Animal Biology Exam 2

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1
card image

The figure above is a metaphase chromosome. The arrows in the figure are pointing to

(Select all correct choices)

centromeres

sister chromatids

identical DNA molecules that will be separated from each other during anaphase of mitosis

kinetochores

sister chromatids

identical DNA molecules that will be separated from each other during anaphase of mitosis

2

What is a karyotype?

a) a display of the chromosome pairs of a cell arranged by size and shape

b) a structure of proteins attached to the centromere that links each sister chromatid to the mitotic spindle

c) a structure in the cytoplasm that serves as a microtubule organizing center and is important in cell division

d) in a duplicated chromosome, the region on each sister chromatid where they are most closely attached to each other; this close attachment causes a constriction in the condensed chromosome

e) a hollow rod composed of tubulin proteins that makes up part of the cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells

a) a display of the chromosome pairs of a cell arranged by size and shape

3

A karyotype is prepared from cells in which phase of the cell cycle/mitosis? (When is DNA duplicated and highly condensed)

a) G1

b) prophase or metaphase

c) telophase

d) G2

e) S

f) G0

b) prophase or metaphase

4

Spotted hyenas are 2n=40. After the somatic cell of a spotted hyena divides by mitosis/cytokinesis, how many chromosomes are in each of the daughter cells?

a) zero

b) 10

c) 40

d) 80

e) 20

c) 40

5

Spotted hyenas are 2n=40. A spotted hyena somatic cell starts to divide. In metaphase of mitosis, how many sister chromatids are in the cell?

a) 160

b) 80

c) none, because they have separated at this point

d) 20

e) 40

b) 80

6

Put the stages of mitosis in the correct order.

____Telophase & Cytokinesis

____Metaphase

____Prophase

____Anaphase

__4__Telophase & Cytokinesis

__2__Metaphase

__1__Prophase

__3__Anaphase

7

Nuclear envelope degrades

a) Prophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Telophase/Cytokinesis

Prophase

8

Cohesin proteins degrade

a) Prophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Telophase/Cytokinesis

Anaphase

9

Mitotic spindle forms

a) Prophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Telophase/Cytokinesis

Prophase

10

Chromosomes decondense

a) Prophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Telophase/Cytokinesis

Telephase/Cytokinesis

11

Kinetochore microtubules grow and connect to kinetochores

a) Prophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Telophase/Cytokinesis

Prophase

12

Kinetochore microtubules shorten

a) Prophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Telophase/Cytokinesis

Anaphase

13

Chromosomes condense

a) Prophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Telophase/Cytokinesis

Prophase

14

Sister chromatids are pulled apart

a) Prophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Telophase/Cytokinesis

Anaphase

15

Chromosomes line up on metaphase plate

a) Prophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Telophase/Cytokinesis

Metaphase

16

The cell elongates

a) Prophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Telophase/Cytokinesis

Anaphase

17

Nuclear envelope reappears

a) Prophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Telophase/Cytokinesis

Telophase

18

Cleavage furrow forms

a) Prophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Telophase/Cytokinesis

Telophase/Cytokinesis

19

Parent cell splits into two daughter cells

a) Prophase

b) Metaphase

c) Anaphase

d) Telophase/Cytokinesis

Telophase/Cytokinesis

20

one type of these attached to kinetochores

a) Microtubules

b) Microfilaments

Microtubules

21

these shorten to pull sister chromatids apart

a) Microtubules

b) Microfilaments

Microtubules

22

these grow from centrosomes and form part of the mitotic spindle

a) Microtubules

b) Microfilaments

Microtubules

23

these form a contractile ring in a cleavage furrow; tightening of the ring leads to the formation of two daughter cells

a) Microtubules

b) Microfilaments

Microfilaments

24

Cell signaling in yeast and animals utilizes a signal transduction pathway. Which of the following is the correct order of stages in a signal transduction pathway?

a) Transcription, Translation, Replication

b) Reception, Response, Transduction

c) Transduction, Reception, Response

d ) Response, Transduction, Reception

e) Reception, Transduction, Response

e) Reception, Transduction, Response

25

A cell cycle checkpoint is a control point where progress through the cell cycle is stopped, at least temporarily, so the cell can monitor itself to make sure that all cell process are complete and accurate bas the cell cycle proceeds.

Where are the three cell cycle checkpoints found?

a) the beginning of G1, the end of G1, the end of G2

b) G1, S, G2

c) S, G2, G0

d) G1, G2, M

e) prophase, metaphase, telophase

d) G1, G2, M

26

the requirement that a cell must be attached to a substratum in order to initiate cell division

a) anchorage dependence

b) density-dependent inhibition

c) growth factor

Anchorage dependence

27

a protein that must be present in the extracellular environment for normal cells to start dividing

a) anchorage dependence

b) density-dependent inhibition

c) growth factor

growth factor

28

the phenomenon observed in normal animal cells that causes them to stop dividing when they become too crowded

a) anchorage dependence

b) density-dependent inhibition

c) growth factor

density dependent inhibition

29

proteins that help prevent uncontrolled cell growth

a) oncogene

b) proto-oncogene

c) telomerase

d) tumor-suppressors

tumor suppressors

30

normal versions of oncogenes, which code for proteins that stimulate normal cell growth and division.

a) oncogene

b) proto-oncogene

c) telomerase

d) tumor-suppressors

b) proto-oncogene

31

an enzyme that catalyzes the lengthening of telomeres in some eukaryotic cells and in cancer cells

a) oncogene

b) proto-oncogene

c) telomerase

d) tumor-suppressors

c) telomerase

32

cancer-causing genes

a) oncogene

b) proto-oncogene

c) telomerase

d) tumor-suppressors

a) oncogene

33

In humans, the X and Y chromosomes

a) are sex chromosomes

b) are autosomes

c) determine an individual's sex

d) a and c are both correct

e) b and c are both correct

d) a and c are both correct

34
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The figure above shows the karyotype of an alpine marmot. In this figure, the thick blue arrows are pointing to _____ while the thin red arrows are pointing to ______________ .

