Final Exam

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Phlebotomy
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1

What is the most important thing you do as a phlebotomist?

Identify your patient

2

What are the three parts of the "2 out of 3" rule?

1. What is the patients name? Ask them.

2. Ask them their birthdate.

3. Medical record number

3

Give an example of the "2 out of 3" rules use.

POC testing

4

Define Standard of Care

Following acceptable conduct as determined by national standards

5

Give an example of what could happen if standard of care is not followed.

Infection; Not properly disposing needle after use & accidently using it on another patient.

6

What is negligence?

Failure to perform an action consistent with the accepted standard of care.

7

What are the 4 parts of proving malpractice?

Duty, Dereliction, Injury, Direct Cause

8

What is the difference between assault and battery?

Assault is the threat or attempt to touch someone without permission. Battery is the intentional touching of another person without consent.

9

How do you obtain permission if the patient is unconscious?

Consent if implied. Check institutions policy.

10

Give 4 reasons why a dermal puncture might be performed.

Infants, point of care testing, elderly with fragile veins, mastectomy patients.

11

List 4 different collection devices for the skin puncture blood (what does the blood go in?).

Microcollection tubes (bullets), Capillary tubes, Micro hematocrit tubes, Peripheral blood smear

12

What is the maximum depth of an infant lancet?

2.0mm

13

What is the maximum depth of an adult lancet?

3.0mm

14

Why are infant and adult lancets different?

Because of the site and patient. (Infants have less fat)

15

What are the 3 parts to the "chain of infection"?

Reservoir, Means of Transmission, Susceptible Host

16

What happens if you break the chain of infection?

Then it's more likely it won't be transferred to another source

17

What is a nosocomial infection?

Got the infection in the hospital & didn't have it before.

18

What is HAI?

Health-Care Associated Infection

19

What is the means of transmission for an insect bite?

vector

20

What is the means of transmission for drawing blood without gloves on?

Direct contact

21

What is the means of transmission for sneezing, including small particles that can travel thru the air?

Airbourne

22

What is the means of transmission for salmonella on the spinach at the salad bar?

Common vehicle

23

What is the means of transmission for sneezing, including large particles that don't travel far?

Droplets

24

What is a fomite?

Inanimate object

25

Give 3 examples of fomites.

Needles, bedrails, phone.

26

Which "Means of transmission(s)" involve fomites?

Indirect

27

What is the best way to stop the spread of infection?

Wash your hands with soap & water.

28

Define the term BBP

Infectious agents in the blood

29

List 3 BBP's.

Hep B, C, D

HIV

Syphillis

30

List 3 ways a BBP could be transmitted

Ingestion, Inoculation, aerosol

31

What does "PPE" stand for?

Personal Protection Equipment

32

Give 3 examples of PPE

Gloves, safety glasses, face mask.

33

Define standard or universal precautions.

The minimum level of protection when coming in contact with all patients.

34

How many times should you invert vacutainer tubes after filling them with blood?

5-8 times

35

What happens if you don't invert them soon enough?

The blood in the tube will have clots in it.

36

What's the difference between serum and plasma?

Serum is the clotting factors and fibrinogen are not present because they were used up with the specimen clotted. Plasma is the anticoagulant in the tube keeps the blood from clotting so the specimen still has the clotting factors and fibrinogen.

37

What is hemolysis?

The destruction of red blood cells, releasing the hemoglobin inside.

38

List 4 reasons a specimen might be hemolyzed.

Shaking or mixing a tube of blood too hard, not letting the alcohol dry before drawing blood, forcing blood through a needle with too much pressure, not attaching the needle tightly making the blood froth/foam.

39

List the veins in the antecubital area

Median cubital, cephalic, basilic

40

Which vein is our first choice for venipuncture? Why?

Median cubital because it is large and well anchored; it has the least risk to the patient.

41

Which vein is our last choice for venipuncture? Why?

Basilic because it is near nerves, near the brachial artery, and less well anchored; it has the most risk of complications for patients.

42

Comparing venipuncture methods (syringe, multidraw/evacuated tube or butterfly: which is the safety, fastest, and cheapest?

Multidraw/evacuated tube

43

Comparing venipuncture methods (syringe, multidraw/evacuated tube or butterfly: which is the most dangerous to the phlebotomist?

Butterfly

44

List four reasons the lab might reject a blood specimen that you collected.

