Chapter 12 Biliary Tract and Upper Gastrointestinal System Flashcards

1. What is the average weight of the adult human liver?

2. Which abdominal quadrant contains the gallbladder?

3. What is the name of the soft tissue structure that separates the right from the left lobe of the liver?

4. Which lobe of the liver is larger, the right or the left?

5. List the other two lobes of the liver (in addition to right or the left)?

6. True or False: the liver performs more than 100 functions?

7. True or False: The average healthy adult liver produces 1 gallon, or 3000 to 4000 mL, of bile per day.

8. List the three primary functions of the gallbladder?

9. True or False: Concentrated levels of cholesterol in bile may lead to gallstones?

10. What is a common site for impaction, or lodging, of gallstones?

11. True or False: In about 40% of individuals, the end of the common bile duct and the end of the pancreatic duct are totally separated into two ducts rather than combining into one single passageway into the duodenum?

12. True or False: An older term for the main pancreatic duct is the duct of Vater.

13. The gallbladder is located more (posteriorly or anteriorly) within the abdomen?

14. Which imaging modality produces cholescintigraphy?

15. True or False: Acute cholecystitis may produce a thickened gallbladder wall?

16. Cholelithiasis

17. Cholecystitis

18. Biliary stenosis

19. Cholecystectomy

20. Neoplasm

21. Choledocholithiasis

22. List the seven main components of the alimentary canal

23. List the four accessory organs of digestion

24. The three primary functions of the digestive system

25. What two terms refer to a radiographic examination of the pharynx and esophagus?

26. Which terms describes the radiographic study of the distal esophagus, stomach, and duodenum?

27. Which three pairs of salivary glands are accessory organs of digestion associated with the mouth?

28. The act of swallowing is called?

29. List the three divisions of the pharynx

30. What structures create the two indentations seen along the lateral border of the esophagus?

31. List the three structures that pass through the diaphragm

32. What part of the upper GI tract is a common site for the ulcer disease?

33. What term describes the junction between the duodenum and jejunum?

34. The C-loop of the duodenum and pancreas are (intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal) structures.

35. The three main subdivisions of the stomach are?

36. Another term for mucosal folds of the stomach is?

37. True or False: Mechanical digestion includes movement of the entire gastrointestinal tract?

38. Peristaltic activity is not found in which of the following structures ( Pharynx, Esophagus, Stomach, Small Intestine)?

39. Stomach contents are churned into a semifluid mass called?

40. A churning or mixing activity present in the small bowl is called?

41. List the three classes of substances that ingested and must be chemically digested.

42. Biologic catalysts that speed up the process of digestion are called?

43. List the end products of digestion for the following classes of food carbohydrates (carbohydrates, lipids, proteins)

44. What is the name of the liquid substance that aids in digestion and is manufactured in the liver and stored in the gallbladder?

45. How does bile assist in emulsification in fat?

46. Absorption of nutrients primarily takes place in the ____________, although some substances are absorbed through the lining of the ___________.

47. Any residues of digestion or unabsorbed digestive products are eliminated from the ________ as a component of feces.

48. Peristalsis is an example of which type of digestion.

49. Which term describes food once it is mixed with gastric secretions in the stomach?

50. A high and transverse stomach would be found in a (hypersthenic, sthenic, hyposthenic, asthenic)

51. A J-shaped stomach that is more vertical and lower in the abdomen with the duodenal bulb at the level of L3-L4 would be found in a(n) (hyperstenic, sthenic, hyposthenic/asthenic or none of the above)

52. On the average, how much will abdominal organs drop in the erect position?

53. Name the two abdominal organs most dramatically affected, in relation to location, by body habitus?

54. Would the fundus of the stomach be more superior or more inferior when one takes in a deep breath? Why?

55. Type of mechanical digestion and/or movement that occur in oral cavity

56. Type of mechanical digestion and/or movement that occur in pharynx

57. Type of mechanical digestion and/or movement that occur in Esophagus

58. Type of mechanical digestion and/or movement that occur in stomach

59. Type of mechanical digestion and/or movement that occur in the small intestine

60. True or False: With the use of digital fluoroscopy, the number of postfluoroscopy radiographs ordered has greatly diminished.