a) diploid chromosomes; haploid chromosomes

b) eukaryotic chromosomes; prokaryotic chromosomes

c) homologous chromosomes; sister chromatids

d) sister chromatids; homologous chromosomes

e) autosomes; sex chromosomes

d) sister chromatids; homologous chromosomes

35

The product of meiosis is

a) four daughter cells each with half as many chromosomes as the parent cell

b) two daughter cells each with twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell

c) four daughter cells each with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell

d) two daughter cells each with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell

e) two daughter cells each with half as many chromosomes as the parent cell

a) four daughter cells each with half as many chromosomes as the parent cell

36

In gamete formation, DNA replication occurs

a) after meiosis is completed

b) only before meiosis II

c) only before meiosis I

d) before meiosis I and again before meiosis II

e) it does not occur at all before or during meiosis

c) only before meiosis I

37

an exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

a) crossing over

b) fertilization

c) gamete

d) synapsis

e) zygote

a) crossing over

38

the union of gametes, culminating in fusion of their nuclei

a) crossing over

b) fertilization

c) gamete

d) synapsis

e) zygote

b) fertilization

39

fertilized egg

a) crossing over

b) fertilization

c) gamete

d) synapsis

e) zygote

e) zygote

40

the pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase I

a) crossing over

b) fertilization

c) gamete

d) synapsis

e) zygote

d) synapsis

41

a haploid reproductive cell, such as an egg or a sperm

a) crossing over

b) fertilization

c) gamete

d) synapsis

e) zygote

c) gamete

42

Synapsis occurs

a) Prophase I

b) Metaphase I

c) Anaphase I

d) Metaphase II

e) Anaphase II

a) Prophase I

43

Unpaired chromosomes line up on metaphase plate

a) Prophase I

b) Metaphase I

c) Anaphase I

d) Metaphase II

e) Anaphase II

d) Metaphase II

44

Homologous chromosome pairs line up on metaphase plate

a) Prophase I

b) Metaphase I

c) Anaphase I

d) Metaphase II

e) Anaphase II

b) Metaphase I

45

Separation of homologous chromosomes (sister chromatids stay attached)

a) Prophase I

b) Metaphase I

c) Anaphase I

d) Metaphase II

e) Anaphase II

c) Anaphase I

46

Crossing over occurs

a) Prophase I

b) Metaphase I

c) Anaphase I

d) Metaphase II

e) Anaphase II

a) Prophase I

47

Meiotic spindle forms

a) Prophase I

b) Metaphase I

c) Anaphase I

d) Metaphase II

e) Anaphase II

a) Prophase I

48

hromosomes condense

a) Prophase I

b) Metaphase I

c) Anaphase I

d) Metaphase II

e) Anaphase II

a) Prophase I

49

Nuclear envelope breaks down

a) Prophase I

b) Metaphase I

c) Anaphase I

d) Metaphase II

e) Anaphase II

a) Prophase I

50

Separation of sister chromatids

a) Prophase I

b) Metaphase I

c) Anaphase I

d) Metaphase II

e) Anaphase II

e) Anaphase II

51

an allele that is fully expressed, even in a heterozygote

a) Alleles

b) Recessive

c) Dominant

d) Phenotype

e) Genotype

f) Heterozygous

g) Homozygous

c) Dominant

52

having two different alleles for a given gene

a) Alleles

b) Recessive

c) Dominant

d) Phenotype

e) Genotype

f) Heterozygous

g) Homozygous

f) Heterozygous

53

alternate versions of a gene that specify different forms of a trait

a) Alleles

b) Recessive

c) Dominant

d) Phenotype

e) Genotype

f) Heterozygous

g) Homozygous

a) Alleles

54

having two identical alleles for a given gene

a) Alleles

b) Recessive

c) Dominant

d) Phenotype

e) Genotype

f) Heterozygous

g) Homozygous

g) Homozygous

55

an organism's appearance or observable traits

a) Alleles

b) Recessive

c) Dominant

d) Phenotype

e) Genotype

f) Heterozygous

g) Homozygous

d) Phenotype

56

the genetic makeup of an organism

a) Alleles

b) Recessive

c) Dominant

d) Phenotype

e) Genotype

f) Heterozygous

g) Homozygous

e) Genotype

57

an allele that has no noticeable effect on the appearance of an organism unless it is found in a homozygous condition

a) Alleles

b) Recessive

c) Dominant

d) Phenotype

e) Genotype

f) Heterozygous

g) Homozygous

b) Recessive

58

parental generation

a) True breeding

b) P generation

c) F1

d) Punnett square

e) Test cross

P generation

59

varieties of organisms in which self-fertilization produces offspring that are identical to the parents

a) True breeding

b) P generation

c) F1

d) Punnett square

e) Test cross

True Breeding

60

a handy diagrammatic device for predicting the allele composition of offspring between individuals of known genetic makeup

a) True breeding

b) P generation

c) F1

d) Punnett square

e) Test cross

Punnet Square

61

hybrid offspring of the P generation

a) True breeding

b) P generation

c) F1

d) Punnett square

e) Test cross

c) F1

62

a cross between an organism of unknown genotype with a homozygous recessive individual

a) True breeding

b) P generation

c) F1

d) Punnett square

e) Test cross

e) Test cross

63

You flip a coin three times. What are chances you will get three heads in a row?

a) 1/12

b) 1/8

c) 1/16

d) 1/3

e) 0

b) 1/8

64
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The figure above is the karyotype of a vampire bat. Which of the following statements is ACCURATE about the vampire bat?

its gametes will be n=14

it is a male

it is a female

the gametes it produces will be sperm

each gamete it makes will have 14 pairs of chromosomes

it will make gametes each with a total of 14 chromosomes

its gametes will be 2n=28

its somatic cells are 2n=28

its gametes will be made by mitosis

its gametes will be made by meiosis

the gametes it produces will be eggs

its gametes will be n=14

it is a male

the gametes it produces will be sperm

it will make gametes each with a total of 14 chromosomes

its somatic cells are 2n=28

its gametes will be made by meiosis

65
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The figure above is the karyotype of a vampire bat. Use the karyotype to answer the question below.

A germline cell in a vampire bat starts to undergo meiosis. How many chromosomes will be found in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis I?

a) 2

b) 56

c) 14

d) 7

e) 28

14

66
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The jumper jack ant is 2n=2. In the diagram above, which choice represents a jumper jack ant in metaphase II of meiosis?

A

B

C

D

E

E

67
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The jumper jack ant is 2n=2. In the diagram above, which choice represents a jumper jack ant in anaphase I of meiosis?