Incorrectly labeled, drawn in the wrong color tube, tube with anticoagulant is clotted, not enough blood in the tube (QNS)

45

When do we label a patient's blood collection specimen?

After the blood collection and before leaving the patient's room

46

Why is it important when we label a patient's blood collection specimen?

If you leave a patient's room with unlabeled blood, you may get distracted and label it later with a different patient's labels. If you label the tubes before collection the specimen, and then are unable to complete the draw, those labeled tubes might be used for a different patient's blood collection. In either case a patient could die.

47

What is a hematoma?

A bruise that forms from blood leaking from the vein, and under the skin during a venipuncture

48

How can we prevent a hematoma from happening to our patients?

Be sure your needle is in the vein and not only partially in, Apply pressure on the draw site after removing the needle, remove the tourniquet BEFORE removing the needle.

49

What should we do if the patient has visitors in the room?

Allow them to stay if it is not disruptive, otherwise ask them to step into the hall while you collect the blood

50

What should we do if the patient's doctor is present?

Say you will come back later, unless it is a stat. If a stat, ask the doctor if they want you to come back, or draw it now.

51

What if their clergy or pastor is present?

Say you will come back later, unless it's a stat

52

How should we respond if the patient refuses to be drawn?

Explain the doctor has ordered some tests to be done. If they refuse a second time, thank them and leave. Do not draw their blood.

53

Who should we report the patient's refusal to?

Let the patient's nurse or the unit coordinator know that the patient refused. Then document who you notified.

54

Convert 3:15 AM to military time.

0315

55

Convert 12:30 PM to military time.

1230

56

Convert 10:15 PM to military time

2215

57

On the arm, how far above the draw site do we put the tourniquet?

3-4 inches above the draw site

58

How long can we leave the tourniquet on?

One minute

59

20 X 1. What does the "20g" mean?

The gauge, or size of the interior diameter (lumen) of the needle

60

20 X 1. What does the "1" mean

The length of the needle is 1 inch

61

Compare a 20g X 1 to a 23g X 3/4. Which needle has the larger lumen?

20g x 1

62

Compare a 20g X 1 to a 23g X 2/4. Which needle has the longer shaft?

20g X 1

63

When using a needle for venipuncture, what is the correct angle of insertion?

15-30 degrees, bevel up.

64

Put tubes in the correct order of draw.

Yellow, Light blue, Red, SST/tiger/GOLD, Green, Lavender, Gray

65

What does the gel in a gold hemogard do?

When the specimen is spun-down the gel falls between the serum at the top of the tube and the cells at the bottom. This makes the solutes in the serum more stable, so testing can be done for longer time periods.

66

What is reflux?

When blood from one vacutainer tube is drawn back into the needle/arm, and then that blood goes into the next vacutainer tube that is attached to the needle. This can cause possible contamination of the blood in the second tube.

67

How do you prevent reflux?

Position the vacutainer holder so that the tubes fill from the bottom up.

68

What is the purpose of the anti-coagulant in the vacutainer tubes?

The purpose is the prevent the blood in the tubes from clotting.

69

Which vacutainer tubes give you serum?

Red tops, SST/Tiger tops, Gold hemogards, orange tops, Some dark blue tops.

70

What is the additive in the green tube?

Heparin

71

What is the additive in the gold hemogard?

Clot activator and gel

72

What is the additive in the yellow tube?

SPS

73

What is the additive in the lavender tube?

EDTA

74

What is the additive in the gray tube?

Fluoride/oxalate

75

What is the additive in the light blue tube?

Sodium citrate

76

What is the additive in the SST/Tiger top?

Clot activator and gel

77

What is the additive in the red top?

No additive or clot activator

78

What tests are the green tube used for?

Stat chemistry tests

79

What tests are the gold hemogard used for?

Most chemistry tests

80

What tests are the lavender top used for?

CBC's and hematology testing

81

What tests are the yellow top used for?

Blood cultures

82

What tests are the gray top used for?

Glucoses

83

What tests are the light blue top used for?

Coagulation testing

84

What tests are the SST/Tiger top used for?

Most chemistry tests

85

What tests are the red top used for?

Blood bank, serology, chemistry

86

What body system breaks down food into nutrients the body can use?

Digestive

87

What body system deals with emotions?

Nervous

88

What body system does movement occur?

Muscular

89

What body system protects the body?

Integumentary

90

What body system is associated with pancreas?

Digestive

91

What body system is associated with the joints?

Skeletal

92

What body system is associated with the spinal cord?