61. Another term for a negative contrast medium is ____

62. What substance is most commonly ingested to produce carbon dioxide gas as a negative contrast medium for gastrointestinal system?

63. Is a mixture of barium sulfate a suspension or a solution?

64. True or False: Barium sulfate never dissolves is water.

65. True or False: Certian salts of barium are poisonous to humans, so barium contrast studies require a pure sulfate salt of barium for human consumption during GI studies.

66. What is the ratio of water to barium for a thin mixture of barium sulfate

67. What is the chemical symbol for barium sulfate?

68. When is the use of barium sulfate contraindicated?

71. What patient condition prevents the use of a water-soluble contrast medium for an upper GI?

72. What is the major advantage for using a double-contrast medium technique for esophagrams and upper GI?

73. The speed with which barium sulfate passes through the GI tract is called gastric

74. What is the purpose of the gas with a double-contrast media technique

75. Which of the following devices on a digital fluoroscopy system converts the analog into a digital signal (PACS, Light converter, CCD, OTS)

76. What device (found beneath the radiographic table when correctly positioned) greatly reduces exposure to the technologist from the fluoroscopic x-ray tube?

77. How is the bucky slot shield activated or placed in its correct position for fluoroscopy?

78. What is the minimum level of protective apron worn during fluoroscopy?

79. What is the major benefit of using a compression paddle during an upper GI study?

80. List the three cardinal principles of radiation protection.

81. Which one of the three cardinal principles is most effective in reducing exposure to the technologist during a fluoroscopic procedure?

82. Which capability on most digital fluoroscopy systems demonstrates dynamic flow of contrast media through the GI Tract.

83. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: Difficulty in swallowing

84. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: Replacement of normal squamous epithelium with columnar epithelium

85. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: May lead to esophagitis

86. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: Large outpouching of the esophagus?

87. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: also called cardiospasm

88. What is the correct pathological condition for the esophagram: most common form is adenocarcinoma

89. What pathology for upper GI series is: Blood in vomit

90. What pathology for upper GI series is: inflammation of lining of stomach

91. What pathology for upper GI series is: blind outpouching of the mucosal wall

92. What pathology for upper GI series is: undigested material trapped in stomach

93. What pathology for upper GI series is: synonymous with gastric or duodenal ulcer

94. What pathology for upper GI series is: portion of stomach protruding through the diaphragmatic opening

95. What pathology for upper GI series is: only 5% of ulcers lead to this condition

96. What pathology for upper GI series is: Double - contrast upper GI is recommended for this type of tumor

97. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Its presence indicates a possible sliding hiatal hernia

98. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Speckled appearance of gastric mucus

99. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: "wormlike" appearance of esophagus

100. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Stricture of esophagus

101. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Gastric bubble above diaphragm

102. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Irregular filling defect within stomach

103. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: Enlarged recess in proximal esophagus

104. Radiographic appearance of the following conditions: "Lucent-halo" sign during upper GI

105. Which procedure is often performed to detect early signs of GERD

106. Which specific structure of the gastrointestinal system is affected by HPS

107.Which imaging modality is most effective in diagnosing HPS while reducing dose to the patient?

108. What does the acronym NPO stand for and what does it mean

109. True or False: The patient must be NPO 4-6 hours before an esophagram

110. True or False: The esophagogram usually begins with fluoroscopy with the patient in the erect position

111. What materials may be used for swallowing to aid in the diagnosis of radiolucent foreign bodies in the esophagus?

112. A breathing technique in which the patient takes in a deep breath and bears down is called the _____?

113. What position is the patient usually placed in during the water test?

114. Which region of the GI tract is better visualized when the radiologist uses a compression paddle during an esopagram

115. What type of contrast medium should be used if the patient has a history of bowl perforation?

116. What is the minimum amount of time that the patient should be NPO before an upper GI

117. True or False: The body of the stomach curves inferiorly and posteriorly from the fundus

118. What is the most common form of positive contrast medium used for studies of the gastrointestinal system