A

B

C

D

E

c

68

In many cancers ___ are converted to ___, and ____ are mutated.

a) proto-oncogenes; tumor suppressor genes; oncogenes

b) proto-oncogenes; oncogenes; tumor suppressor genes

c) proto-suppressor genes; tumor suppressor genes; telomerase

d) oncogenes; tumor suppressor genes; proto-oncogenes

e) oncogenes; proto-oncogenes; tumor suppressor genes

b) proto-oncogenes; oncogenes; tumor suppressor genes

69

Which of the following has the best potential to act as an anticancer drug?

a) a drug that enhances production of the HPV E6 protein

b) an antisense (RNA inhibition) drug that targets p53

c) a drug that hyper-methylates the telomerase gene

c) a drug that hyper-methylates the telomerase gene

70
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In humans, the absence or presence of freckles is due to the freckling gene. The allele for freckles is dominant (F) and the allele for no freckles is recessive (f). The figure above shows a pair of homologous chromosomes that contain the freckling locus (these are autosomes and they are unreplicated chromosomes)

The individual with this pair of chromosomes is

a) dizygous

b) hemizygous

c) homozygous

d) heterozygous

d) heterozygous

71

In humans, the absence or presence of freckles is due to the freckling gene. The allele for freckles is dominant (F) and the allele for no freckles is recessive (f). An individual who is heterozygous at the freckle locus would have which of the following PHENOTYPES?

a) Ff

b) FF

c) no freckles

d) ff

e) freckles

e) freckles

72

In humans, the absence or presence of freckles is due to the freckling gene. The allele for freckles is dominant (F) and the allele for no freckles is recessive (f). An individual who is heterozygous at the freckle locus would have which of the following GENOTYPES?

a) ff

b) Ff

c) FF

d) no freckles

e) freckles

b) Ff

73
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In humans, the absence or presence of freckles is due to the freckling gene. The allele for freckles is dominant (F) and the allele for no freckles is recessive (f). An individual who is heterozygous at the freckle locus would produce which of the following gametes?

a) all gametes would be Ff

b) none of the gametes would have the freckling gene; gametes don't have freckles

c) all gametes would have an f allele

d) half of the gametes would have the F allele and half of the gametes would have the f allele

e) all gametes would have the F allele

f) the proportion of gametes receiving each allele would be random; the process of meiosis is very disorganized and chromosomes are not separated in an ordered fashion

d) half of the gametes would have the F allele and half of the gametes would have the f allele

74

Mendel crossed pea plants that were true-breeding for round peas to pea plants that were true-breeding for wrinkled peas. The allele for yellow peas (Y) is dominant to the allele for green peas (y).

In the F1 generation, all of the offspring had yellow peas.

He crossed two F1 plants. What phenotypic ratio did he see in the F2 generation?

a) 1 YY: 2 Yy: 1 yy

b) 3 yellow: 1 green

c) All yello

d) 3 green; 1 yellow

e) 15 yellow: 1 green

b) 3 yellow: 1 green

75

What is the probability of obtaining an individual with the genotype Gg from a cross between two individuals with the genotype Gg?

a) 1/4

b) 1/2

c) 1/8

d) 3/4

e) 0

b) 1/2

76

Degenerative myelopathy (DM) is a progressive neurological disorder found in dozens of breeds of dogs that is inherited in a recessive manner. You breed two beagles who are carriers for DM. What is the probability that their first two pups will have DM?

a) 1/2

b) 1/8

c) 1/4

d) 1/16

e) 3/4

d) 1/16

77

In a hypothetical animal, long ears (L) are dominant to short ears (l) and wire hair (W) is dominant to smooth hair (w). An animal that is heterozygous for both genes (ear length and hair texture) could produce which of the following gametes?

Assume the genes for ear length and hair texture are on different chromosomes and assort independently.

a) LW, Lw, lW, lw

b) LlWw

c) L, l, W, w

d) Ll, Ww

e) LL, Ll, WW, Ww

a) LW, Lw, lW, lw

78

In a hypothetical animal, long ears (L) are dominant to short ears (l) and wire hair (W) is dominant to smooth hair (w). Assume the genes for ear length and hair texture are on different chromosomes and assort independently.

Two heterozygous individuals mate.

What is the chance that they have a single offspring that has short ears and wire hair?

Hint: This is a dihybrid cross between two heterozygotes and the genes are on different chromosomes. What is the characteristic ratio you would expect to see in offspring?

a) 1/4

b) 1/16

c) No chance. Both parents have long ears, so there is not way they can have a offspring with short ears.

d) 9/16

e) 100%

f) 3/16

f) 3/16

79

What is the purpose of cellular respiration?

a) to make ATP

b) to make glucose

c) to bring O2 into our bodies and to release CO2 from our bodies

d) to digest our food

e) to produce vitamins in our bodies

a) to make ATP

80

_____ are used and ____ are produced in the overall process of cellular respiration.

a) glucose and ATP; H2O, CO2 and O2

b) monomers such as glucose; polymers such as glycogen

c) glucose and O2; CO2, H2O and ATP

d) CO2 and glucose; H2O and O2

e) O2 and H2O; glucose and CO2

d) CO2 and glucose; H2O and O2

81
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Components of the electron transport chain and ATP synthases are found here

C & D

82
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Krebs Cycle (citric acid cycle) occurs here

E

83
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Intermembrane space

A

84
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Inner mitochondrial membrane/cristae

C & D

85
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Matrix

E

86
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Cytosol/cytoplasm

F

87
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Outer mitochondrial membrane

B

88
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Reactions of glycolysis occur here

F

89

Which of the following is accurate about glycolysis?

a) it uses 2 ATPs to get started and generates 4 ATPs

b) it generates 2 NADH

c) it splits glucose to form two pryuvate molecules

d) a and b are correct

e) a, b, and c are all correct

e) a, b, and c are all correct

90

an electron carrier or electron shuttle; it shuttles electrons from food (such as glucose) to the electron transport chain

a) ATP Synthase

b)Chemiosmosis

c) Cristae

d) Electron transport chain

e) NAD+

f) Oxidative phosphorylation

g) Substrate-level phosphorylation

NAD+

91

energy stored in a hydrogen ion gradient across a membrane is used to drive cellular work such as the synthesis of ATP

a) ATP Synthase

b)Chemiosmosis

c) Cristae

d) Electron transport chain

e) NAD+

f) Oxidative phosphorylation

g) Substrate-level phosphorylation

Chemiosmosis

92

consists of a number of molecules, mostly proteins, built into the inner mitochondrial membrane; electrons (originally found in food molecules) pass through this series of molecules

a) ATP Synthase

b)Chemiosmosis

c) Cristae

d) Electron transport chain

e) NAD+

f) Oxidative phosphorylation

g) Substrate-level phosphorylation

Electron Transport Chain

93

large protein complex found in the inner mitochondrial membrane that utilizes the flow of proteins to make ATP from ADP + P

a) ATP Synthase

b)Chemiosmosis

c) Cristae

d) Electron transport chain

e) NAD+

f) Oxidative phosphorylation

g) Substrate-level phosphorylation

ATP Synthase

94

infoldings of the inner mitochondrial membrane

a) ATP Synthase

b)Chemiosmosis

c) Cristae

d) Electron transport chain

e) NAD+

f) Oxidative phosphorylation

g) Substrate-level phosphorylation

Christae

95

mode of ATP synthesis that occurs when an enzyme transfers a phosphate group from a substrate to ADP