Nervous

93

What body system is associated with the liver?

Digestive

94

What body system is associated with the tendons?

Muscular

95

What body system is associated with neuron?

Nervous

96

What body system is associated with gout?

Skeletal

97

What body system is associated with multiple sclerosis (MS)?

Nervous

98

What body system is associated with ulcer?

Digestive

99

What body system is associated with arthritis?

Skeletal

100

What body system is associated with stroke?

Nervous

101

What body system is associated with melanoma?

Integumentary

102

What body system is associated with bilirubin?

Digestive

103

What body system is associated with uric acid?

Skeletal

104

What body system is associated with creatine kinase (CK)?

Muscular

105

What body system is associated with calcium?

Skeletal

106

What body system is associated with aspartate aminotransferase (AST)?

Muscular

107

What body system is associated with amylase and lipase?

Digestive

108

What body system is associated with CSF analysis?

Nervous

109

What is "O & P"?

Ova & parasites

110

What kind of specimen is O&P?

Stool sample

111

What body system is associated with O&P?

Digestive

112

What does a KOH prep test for?

Fungal infection

113

What body system is associated with KOH?

Integumentary

114

The lab test "occult blood" needs what type of specimen?

Stool sample

115

What would cause occult blood test to be positive?

Blood in stool

116

What body system is occult blood test used for?

Digestive

117

What is C&S ?

Culture & Sensitivity

118

Give an example of a specimen type, and its corresponding body system.

Infection; UTI- Urinary system

119

Define hematopoiesis

Formation & development of blood cells

120

What body system is associated with hematopoiesis?

Digestive

121

Define homeostasis

Property of a system in which variables are regulated so that internal conditions remain stable & relatively constant.

122

What body system is associated with homeostasis?

All systems.

123

What body system is associated with regulating body hydration?

Urinary

124

What body system regulates & produces hormones?

Endocrine

125

What body system is associated with exchanging of oxygen & carbon dioxide?

Respiratory

126

What body system is associated with the thyroid?

Endocrine

127

What body system is associated with nephron?

Urinary

128

What body system is associated with alveoli?

Respiratory

129

What body system is associated with Pituitary?

Endocrine

130

What body system is associated with ovary/testes?

Reproduction

131

What body system is associated with kidney?

Urinary

132

What body system is associated with diabetes mellitus?

Endocrine

133

What body system is associated with asthma?

Respiratory

134

What body system is associated with herpes?

Reproductive

135

What body system is associated with hypothyroidism?

Endocrine

136

What does UTI stand for?

Urinary tract infection

137

What system is associated with UTI?

Urinary

138

What does STI stand for?

Sexually Transmitted Infections

139

What system is associated with STIs?

Reproductive

140

What body system is associated with Creatinine?

Urinary

141

What body system is associated with T3, T4, TSH?

Endocrine

142

What body system is associated with Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)?

Reproductive

143

What body system is associated with Testosterone?

Reproductive

144

What body system is associated with Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)?

Urinary

145

Name two tests for syphilis.

Rapid Plasma Region, Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption

146

What body system is associated with syphilis?

Reproductive

147

What are "ABG's"?

Arterial Blood Gases

148

What body system is associated with ABG?

Respiratory

149

What is a UA test?

Urinary analysis

150

What body system is associated with UA?

Urinary

151

What four tests are included in Electrolytes?

Sodium, Potassium, Chloride, Carbon Dioxide

152

What body system is associated with electrolytes?

Respiratory & Urinary

153

What does PSA stand for?

Prostate specific antigen

154

What body system is associated with PSA?

Reproductive

155

Name 2 tests for cardiac risk (risk of a heart attack).

Cholesterol, Triglyceride

156

Name three tests for ruling out a heart attack.

CK-MB, myoglobin, troponin

157

What body system is associated with the tests for cardiac risk & ruling out a heart attack?

Circulatory

158

The elbow is _______ to the shoulder.

inferior

159

The ear is ____________ to the nose

Lateral

160

A patient who is lying in bed having their blood drawn is ______________.

Supine

161

Which blood vessel carries blood away from the heart?

Arteries

162

Which blood vessel carries blood to the heart?

Vein

163

Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood?

Artery

164

Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood?

Vein

165

Where do gas, nutrient, and waste exchange take place in the tissues?

The blood - specifically in plasma.

166

List the order of choice for vein use in the anticubital area.

Median cubital, Cephalic, Basilic

167

Solutes are found in which part of the blood?

