbs free energy for the products from that for the substrate (reactants).
  2. T he change in free energy during the reaction can be depicted using an energy diagram showing the Gibbs free energy on the Y-axis and time on the X-axis.
  3. If endergonic reactions had no activation energy barrier, the products of these reactions would spontaneously fall apart again as soon as they had been formed.
  4. The activation energy barrier for exergonic reactions prevents them from proceeding. e. The activation energy barrier for exergonic reactions is always of the same magnitude, 15% of the overall free energy change.

D

5

Which of the following statements about cancer cells is TRUE?

  1. The respiratory chain is highly active to support fast growth and cell
    division.
  2. Cancer cells produce 2 lactate, a NADH and 4 ATP from glucose.
  3. Many cancer cells produce less energy than ‘healthy’ body cells because their mitochondria have been lost during cell division.
  4. Cancer cells produce less energy than healthy body cells due to a malfunction of their TCA cycle.
  5. Cancer cells are unable to produce as much energy as healthy body cells because glucose oxidation finishes at the end of glycolysis.

...

6

If there were no mitotic spindle, how would it affect the different stages
of mitosis?

  1. The cell membrane would not form around daughter nuclei.
  2. Crossing over would not occur, so genes would more often segregate independently.
  3. Sister chromatids would have to physically segregate by some other means.
  4. More mistakes would occur during DNA replicationgo to practice material.
  5. DNA synthesis would be incomplete.

C

7

Which of the following is NOT part of evolution by natural selection as first proposed by Charles Darwin? Select one:

  1. Natural selection can lead to new species over long periods of time.
  2. Individual members of a population have variations in traits.
  3. Individuals that have traits that allow them to have higher survivorship and/or reproduction will be favored.
  4. Individual members of a population compete with one another for limited resources.
  5. Mutations are the source of variations.

...

8

Which of the following statements regarding anchorage dependence is TRUE?

  1. Normal cells will divide in the absence of growth factors.
  2. Anchored cells don’t move up through tissues to replace old cells.
  3. Most animal cells will not proliferate if they have no surface to adhere to.
  4. Anchorage dependence prevents cells from transforming into cancer cells.
  5. Cells will stop dividing if they are crowded.

...

9

Which cell cycle phase are most cells of the human body in most of the time?

  1. G 0
  2. G 1
  3. G 2
  4. S
  5. M

...

10

Eukaryotic cells possess which of the following traits?
a.

  1. Compartmentalization
  2. Chromosomes that float freely in the cytoplasm
  3. Membrane-bound organelles
  4. Both compartmentalization and chromosomes that float freely in the cytoplasm
  5. Both compartmentalization and membrane-bound organelles

...

11

How is the expression of genes controlled at the chromosomal level?

  1. DNA is spontaneously deleted from a chromosome if unneeded.
  2. DNA can either be condensed into heterochromatin or unwound into
    euchromatin.
  3. DNA can synthesize extra histones as needed.
  4. DNA can be unwound into euchromatin to reduce the level of expression.
  5. The expression of DNA can only be controlled at the translational level.

...

12

In bacteria, translation…

  1. is separated from transcription in time and space.
  2. is coupled with transcription.
  3. occurs in the nucleus.
  4. does not involve ribosomes. e. occurs only on monocistronic mRNAs.

...

13

How would a mutation in the lacI gene that prevents allolactose from binding to the LacI repressor affect the expression of the lac operon genes?

  1. The lac operon genes would be expressed continuously.
  2. The lac operon genes would be expressed in a regulated manner.
  3. The lac operon genes would not be expressed at all.
  4. The mutation would repress lactose.
  5. The mutation would inhibit lactose.

...

14

Which method of gene transfer involves direct contact between the bacteria?

  1. conjugation
  2. transduction
  3. transformation
  4. transfection
  5. none of the above

...

15

Which of the following statements is TRUE of an enhancer?

  1. Enhancers are downstream of the ribosome.
  2. Enhancers are usually bound by riboswitches.
  3. Enhancers may be thousands of nucleotides from the gene they are
    associated with.
  4. One gene cannot have more than one enhancer.
  5. None of the answers are correct.

...

16

Which of the following might happen if an mRNA molecule had its poly-A tail missing? Select one:

  1. It would move out of the nucleus more quickly.
  2. It would produce a different polypeptide.
  3. Nothing would happen; it would still have the same properties.
  4. The mRNA would be degraded.
  5. It would be more stable and longer lasting.

...

17

Which of the following do virtually all viruses possess?