a) ATP Synthase

b)Chemiosmosis

c) Cristae

d) Electron transport chain

e) NAD+

f) Oxidative phosphorylation

g) Substrate-level phosphorylation

Substrate level phosphorylation

96

mode of ATP synthesis that is powered by redox reactions of the electron transport chain

a) ATP Synthase

b)Chemiosmosis

c) Cristae

d) Electron transport chain

e) NAD+

f) Oxidative phosphorylation

g) Substrate-level phosphorylation

Oxidative Phosphoration

97

corresponds to anaphase I

a) Law of Segregation

b) Law of Independent Assortment

Law of Segregation

98

the two alleles for a heritable character separate from each other during gamete formation and end up in different gametes

a) Law of Segregation

b) Law of Independent Assortment

Law of Segregation

99

corresponds to metaphase I

a) Law of Segregation

b) Law of Independent Assortment

Law of Independent Assortment

100

each pair of alleles segregate independently of each other pair of alleles during gamete formation

a) Law of Segregation

b) Law of Independent Assortment

Law of independent Assortment

101

Hair length in rabbits can be inherited in an incompletely dominant manner. A long-furred angora was mated with a short-furred rex (shown above).

Which of the following will be accurate about the phenotype(s) and genotype (s) of their offspring?

a) All of their offspring will be homozygous. Half of their offspring will have short hair and half will have long hair.

b) All of their offspring will be heterozygous and have patches of long hair and patches of short hair.

c) All of their offspring will be heterozygous and have intermediate-length hair

d) Half of the offspring will be homozygous and half will be heterozygous. 50% will have hair of intermediate length, 25% will have long hair, 25% will have short hair

e) All of their offspring will be heterozygous and will have a mix of long hair and short hair; there will be a mixture all over their bodies

c) All of their offspring will be heterozygous and have intermediate-length hair

102

In rabbits, agouti color is dominant and black color is recessive. You mate two black rabbits, what is the chance of getting agouti offspring?

100%

50%

25%

75%

No chance

No chance

103

A man who has type AB blood and is Rh positive and a woman who has type O blood and is Rh negative have a child. What is the chance the child will have type A blood and be Rh negative?

The man knows his father was Rh negative, but he doesn't know the ABO blood type of either of his parents. Rh positive is dominant over Rh negative.

1/8

3/4

1/4

3/16

1/2

1/16

1/4

104

Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition and is due to a defect in the CFTR gene. The CFTR gene is on chromosome 7. Analysis of the human population shows there are over 1500 different CFTR alleles, which if present in an individual cause varying degrees of cystic fibrosis.

There are 1500 CFTR alleles in the human population, how many can be found in a single individual?

a) 2

b) > 1500

c) ~20,000

d) 46

2

105

Paralytic tremor (PT) is a neurological sex-linked recessive mutation in rabbits which is characterized by a body tremor and limb paralysis.

A normal female rabbit and a normal male rabbit have several offspring. Two of the male offspring have PT. What is the genotype of the parents?

a) Its impossible to tell with the information given

b) One parent is PP and the other is Pp

c) The mother is XX and the father is XPY

d) The mother could be XX or XpX and the father could be XY or XPY

e) The mother is XpX and the father is XY

e) The mother is XpX and the father is XY

106
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Viscachas are chinchillas, but look similar to rabbits, apart from their longer tails.

Shown above is the karyotype of a viscacha. Which of the following choices are correct? Select all correct choices.

this viscacha has an SRY gene

viscachas are 2n=56

this viscacha will make eggs that are n=28

this viscacha is a female

this viscacha is 2n=28

half of the gametes made by this viscacha will be eggs, half will be sperm

This viscacha is a male

viscachas are 2n=56

this viscacha will make eggs that are n=28

this viscacha is a female

107
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Shown above is the karyotype of a viscacha. A cell in viscacha starts to undergo meiosis. Which of the following is/are true of the two daughter cells at the end of meiosis I?

Select all correct choices.

Each cell has 28 chromosomes

Both cells are haploid

Homologous chromosomes are still synpased (paired)

Both cells are diploid

Each cell has 56 chromosomes

All chromosomes in the cells are composed of two sister chromatids

Each cell has 28 chromosomes

Both cells are haploid

All chromosomes in the cells are composed of two sister chromatids

108
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Match each pedigree with its most likely mode of inheritance.

Each pedigree has one match.

___Autosomal Dominant

____Autosomal Recessive

____Sex-linked Recessive

__1__Autosomal Dominant

__3__Autosomal Recessive

__2__Sex-linked Recessive

109
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Refer to the pedigree above to answer this question.

What is the genotype of individual I-1?

a) Hemizygous

b) Homozygous recessive

c) Heterozygous

d) Homozygous dominant

Heterozygous

110
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Refer to the pedigree above to answer this question.

What is the genotype of individual II-2?

a) Homozygous recessive

b) Homozygous dominant

c) Heterozygous

d) Either homozygous dominant or heterozygous

c) Heterozygous

111

During electron transport, these are pumped from the matrix to the intermembrane space

a) Protons (H+)

b) Electrons (e-)

c) Oxygen (O2)

d) Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Protons

112

In aerobic respiration, this is the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain

a) Protons (H+)

b) Electrons (e-)

c) Oxygen (O2)

d) Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Oxygen

113

These are passed down the electron transport chain

a) Protons (H+)

b) Electrons (e-)

c) Oxygen (O2)

d) Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Electrons

114

Two of these molecules are released during pyruvate processing and four are released during citric acid cycle

a) Protons (H+)

b) Electrons (e-)

c) Oxygen (O2)

d) Carbon dioxide (CO2)

CO2

115

These flow through ATP synthase to power the synthesis of ATP

a) Protons (H+)

b) Electrons (e-)

c) Oxygen (O2)

d) Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Protons

116

Which of the following is common to both aerobic cellular respiration and fermentation?

a) pyruvate processing

b) oxidative phosphorylation

c) citric acid cycle

d) electron transport

e) glycolysis

e) glycolysis

117

The electrons originally found in glucose are passed to the electron transport chain by

A) CO2

B) O2

C) ATP synthase

D) ATP

E) NADH and FADH2

E) NADH and FADH2

118

Which of the following is NOT found in the mitochondria?