Plasma

168

Name 5 different solutes.

Proteins, Nutrients, Gases, Electrolytes, Wastes.

169

What is another name for RBC?

Erythrocytes

170

What is the RBC's job?

Carry oxygen (by attaching it to hemoglobin).

171

What is another name for WBC?

Leukocytes

172

What is WBC's job?

To kill bacteria and pathogens

173

What is another name for platelet?

Thrombocytes

174

What are the platelets job?

Form a plug to stop bleeding.

175

List the four phases of hemostasis in the order they occur

Vascular phase, platelet phase, coagulation phase, firbrinolysis

176

The mucus in our nose is a part of our immune system. Is it considered to be a type of specific immunity or non-specific immunity?

Non-specific immunity

177

Who is responsible for the doctors and medical interns on staff?

Chief of staff

178

What kind of doctor is trained in laboratory medicine?

MD pathologist or PhD

179

Who does the hiring and firing in the lab?

Lab Manager/administrator

180

What hospital department is responsible for helping patient regain everyday skills?

Occupational therapy

181

Name the four areas that report to the CEO of the hospital.

Fiscal/Information Services, Support Services, Nursing Services, Professional Services

182

Name the laboratory department that monitors the blood clotting system

Coagulation

183

Name the laboratory department where CBC's are done.

Hematology

184

Name the laboratory department where C&S is done.

Microbiology

185

Name the laboratory department where toxicology testing is done.

Chemistry

186

Name the laboratory department that processes tissues for the pathologist to read.

Histology

187

Name the laboratory department where PAP smears are done

Cytology

188

Name the department that does the most tests including, ABG's and glucoses

Chemistry

189

In addition to blood collection, name 4 additional responsibilities that a phlebotomist might be expected to do.

EKG tech, POC Testing, Basic respiratory therapy responsibilities, Lab assistant for CLIA waived tests

190

Who can do the highly complex testing in the lab, and what degree do they have?

Medical Technologist - Bachelor's.

191

What does CLIA88 stand for and what is it's role in the lab/health care?

Clinical Lab Improvement Act of 1988. Includes POL & Clinical labs. Waived tests, physician performed microscopy, moderately complex tests, highly complex tests

192

What does CLSI stand for and what is it's role in the lab/health care?

Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute. Non-profit education organization, publishes guidelines for standards, procedures, methods, evaluations.

193

What does JC stand for?

Joint Commission

194

What does OSHA stand for?

Occupational Safety and Health Administration.

195

What does CDC stand for?

Center for disease control

196

List 3 ways being in the hospital can affect patients

Decreased mobility. Disruption of time patterns, loss of individuality.

197

What is jaundice?

Yellowing of skin due to liver function

198

What blood test measures jaundice?

Bilirubin

199

Why would bilirubin be done on a newborn?

To monitor liver function.

200

What special handling needs to happen to the sample for accurate results?

Document amount of blood collected.

201

What is a VAD?

Vascular access device.

202

Who can draw blood from a VAD?

Trained staff only

203

Why is sterile technique necessary?

Those indwelling lines could be in there for a long duration of time.

204

Why would a discard tube be needed?

For butterfly draws.

205

Name the 2 VAD's that dialysis patients may have

Arteriovenous (AV) shunt cannula/fistula

206

Can a phlebotomist draw blood from dialysis patients?

Yes, but from the arm without the shunt.

207

Can a phlebotomist draw blood from the arm with a shunt?

NO.

208

You are not able to obtain blood on your first attempt, and the patient is upset. How would you handle this?

Look for signs that patient is getting upset. Ask for another phlebotomist to draw the blood.

209

What is EMLA?

It's an anesthetic

210

What is EMLA used for?

To numb the draw site.

211

What are the problems associated with EMLA's use?

You have to choose the site of draw at time of applying the EMLA & you have to apply it an hour before the draw.

212

When drawing blood from an elderly patient, list 4 issues specific to these patients that can make blood collection more difficult.

Fragile skin, patient confusion, may be heard of hearing, rolling veins.

213

List 3 things you can do to make this collection easier for you and the elderly patient.

Use ID band, face them when you talk, tourniquet over clothing.

214

Why is it sometimes not a good idea to use band-aids on young children?

They can choke on them.

215

What do you use on young children instead of bandaids?

Gauze, then hold.

216

What special preparations must a patient follow before having a glucose tolerance test performed?

