Chapter 18

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1

Which of the following describes Type I immediate hypersensitivity?

(a) After initial sensitization to antigen, subsequent exposure to the sensitizing antigen results in formation of antigen-IgG antibody complexes deposit in tissues where they activate complement.

(b) Specific antibodies react with host cell surface antigens interpreted as foreign by the immune system, leading to phagocytosis, killer cell activity, or complement-mediated lysis. Typical sources of such antigens come from mismatched blood transfusions or Rh incompatibility between infant and mother.

(c) This reaction is delayed and mediated by sensitized TH1 cells that release cytokines responsible for hypersensitivity reaction.

(d) Sensitization to allergen causes B cell activation resulting in production of anti-allergen IgE antibodies that attach to mast cells and basophils. Subsequent exposure to that allergen causes cross-linking of IgE antibodies resulting in deregulation of chemicals that induce allergic responses.

(e) Both a and c.

(d)

2

Which of the following bind to mast cells and cross-link, resulting in degranulation and release of histamine?

(a) IgM

(b) IgA

(c) IgG

(d) Interleukins

(e) IgE

(e)

3

Desensitization to prevent a type I allergic response is accomplished by stimulating the body to make:

(a) IgE antibodies and antigen presenting cells

(b) Antigen (allergen)

(c) Histamine

(d) IgG antibodies and regulatory T cells

(e) Antihistamine

(a)

4

A transfusion reaction ending in red blood cell hemolysis is due to an infusion of donor red cells carrying:

(a) Arthus reaction antigens

(b) Mismatched or different blood type antigen(s)

(c) Processed T cell antigens

(d) All of the above

(e) None of the above

(b)

5

An individual who got stung by a bee exhibited airway construction and an abrupt drop in blood pressure. Such an individual would have which of the following?

(a) Immune complex hypersensitivity

(b) Antigenic mimicry

(c) Generalized anaphylaxis

(d) Atopy

(e) Arthus reaction

(c)

6

Production of autoantibodies may be due to:

(a) Emergence of mutant clones of B cells

(b) Production of antibodies against sequestered (hidden) tissues

(c) Genetic factors

(d) All are possible

(e) None of these

(d)

7

Granulomatous lesions:

(a) Are typical of Type III hypersensitivity

(b) Occur within minutes after ingestion of an allergen

(c) Are part of the asthmatic response

(d) Consist of macrophages and helper T cells

(e) All of the above

(d)

8

Which of the following is NOT an example of Type IV cell-mediated hypersensitivity disorder?

(a) Anaphylactic shock

(b) Contact dermatitis

(c) Tuberculin hypersensitivity

(d) Granulomatous hypersensitivity

(e) Listeriosis

(a)

9

One of the difficulties in identification of ideal donors for organ transplantation is the great number of ______ of each _____ gene.

(a) Alleles/HLA

(b) Specificities/antibody

(c) epitopes/MHC

(d) Antigens/foreign

(a)

10

Major histocompatibility antigens (MHCs) are called human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) in humans and are a main cause of transplant rejection.

(a) True

(b) False

(a)

11

Graft-versus-host disease results when the recipient lacks or has a poor immune system, and the donor organ and recipient express different:

(a) HLA

(b) T cells

(c) Antibodies

(d) Autoantibodies

(e) Interleukins

(a)

12

Immunosuppression is a lowering of the responsiveness of the immune system to materials it recognizes as foreign and is produced by ____ and _____.

(a) Antibodies and foreign antigens

(b) NK cells and allergen desensitizers

(c) Radiation and cytotoxic drugs

(d) Hypersensitivity and transplant rejection

(e) a and d

(c)

13

Primary immunodeficiency diseases are caused by genetic defects in embryological development of lymphoid tissue resulting in a lack of T cells or B cells, or defective T and B cells. Which of the following diseases is a primary immunodeficiency disease?

(a) DiGeorge syndrome

(b) Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)

(c) Agammaglobulinemia

(d) All of the above

(e) None of the above

(d)

14

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) binds specifically to which immune cell marker?

(a) CD8

(b) MHC

(c) CDC

(d) CD4

(e) GP120

(d)

15

A person with AIDS will probably:

(a) Not make antibody

(b) Make a response to T-dependent antigens

(c) Make antibody to T-independent antigens

(d) Have large numbers of T-helper cells

(e) None of the above

(c)

16

HIV has a high mutation rate due to the imprecise operation of its:

(a) Viral membrane

(b) CD4 receptor

(c) Reverse transcriptase

(d) Protease

(e) Dismutase

(c)

17

Pregnancy tests detect the presence of which of the following?

(a) Rh

(b) Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

(c) Fetal proteins

(d) Agglutination

(e) Depuration factor

(b)

18

Which of the following assays or devices depend on easily detectable "tagged" antibodies?

(a) Fluorescence-activated cell sorter (FACS)

(b) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

(c) Radioimmunoassay (RIA)

(d) Western blot

(e) All of the above

(e)

19

Transplant rejection involves:

(a) Cell-mediated immunity

(b) Humoral immunity

(c) T helper cells

(d) B cells

(e) Macrophages

(f) All of the above

(f)

20

A transplant between individuals of different animal species is termed a (n):

(a) Allograft

(b) Isograft

(c) Enterograft

(d) Endograft

(e) Xenograft

(e)

21

Progression from early-stage HIV disease to AIDS can be expected within a few months:

(a) In nearly all untreated patients

(b) If symptoms of diarrhea and fever are present

(c) When the helper T cell count drops to less than 100 per ul of blood

(d) When the level of virus in the bloodstream begins to rise

(c)