a) cristae

b) the electron transport chains

c) ATP synthase

d) acetyl coA

e) enzymes for glycolysis

e) enzymes for glycolysis

119

In aerobic cellular respiration, most of the ATP is made

a) by oxidative phosphorylation

b) in the cytosol

c) in glycolysis

d) in the citric acid cycle

e) by substrate-level phosphorylation

a) by oxidative phosphorylation

120

composed of sheets of tightly packed cells; lines your body cavities and organs and covers the outside of your body

a) Homeostasis

b) Negative Feedback

c) Positive Feedback

d) Epithelial Tissue

e) Interstitial fluid

d) Epithelial Tissue

121

the fluid that fills the spaces between your cells

a) Homeostasis

b) Negative Feedback

c) Positive Feedback

d) Epithelial Tissue

e) Interstitial fluid

e) Interstitial fluid

122

a control mechanism that reduces a stimulus and allows an animal to maintain homeostasis

a) Homeostasis

b) Negative Feedback

c) Positive Feedback

d) Epithelial Tissue

e) Interstitial fluid

b) Negative Feedback

123

steady state; the maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment even when the external environment changes significantly

a) Homeostasis

b) Negative Feedback

c) Positive Feedback

d) Epithelial Tissue

e) Interstitial fluid

a) Homeostasis

124

a control mechanism that amplifies a stimulus and helps an animal drive a process to completion

a) Homeostasis

b) Negative Feedback

c) Positive Feedback

d) Epithelial Tissue

e) Interstitial fluid

c) Positive Feedback

125

___esophagus

___anus

____small intestine

____mouth (oral cavity)

____rectum

____stomach

____large intestine

__2__esophagus

__7__anus

__4__small intestine

__1__mouth (oral cavity)

__6__rectum

__3__stomach

__5__large intestine

126

finger-like projections of the inner surface of the small intestine

a) bile

b) bolus

c) chylomicrons

d) lacteal

e) microvilli

f) peristalsis

g) sphincter

h) villi

i) duodenum

villi

127

fats that enter the lymphatic system are incorporated into these water-soluble globules

a) bile

b) bolus

c) chylomicrons

d) lacteal

e) microvilli

f) peristalsis

g) sphincter

h) villi

i) duodenum

chylomicrons

128

alternating waves of contraction and relaxation in the smooth muscles lining the alimentary cana

a) bile

b) bolus

c) chylomicrons

d) lacteal

e) microvilli

f) peristalsis

g) sphincter

h) villi

i) duodenum

Peristalsis

129

muscular valve that can regulate the passage of materials between compartments of the alimentary canal

a) bile

b) bolus

c) chylomicrons

d) lacteal

e) microvilli

f) peristalsis

g) sphincter

h) villi

i) duodenum

Sphincter

130

the first 25 cm of small intestine

a) bile

b) bolus

c) chylomicrons

d) lacteal

e) microvilli

f) peristalsis

g) sphincter

h) villi

i) duodenum

duodenum

131

made in the liver, a mixture of substances that emulsifies lipids

a) bile

b) bolus

c) chylomicrons

d) lacteal

e) microvilli

f) peristalsis

g) sphincter

h) villi

i) duodenum

bile

132

a lubricated ball of chewed food

a) bile

b) bolus

c) chylomicrons

d) lacteal

e) microvilli

f) peristalsis

g) sphincter

h) villi

i) duodenum

bolus

133

many finger-like projections of the epithelial cells in the lumen of the small intestine (also known as brush border)

a) bile

b) bolus

c) chylomicrons

d) lacteal

e) microvilli

f) peristalsis

g) sphincter

h) villi

i) duodenum

microvilli

134

a vessel at the core of each villus; extension of the lymphatic system that picks up digested fats

a) bile

b) bolus

c) chylomicrons

d) lacteal

e) microvilli

f) peristalsis

g) sphincter

h) villi

i) duodenum

Lacteal

135

a digestive fluid containing pepsin and HCl, secreted by the stomach

a) chief cell

b) chyme

c) gastric gland

d) gastric juice

e) mucous cell

f) parietal cell

gastric juice

136

cell type found in the stomach lining; secretes pepsinogen

a) chief cell

b) chyme

c) gastric gland

d) gastric juice

e) mucous cell

f) parietal cell

chief cell

137

the mixture of ingested food and digestive juice (formed in stomach)

a) chief cell

b) chyme

c) gastric gland

d) gastric juice

e) mucous cell

f) parietal cell

chyme

138

cell type found in the stomach lining; secretes hydrochloric acid (HCl)

a) chief cell

b) chyme

c) gastric gland

d) gastric juice

e) mucous cell

f) parietal cell

parietal cell

139

foldings of stomach lining that contain three types of epithelial cells; each cell type secretes different components of gastric juice

a) chief cell

b) chyme

c) gastric gland

d) gastric juice

e) mucous cell

f) parietal cell

gastric gland

140

cell type found in the stomach lining; secretes protective mucous

a) chief cell

b) chyme

c) gastric gland

d) gastric juice

e) mucous cell

f) parietal cell

mucous cell

141

salivary amylase

a) Carbohydrates

b) Fats

c) Nucleic Acids

d) Proteins

a) Carbohydrates

142

pancreatic lipase

a) Carbohydrates

b) Fats

c) Nucleic Acids

d) Proteins

fats

143

pancreatic amylase

a) Carbohydrates

b) Fats

c) Nucleic Acids

d) Proteins

carbs

144

pancreatic nucleases

a) Carbohydrates

b) Fats

c) Nucleic Acids

d) Proteins

nucleic acids

145

pepsin

a) Carbohydrates

b) Fats

c) Nucleic Acids

d) Proteins

proteins

146

trypsin and chymotrypsin

a) Carbohydrates

b) Fats

c) Nucleic Acids

d) Proteins

porteins

147

Mitosis leads to the production of ___
meiosis leads to the production of ___

mitosis (somatic cells)
meiosis (gametes)

148

3 Functions of Mitosis

1) growth

2) repair/replacement

3) asexual reproduction

149

haploid

unpaired chromosomes

150

diploid

cell with paired chromosome

151

what is a chromosome??

structure carrying genetic material (genes) and NON CODING dna

152

G1 phase of mitosis

diploid cell 2n=4

cell growth/preparation

153

S phase

DNA synthesis

154

G2 phase

more growth

transcription/translation

centrosome form: microtubule organizing center

155

sister chromatids

replicated chromosome connected by cohesions

156

centromere

where sister chromatids attach

157

KINETOCHORE

protein structure where microtubules attach during mitosis

158

microtubules

made of tubulin subunits

159

result of meiosis 1

homogoulous chromosomes seperate

160

result of meiosis 2

sister chromatids separate

161

True/False

crossing over occurs between sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

False

non sister chromatids

162

3 ways meiosis creates genetic variation

1) synapsis/crossing over

2) alignment of homologous chromosomes

3) separation of homologous chromosomes/sister chromatids

163

anuepliodies

abnormal number of chromosomes

164

g1

g2

metaphase checkpoints..what do they ask>

g1: is cell big enough? is the DNA damaged?

g2: is DNA replication complete?

metaphase: are chromosomes attached to kinetochore Mts?