High carb diet for 3 days prior to test, fast for 12 hours before test, water encouraged, medications ok as directed by doctor, no food, caffeine, smoking during test.

217

What does it mean for a patient to be fasting before a blood draw?

No eating 8-12 hours before test

218

How long should the fasting last?

8-12 hours.

219

A patient's blood glucose level is elevated in the 2nd hour specimen. What does this mean?

Patient has diabetes mellitus.

220

What does 2-hour PP mean?

2 hour post prandial test used to test for diabetes mellitus.

221

What special disinfection method is used for blood culture collection?

Alcohol and Iodine/Betadine

222

Why is a special disinfection method necessary for blood culture collection?

It reduces the possibility of infection, sepsis or putrefaction

223

Why do we usually collect 2 different bottles when obtaining blood cultures?

Air from tubes

224

When would a chain of custody collection be required?

Legal testing

225

What are some special requirements for legal testing collection?

Patient signs consent form, use picture ID, cannot clean draw site with any alcohol for legal blood alcohol test.

226

List the four requirements for correctly collecting a urine C&S.

Patient should clean area with cleansing cloth, patient pees into toilet, after several ml patient holds sample cup under stream and collects in cup, temperature of urine is immediately checked.

227

What is therapeutic phlebotomy?

Removal of blood from patient's system as part of treatment.

228

What 2 patient disorders require therapeutic phlebotomy?

Polycythemia & Hereditary hemochromatosis

229

Name 3 requirements of a Red Cross blood donor.

Must be at least 17 years old, weigh at least 110 lbs, Not have donated in the last 8 weeks.

230

Approximately how much blood is collected in one donor unit?

400-500 ml

231

What gauge needle is used for blood donations?

16-18

232

What does a Bleeding Time Test check for?

Process of hemostasis

233

List 3 pieces of special equipment used when performing Bleeding Time Test?

Filter paper, special lancet, butterfly bandage.

234

Name 2 things that can cause the Bleeding Time Test to have an abnormal result.

Taking aspirin/ibuprofen & may cause scarring

235

What does POCT stand for?

Point of care testing

236

What is an advantage of performing a test as a POCT?

Short turn-around-time, so faster diagnosis and treatment, can be done in ER, a clinic, a doctor's office, a health fair, a home care.

237

What is the disadvantage of performing a test as a POCT?

The cost per test is more than doing the same test in a lab.

238

What does the term CLIA waived test mean?

It's not subject to regulatory oversight by government authorities

239

List 3 rules that must be followed when performing a CLIA waived test, or a POCT test.

Follow manufacturer's instructions, have proper training, document quality controls and maintenance

240

List 3 common POCT blood tests

Lead, Glucose, PT/PTT

241

Give an example of a common urine POCT test.

urinalysis

242

How would you safely transport a blood specimen to the lab?

Well mixed specimen, labeled correctly, transported in leak-proof zip locked bag, tubes should remain upright during transport.

243

List 2 things that could delay lab results getting to the doctor.

Wrong color tube, hemolysis

244

Once you draw a patient's blood, how long do you have to get that specimen to the lab?

45 minutes

245

What is centrifugation?

Equipment that spins the sample at a very high speed, separating components based on density.

246

How long after blood collection does the lab have to centrifuge or process a specimen?

2 hours.

247

What does it mean to aliquot a specimen?

To create multiple samples from the original tube of blood

248

Why would a specimen need to be protected from light?

Because the light breaks down what we're trying to measure

249

Name a test that needs to be protected from light.

Bilirubin

250

Why would a specimen need to be transported on ice?

Slows the metabolic process

251

Name a test that needs to be transported on ice.

ABG's

252

Why would a specimen need to be collected at a specific time (timed collection)?

Values in the specimen change the longer blood cells and serum/plasma are in contact due to glycolysis

253

Name a test that needs to be collected at a specific time.

Stats

254

What special considerations are there when processing and transporting a specimen to a reference lab?

Serum or plasma separated first in central processing, use leakproof, unbreakable containers, sample must be processed exactly to specific instructions to assure accurate and reliable test results.

255

List 3 reasons why a specimen might be rejected by the lab.

Hemolysis, Wrong color tube, expired tube

256

What does CQI stand for?

Continuous Quality Improvement

257

What does TQM stand for?

Total Quality Management

258

What does QA stand for?

Quality Assurance

259

What does QC stand for?

Quality Control

260

What requires that staff have continuing education?