  1. capsids and envelopes
  2. envelopes and polymerase
  3. envelopes and nucleic acids
  4. capsids and RNA polymerase
  5. capsids and nucleic acids

...

18

A(n) ___ may be homozygous or heterozygous, whereas a(n) ___ may be described as dominant or recessive.

  1. allele, trait
  2. genotype, phenotype
  3. allele, gene
  4. phenotype, genotype
  5. genotype, allele

...

19

In Down syndrome, an individual receives three copies of chromosome 21 when he or she should only have received two. Which term describes this error in meiosis?

  1. random fertilization
  2. non-disjunction
  3. crossing over
  4. genetic diversity
  5. interphase

...

20

Virus-encoded reverse transcriptase transcribes:

  1. RNA into more RNA.
  2. RNA into DNA.
  3. DNA into RNA.
  4. RNA into protein.
  5. single stranded RNA into double stranded RNA.

...

21

Explain how crossing over increases genetic variation.

  1. Non-sister chromatids from homologous chromosomes exchange genetic information, usually at two or more locations per chromosome depending on the size.
  2. Genes between non-homologous chromosome pairs are exchanged.
  3. The unique male and female gametes that eventually meet during sexual reproduction are random.
  4. Genetic information between sister chromatidsgo to practice material is exchanged.
  5. The chromosomes arrange themselves randomly along the metaphase plate.

...

22

If both parents are heterozygous for a trait, what is the probability that a given offspring of theirs will display the recessive trait?

  1. 2/3
  2. 3/4
  3. 1/2
  4. 1/4
  5. 1/3

...

23

A population of birds exhibits high diversity in alleles for feather colour. Human settlers overhunt the population, causing a bottleneck effect. Which of the following is a reasonable prediction for this population of birds after the bottleneck event?

  1. The population will have less diversity in feather colour because the
    variety of alleles will be reduced.
  2. The population will be more fit than before the bottleneck event because only the fittest individuals will have survived and reproduced.
  3. The population will experience gene flow because the birds will begin breeding with members of other populations.
  4. The population will be prone to increased mutation because its members will begin inbreeding.
  5. None of the answers are correct.

...

24

Epigenetic methylation of DNA targets which nucleotide?
a.

  1. A
  2. T
  3. G
  4. C
  5. U

...

25

Why does crossing true-breeding red and white snapdragons result in pink offspring?

  1. The alleles that code for pigment traits have incomplete dominance.
  2. The alleles that code for the red and white trait are on the same
    chromosome.
  3. Parents' alleles blend in their offspring.
  4. The allele that codes for the white colour trait prevents expression of the gene that codes for the red colour trait.
  5. White flower colour is a deleterious trait.

...

26

There exists a population in which there are three distinct alleles of the gene A (A 1 , A 2 , and A 3 ). Originally, all alleles were present in equal frequencies in the population. An individual’s genotype at the A locus has no measurable effect on its reproductive success. As you follow the population over a number of generations, you find that the frequency of A 1 and A 3 drops to 0%. What is the most likely explanation?

  1. There was an increased rate of mutation in organisms that carry either
    A 1 or A 3 .
  2. Mutations have occurred that changed A 1 and A 3 into A 2 .
  3. Individuals carrying A 1 or A 3 were removed by natural selection.
  4. Random variations led to a failure to produce individuals carrying A 1 or A 3 .
  5. A 2 is the dominant allele.

...

27

If gene A is 5 map units from gene B and gene B is 6 map units from gene C, then:
a.

  1. gene A is 1 map unit from gene C.
  2. gene A is 11 map units from gene C.
  3. the distance between gene A and gene C is ambiguous, so they must be unlinked.
  4. gene A and gene C are linked to each other on a chromosome

...

28

Which of the following is NOT true of metagenomics?

  1. It is used in the analysis of microbiomes.
  2. It allows organisms to be studied that cannot be propagated in the lab.
  3. It is used to analyse multiple organisms as they were collected from their natural setting.
  4. It is the most thorough method for studying individual genomes.
  5. It is used to determine the ploidy of an organism.

...

29

Consider four SNP loci, each with two alleles. How many genotypic combinations are possible in a diploid organism based only on these
four loci?

  1. 2 4 : 2x2x2x2
  2. 3 4 : 3x3x3x3
  3. 2x4
  4. 3x4

...

30

Natural selection produces evolutionary change by:

  1. changing the frequency of various versions of genes
  2. reducing the number of new mutations
  3. producing genes needed for new environments
  4. reducing the effects of detrimental versions of genes
  5. causing random individuals to die or not reproduce

...