165

apoptosis

cell suicide pathway

166

how can a proto oncogene become a oncogene

1) translocation/transposition

2) gene amplification

3) point mutation (within control or gene itself)

167

Her2

membrane receptor proto oncogene, but when over expressed, cells grow way too fast

can be treated with targeted chemotherapy that blocks receptor (herception)

168

ABL

proto oncogene

when fused with BCR, genes are not expressed correctly which leads to cell preterition which leads to leukemia

169

BRCA1 &2

breast cancer susceptibility protein

-recognizes break in chromosome

-recruits repair enzymes

-if mutated, Damged DNA still goes through mitosis

-increased risk of breast/ovarian cancer if mutated

170

p53

master watchman

if DNA is damaged, p53 will become activated and either repair DNA or kill cell (apoptosis)

if mutated, damaged DNA/cells will go through mitosis and lead to colon, breast, lung, and other cancers

171

how can tumor suppressors become inactivated?

1) point mutation

2) viruses EX) HPV -> E6 protein binds to p53 -> p53 degrades

3) Epigenetic silencing EX) hypermethylation -> sciences gene expression

172

RNAi (RNA inhibition)

gets rid of telomerase in cancerous cells

-antisense mRNA binds to telomerase, which cannot be translated --> no telomerase

173

NAH+ & FAD vs NADH & FADH2

NAH/FAD -> ready for electrons

NADH/FADH2 -> already have electrons

174

True/False

Prokaryotes carry out cellular respiration

true

175

why do NADH make more ATP?

they use all 3 proton pumps

NADH 2.5 ATP

FADH 1.5 ATP

176

ATP made in...

Gylcolosis

Pyruvate

Citric Acid Cycle

Oxidative Phosphorylation

TOTAL ATP???

G- 2 ATP

P- 2 ATP

CAC- 2 ATP

OP- 26-28

TOTAL: 30-32 ATP

177

where are things aborbed to in the small intestine?

Fats, sugars, carbs??

fats- lacteals

everything else- bloodstream

178

Which of the following is correct about your epithelial tissue?

Select all correct choices.

(See the first panel of Figure 40.5)

it can function as a barrier and/or form an active interface with the environment

it is composed of sheets of tightly packed cells

it lines your body cavities and organs, such as those of the alimentary canal

it is the fluid that fills the spaces between your cells

its cells contain actin and myosin which allow the cells to contract

it covers the outside of your body

it consists of a sparse population of cells scattered within an extracellular matrix

it can function as a barrier and/or form an active interface with the environment

it is composed of sheets of tightly packed cells

it lines your body cavities and organs, such as those of the alimentary canal

it covers the outside of your body

179

Which of the following is TRUE about mechanical digestion?

Select all correct choices.

it occurs in accessory organs - the gall bladder, pancreas and liver

it increases the surface area available for hydrolytic enzymes to chemically digest food

it occurs in your mouth when you chew your food

it breaks food into smaller pieces

it increases the surface area available for hydrolytic enzymes to chemically digest food

it occurs in your mouth when you chew your food

it breaks food into smaller pieces

180

pancreatic amylase production

a) stomach

b) small intestine

c) pancreas

d) salivary gland

pancreas

181

salivary amylase production

a) stomach

b) small intestine

c) pancreas

d) salivary gland

salivary gland lmao

182

pancreatic lipase production

a) stomach

b) small intestine

c) pancreas

d) salivary gland

pancreas

183

trypsinogen and chymotrypsinogen production

a) stomach

b) small intestine

c) pancreas

d) salivary gland

pancreas

184

pancreatic nucleases production

a) stomach

b) small intestine

c) pancreas

d) salivary gland

pancreas

185

pepsinogen/pepsin production

a) stomach

b) small intestine

c) pancreas

d) salivary gland

stomach

186

salivary amylase activation

a) mouth

b) stomach

c) small intestine

d) pancreas

mouth

187

pancreatic amylase activation

a) mouth

b) stomach

c) small intestine

d) pancreas

small intestine

188

trypsin and chymotrypsin activation

a) mouth

b) stomach

c) small intestine

d) pancreas

small intestine

189

pancreatic nucleases activation

a) mouth

b) stomach

c) small intestine

d) pancreas

small intestine

190

pepsin activation

a) mouth

b) stomach

c) small intestine

d) pancreas

stomach

191

pancreatic lipase actiVATION

a) mouth

b) stomach

c) small intestine

d) pancreas

small intestine

192

Which of the following is/are accurate about pepsin, typsin, and chymotrypsin?

Select all correct choices.

they are all produced in the stomach - pepsin is produced by parietal cells, trypsin and chymotrypsin are produced by chief cells

pepsin activates trypsin, and trypsin activates chymotrypsin

they are all made/secreted as inactive precursors

they all function optimally at pH = 2

they are all proteases

they are all proteases

they are all made/secreted as inactive precursors

193
card image

Refer to the figure above to answer this question. The agent that emulsifies fats (bile) is produced in _______ and is stored in ______.

B; C

C; E

E; E

B; E

D;E

D;C

B; C

194
card image

Refer to the figure above to answer this question. Where does most nutrient absorption occur?

E

A and I

F

A

I

E

195
card image

Refer to the figure above to answer this question. The major function of this organ is to recover/reabsorb water and it has a rich microbiome.

F

B

I

E

A

F

196

What are mcrovilli and what do they do?

a) ducts that connect the pancreas and the small intestine allowing for movement of digestive enzymes between the organs

b) extentions of the lymph system that pick up digested fats

c) the terminal sacs of the lungs where gas exchange occurs

d) microscopic extensions of epithelial cells lining the small intestine that increase surface area for absorption; they face the intestinal lumen and are collectively referred to as the brush border

e) folds in the stomach that allow the stomach to expand

f) finger-shaped projections of the small intestine lining; they are composed of many epithelial cells and each is supplied with blood vessels and a lacteal

d) microscopic extensions of epithelial cells lining the small intestine that increase surface area for absorption; they face the intestinal lumen and are collectively referred to as the brush border

197

In non-diabetic humans, what happens when blood sugar levels rise above homeostatic levels?

a) beta cells of the pancreas release insulin

b) glycogen is broken down and glucose is released from liver cells

c) leptin release is inhibited, telling us to eat less

d) glucagon is released by alpha cells of the pancreas

b) glycogen is broken down and glucose is released from liver cells

198

Gills, tracheoles, and lungs are all respiratory surfaces found in complex animals. Which of the following do ALL of these respiratory surfaces have in common?