Quality assurance

261

A specimen comes to the lab with incorrect or incomplete labeling. How should this problem be resolved?

Documentation of problem and actions taken to solve problems.

262

What department includes proficiency testing?

Quality Control

263

What department represents all the hospitals plans and policies for the hospital?

Quality Assurance.

264

What is the overall goal of CQI?

Always finding ways to do better.

265

What is a delta check?

Compares changes from current labs to previous labs per patient.

266

Define pre-analytical variables.

Done before test is done.

267

List 6 specific things a phlebotomist can do to ensure a quality specimen goes to the lab.

Requisition, equipment, patient identification, patient preparation, specimen collection, specimen handling.

268

You need to review the procedure for a bleeding time test. Where would you look?

Procedure manual.

269

You need to know if a patient needs to be fasting for a triglyceride level. Where do you find this information?

Procedure Manual.

270

A dr asks you if he orders an ANA now, when will the results be back. Where will you find this info?

Floor book.

271

When performing a capillary blood gas, how do we mix the sample?

Well with flea

272

When performing a capillary blood gas, what do we collect the blood in?

Heparinized capillary tube with metal flea for mixing

273

When performing a capillary blood gas, when do we warm the site first?

It increases arterial blood to capillaries

274

Comparing the arteries femoral, radial & brachial: which artery is our first choice for arterial blood gas (ABG) collection?

Radial

275

Why is the radial artery our first choice for ABG?

Easy to access, easy to compress after puncture, good collateral circulation

276

What does the Allen Test check for?

To find out if the blood flow to your hand is normal

277

Why and when do we do the Allen Test?

To make sure that both radial and ulnar arteries are open and working correctly. For ABG testing.

278

What is the pH test for?

acid/base balance

279

What is pO2 used for?

partial pressure of oxygen in blood; assess oxygenation

280

What is pCO2 used for?

Partial pressure of CO2, assess ventilation

281

What is O2 saturation test used for?

Percentage of oxygen bond to hemoglobin

282

What antiseptic is normally used to clean the puncture site before performing the arterial stick?

Alcohol & povidone-iodine/chlorhexidine

283

What gauge needle is used for blood gas collection?

21 or 22

284

What anticoagulant is used for blood gas collection?

Heparin

285

Where is the tourniquet placed for an ABG collection?

A tourniquet isn't needed.

286

How long must pressure be applied to the puncture site following an arterial blood gas collection?

5 minutes; 15 minutes for patients on anticoagulant precautions.

287

Where is the radial artery located?

Deep in the antecubital area

288

Name 3 hazards to the patient when performing an ABG collection, and describe what each one is

Arteriospasm - involuntary contraction of an artery due to pain, prevents oxygen from reaching tissues; hematoma - inadequate pressure on site, common in elderly; thrombosis - clot forms within an artery.

289

How long is an ABG sample stable if it is on ice?

5-10 minutes

290

How long is an ABG sample stable if not on ice?

30 minutes

291

What do the letters OSHA stand for?

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

292

What is OSHA's job?

regulates workplace safety

293

List the 3 ways to reduce exposure to radiation.

Distance, time, and shielding

294

List 3 ways to keep safe when using chemicals.

Never mix chemicals unless following a written procedure, always pour acid into water and then mix, never store chemicals above eye level.

295

List 3 ways to keep safe when using needles.

Never recap a used needle, never remove a used needle from syringe by hand, use biohazard sharps container, keep within reach.

296

If you are stuck with a used needle, what should you do (list 3 things)?

Immediately flood with exposed area with water and clean any wound with soap and water or a skin disinfectant, Report this immediately to your employer, seek immediate medical attention including counseling for exposure to HIV, HBV, and HCV.

297

What 3 types of reactions are associated with latex usage?

Irritant contact dermatitis, allergic contact dermatitis, and anaphylaxis

298

What type of fire is electrical socket?

Class C

299

What extinguisher is used for an electrical socket fire?

BC or ABC

300

What type of fire is trash in a waste paper basket?

Class A

301

What type of extinguisher is used for fire in a waste paper basket?

A, AB, or ABC

302

What type of fire is an alcohol spill in workplace?

Class B

303

What type of extinguisher is used for a fire caused by alcohol spill in workplace?

AB, BC, or ABC

304

What is a SDS?

Safety Data Sheet

305

What important information does SDS provide (list 3 things)?

Info about chemicals, hazard of chemicals, first aid for exposure, clean-up procedure