Select all correct choices.

they are all infoldings of the body surface, branching throughout the animal's body

they all have a large surface area for exchange

they are all composed of living cells

they are all moist

they are all in direct contact with blood vessels

they all have a large surface area for exchange

they are all composed of living cells

they are all moist

199

Crayfish

a) Entire body surface

b) Gills

c) Lungs with alveoli

d) Lungs with parabronchi

e) Tracheal System

b) Gills

200

Shark

a) Entire body surface

b) Gills

c) Lungs with alveoli

d) Lungs with parabronchi

e) Tracheal System

gills

201

Human

a) Entire body surface

b) Gills

c) Lungs with alveoli

d) Lungs with parabronchi

e) Tracheal System

c) Lungs with alveoli

202

EarthWorm

a) Entire body surface

b) Gills

c) Lungs with alveoli

d) Lungs with parabronchi

e) Tracheal System

a) Entire body surface

203

Swan

a) Entire body surface

b) Gills

c) Lungs with alveoli

d) Lungs with parabronchi

e) Tracheal System

d) Lungs with parabronchi

204

Mosquito

a) Entire body surface

b) Gills

c) Lungs with alveoli

d) Lungs with parabronchi

e) Tracheal System

Tracheal System

205

Rabbit

a) Entire body surface

b) Gills

c) Lungs with alveoli

d) Lungs with parabronchi

e) Tracheal System

c) Lungs with alveoli

206

Countercurrent exchange in fish gills

a) causes water to move faster over the gills

b) means that blood and water will flow through the gill arches at different rates

c) maintains an oxygen gradient that enhances diffusion, allowing for most of the oxygen in the water that passes over gills to be removed

d) allows a fish to live in anaerobic conditions

e) enables a fish to obtain oxygen without ventilation

c) maintains an oxygen gradient that enhances diffusion, allowing for most of the oxygen in the water that passes over gills to be removed

207

Which of the following is ACCURATE about negative pressure breathing?

a) it is the mechanism by which amphibians breathe

b) it involves a relaxation of the diaphragm muscle to actively push air into all cells of the body

c) in birds, it is the contraction of posterior air sacs

d) in mammals, it is using muscle contraction to expand the chest cavity to pull air into the lungs

e) it is the exchange of a substance, like air, between two fluids flowing in opposite directions

d) in mammals, it is using muscle contraction to expand the chest cavity to pull air into the lungs

208

Take a deep breath. Which of the following is happening at your alveolar surface?

a) CO2 is moving down its pressure gradient, out of your alveoli and into your bloodstream

b) chylomicrons are moving into the lymph system

synapsis

c) O2 is moving down its pressure gradient; out of your alveoli, into your bloodstream

d) O2 is moving from your bloodstream to your alveoli, against its pressure gradient

c) O2 is moving down its pressure gradient; out of your alveoli, into your bloodstream

209

Which of the following is/are accurate about respiration in birds? Select all correct choices.

they have air sacs that help keep air flowing through the lungs

they exchange gas in their lungs, across tiny tubes called parabronchi

incoming fresh air throroughly mixes with outgoing deoxygenated air

they use a countercurrent exchange system

they pass air over their gas exchange surface in only one direction

they have air sacs that help keep air flowing through the lungs

they exchange gas in their lungs, across tiny tubes called parabronchi

they pass air over their gas exchange surface in only one direction

210

Based on the information in the sleep video shown in class, lack of sleep may cause which of the following in humans?

Select all correct choices.

abnormal regulation of blood sugar levels (pre-diabetic state)

decrease in leptin secretion

increase in leptin secretion

weight gain

weight loss

abnormal regulation of blood sugar levels (pre-diabetic state)

decrease in leptin secretion

weight gain

weight loss

211

bigger fat cells secrete more leptin, which in turn, suppresses appetite

a) Positive feedback

b) Negative feedback

Negative

212

production of pepsin from its precursor, pepsinogen

a) Positive feedback

b) Negative feedback

postive

213

amplifies a stimulus or physiological change

a) Positive feedback

b) Negative feedback

positive

214

dampens a stimulus or physiological change

a) Positive feedback

b) Negative feedback

negative

215

maintains homeostasis

a) Positive feedback

b) Negative feedback

negative

216

A region of DNA has a number of genes that are heavily transcribed (expressed). This region of DNA is likely to be composed of

a) euchromatin

b) hyper-methylated DNA

c) Barr bodies

d) heterochromatin

a) euchromatin

217

Females are XX and males are XY, yet females are unaffected by that extra dosage of genes on the X chromosome. Why?

a) the X chromosome is very small compared to the Y chromosome and contains very few genes compared to the Y chromosome

b) all choices given are correct

c) the X chromosome determines sex only, it has no genes for any other traits

d) one X chromosome(s) are inactivated in every somatic cell

d) one X chromosome(s) are inactivated in every somatic cell

218

The figure above is a karyotype of a warthog. A warthog cell undergoes meiosis. At the conclusion of meiosis I

a) there are four haploid cells; each cell has 17 chromosomes

b) there are two diploid cells; each cell has 17 chromosomes that are composed of two sister chromatids

c) there are two haploid cells; each cell has 17 chromosomes that are composed of two sister chromatids

d) there are two diploid cells; each is identical to each other and to the parent cell

e) there are two diploid cells; each cell has 34 homologous chromosomes

f) there are two haploid cells; each cells has 34 chromosomes that are composed of two sister chromatids

g) there are four haploid cells; each is identical to each other and to the parent cell

c) there are two haploid cells; each cell has 17 chromosomes that are composed of two sister chromatids

219

Put the mechanisms of carbon dioxide transport in order from MOST common to least common.

____bicarbonate

____bound to hemoglobin

____CO2 gas dissolved in plasma

__1__bicarbonate

__2__bound to hemoglobin

__3__CO2 gas dissolved in plasma

220

Which of the following is accurate about oxygen transport in our blood?

Select all correct choices.

oxygen is unloaded from hemoglobin in the systemic circuit

the blood entering the lungs is deoxygenated

oxygen is loaded onto hemoglobin at the alveolar surface

four oxygen molecules can bind to each hemoglobin molecule

oxygen moves down its pressure gradient - out of actively metabolizing cells into the blood, blood is then returned to the lungs

oxygen binds to hemoglobin cooperatively

oxygen binds to hemoglobin irreversibly

oxygen is unloaded from hemoglobin in the systemic circuit

the blood entering the lungs is deoxygenated

oxygen is loaded onto hemoglobin at the alveolar surface

four oxygen molecules can bind to each hemoglobin molec

oxygen binds to hemoglobin cooperatively

221

mammals

a) Closed circulatory system

b) Open circulatory system

c) Both closed and open circulatory systems

closed

222

muscular pump (heart)

a) Closed circulatory system

b) Open circulatory system

c) Both closed and open circulatory systems

both

223

vessels

a) Closed circulatory system

b) Open circulatory system

c) Both closed and open circulatory systems

both

224

insects

a) Closed circulatory system

b) Open circulatory system

c) Both closed and open circulatory systems

open

225

blood

a) Closed circulatory system

b) Open circulatory system

c) Both closed and open circulatory systems

closed

226

interstitial fluid

a) Closed circulatory system

b) Open circulatory system

c) Both closed and open circulatory systems

closed

227

hemolymph

a) Closed circulatory system

b) Open circulatory system

c) Both closed and open circulatory systems

open

228

Circulatory systems compensate for ________.

a) the problem of communication systems involving only hormones

b) the need to cushion animals from trauma

c) temperature differences between lungs and active tissue

d) the slow rate at which diffusion occurs over long distances

) the slow rate at which diffusion occurs over long distances

229

Which of the following represents the correct flow of air into the lung of a mammal?

trachea -> tracheoles --> bronchi --> alveoli

trachea --> bronchioles --> bronchi --> alveoli

alveoli --> traceoles --> bronchi --> trachea

trachea --> air sac --> parabronchus

trachea --> bronchi --> bronchioles --> alveoli

trachea --> bronchi --> bronchioles --> alveoli

230

Countercurrent exchange is evident in the flow of ____

a) water across the gills of a fish and the blood within those gills

b) blood in the dorsal vessel of an insect and that of air within its tracheae

c) water across the skin of a frog and the blood flow within a chamber of its heart

d) air within the primary bronchi of a human and the blood within the pulmonary vein

a) water across the gills of a fish and the blood within those gills

231

During aerobic exercise, the partial pressure of oxygen in muscle cells will _____, the rate of diffusion of oxygen into the muscle tissue from the blood will _____

decrease; decrease

decrease; increase

not change; also not change

increase; decrease

decrease; increase

232

In mammalian lungs, where does gas exchange occur?

a) alveoli

b) bronchi

c) bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

d) parabronchi

e) bronchioles

a) alveoli

233

Compared with the interstitial fluid that bathes active muscle cells, blood reaching these cells in arterioles (small arteries)/capillaries has a

higher PO2

higher PCO2

higher PO2

234

Nondisjunction

failing to separate during mitosis/meiosis

235

true/false

when gene is tightly packed, it is expressed

false

236

anaerobic respiration

all ATP made at substrate level phosphorylation

237

Locations of

glycolysis

pyruvate processing

citric acid cycle

oxidative phosphorylation

glycolysis- cytosol

pyruvate processing-

citric acid cycle-matrix

oxidative phosphorylation - inner microbial space/ cristae

238

Net gain in glycolysis

co2-

nadh-2

Atp- 2

239

net gain in pyruvate processing

Co2 2

NADH 2
ATP

240

Net gain in Cytric Acid Cycle

Co2 4

NADH 6
ATP 2

FADH2 2

241

HCL and Pepsin function

Hal kills bacteria

pepsin breaks down proteins

242

parietal cells

release H+ and Cl- into gastric gland space to create HCl

243

chief cells

secretes pepsinogen into gastric gland space once Hal is activated, which becomes pepsin

244

what do pancreatic enzymes break down

carbs

245

what do pancreatic proteases break down

proteins

246

what do pancreatic nucleases break down

nucleic acids

247

what do pancreatic lipase break down

lipids (fats)

248

bile

emulsifies fat

249

what molecules go into the lacteals of the villi?

fats ONLY

250

why is gas exchange harder to do in water?

1) less o2 available (30%)

2) water is more dense (harder to diffuse)

3) takes more energy to move through water

251

pressure of O2 in blood is always ____ than the pressure in the water, allowing for diffusion to occur

lower

252

negative pressure breathing

using muscle contraction to expand the chest cavity to pull air into the lungs

253

what happens when you inhale?

diaphragm contracts (moves down)

volume of ribs increases, so pressure DECREASES, allowing air to come into the lungs

254

what happens when you exhale?

diaphragm relaxes, moves up

volume of ribs decreases, causing pressure to INCREASe,

255

Residual volume

always some dead air

even when we exhale, mixed air

256

Rank 3 airways in efficiency

1) counter current

2) cross current

3) tidal current

257

why are monosomic aneupiodes worse?

1) upset overall gene composition

2) allows any recessive dangerous allele to be homozygous (expressed)

258

nondisjunction from anaphase 1 vs 2

1- (///) (///) (/) (/)

2- (//) (//) (/) (///)

259

what is the most common syndrome?

down syndrome

260

Tysomy 18

Edwards Syndrome

half fetuses die

underwieght

low IQ

cleft foot

heart disease

261

Trisomy 13 Patau Syndrome

most fetuses don't survive

cleft face

scalp lesions

CND defect

low IQ

extra pinky

262

why are sex chromosome aneuplodies better than autosomal?

-x chromosomes can be eliminated

263

Klinefelter Syndrome

males with extra X chromosome

XXY

small testes/little testosterone

-more feminine features

264

how many barr bodies do those with Klinefelter Syndrome have???

ONE

265

XYY Syndrome

not sure if we should call it a syndrome, because they are no phenotypic defects

- a little taller

male with extra Y

XYY

more likely to be criminal....extra testosterone

266

Triple X Syndrome

XXX female

taller but pretty much normal physcially

emotional/behavioral/phsycial defects

267

how many barr bodies do women with triple X syndrome have???

TWO

268

Turner Syndrome

female with only one x chromosome

X

short

ovarian failure

no puberty

normal intelligence

269

how many barr bodies do females with turner syndrome have?

NONE

270

Cri Du Chat Syndrom

Crying cat syndrome

part of chromosome 5 missing

intellectual disabilities and delayed development

271

Screening testing

not definite

no risks

EX) ultra sounds, blood tests

272

Diagnostic tests

only way to know for sure

273

CVS test

generates karyotype

invasive

risks

274

Quad Screen

4 blood samples taken from placenta

275

Nuchal Fold

harmless ultra sound that looks into the transparency of the fetus neck to see if there are any abnormalities