Practice Exam

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1

With all other exposure factors remaining the same, which of the following field sizes will result in a radiograph with the highest contrast?

A. 20 cm x 24 cm

B. 24 cm x 30 cm

C. 28 cm x 35 cm

D. 35 cm x 43 cm

20 cm x 24 cm

2

Which of the following positions/projections requires the foot to be vertical and the x-ray tube angled 40 degrees cephalad?

A. Axial projection of the knee B. Axiolateral position of the hip C. Plantodorsal projection of the calcaneus (os calcis) D. Dorsoplantar projection of the foot

Plantodorsal projection of the calcaneus (os calcis)

3

What caused the problem demonstrated on this radiograph?

A. Off center grid-cutoff B. A focused grid in backwards C. Insufficient development D. Safelight fog

A focused grid in backwards

4

Which of the following determines the maximum spatial resolution of a flat panel detector?

A. Detector element size (DEL) B. Laser frequency C. Image receptor size D. Quantum mottle

Detector element size

5

Why was the genetically significant dose (GSD) statistic developed? To estimate.....

A. what it takes to produce a mutation. B. what it takes to sterilize a person. C. the radiation dose to the general population. D. the radiation dose to the population gene pool.

The radiation dose to the general population

6

Which of the following bones is the longest?

A. 1st metacarpal B. 2nd metacarpal C. Ulna D. Radius

Ulna

7

This radiograph shows a common artifact circled in red. What caused this artifact?

A. Finger nail B. Radiation leak C. Excessive heat D. Bending the film before or after exposure

Bending the film before or after exposure

8

Which of the following is a relationship between x-ray beam intensity and distance?

A. Faraday's law B. Planck's radiation law C. Inverse square law D. Quantum physics

inverse square law

9

According to the Code of Federal Regulations Title 21 (21 CFR), portable c-arm fluoroscopic systems manufactured after June 10, 2006 and having a maximum SID of less than 45 cm shall be labeled:

A. radioactive. B. for extremity use only. C. caution, short SID. D. maximum SSD required.

for extremity use only

10

The concept that radiation exposure should be kept "as low as reasonably achievable" defines which of the following?

A. The genetically significant dose B. The maximum permissible dose C. The ALARA principle D. The clinical exposure principle

The alara principle

11

Federal regulations for stationary fluoroscopy state that the target-to-tabletop distance should NOT be less than how many inches?

A. 6" B. 15" C. 18" D. 24"

15''

12

What is the effective dose limit for a non-radiation worker?

A. 2.5 mSv (.25 rem)/year B. 5.0 mSv (.5 rem)/year C. 12 mSv (1.2 rem)/year D. 25 mSv (2.5 rem)/year

5.0 mSv (.5 rem)/year

13

A small bowel series continues until barium reaches which of the following areas?

A. Ileum B. Ileocecal valve C. Right colic flexure D. Mitral valve

Ileocecal valve

14

Which of the following techniques will produce a film-screen radiograph with the shortest scale of contrast?

A. 25 mAs, 70 kVp, 5:1 grid B. 50 mAs, 60 kVp, 8:1 grid C. 50 mAs, 70 kVp, 8:1 grid D. 100 mAs, 60 kVp, 5:1 grid

50 mAs, 60 kVp, 8:1 grid

15

Which of the following is the correct order for acquiring the latent image from the CR imaging plate?

1. Fiber optic collecting system
2. Laser stimulated photostimulable luminescence
3. Analog-to-digital converter (ADC)
A. 1, 2, 3 B. 2, 3, 1 C. 2, 1, 3 D. 3, 2, 1

2,1,3

16

Which of the following are the units for measuring the spatial resolution of a digital image?

A. Line pairs per millimeter B. Lines per inch C. Rows x columns D. Candelas per meter

Lines per millimeter

17

An AP axial projection of the rectosigmoid segment of the large intestine requires the central ray to be angled:

A. 10 - 20 degrees caudad. B. 10 - 20 degrees cephalad. C. 30 - 40 degrees caudad. D. 30 - 40 degrees cephalad.

30-40 degrees cephalad

18

If you go from a Bucky technique (12:1 ratio grid) to a table-top technique (non-grid), how many times less radiation will be necessary?

A. 2X B. 3X C. 4X D. 5X

5X

19

When checking the safety of protective leaded apparel with a calibrated test object on a cassette, which of the following is correct?

A. The test object is lighter than the apron. B. The test object is darker than the apron. C. The test object should not be visualized. D. The apron should not be visualized.

The test object is darker than the apron

20

When using a 25/17/12 image intensifier tube, which of the following is true?

A. Resolution is best in the 25 cm mode B. The field of view is largest in the 25 cm mode C. Resolution is best in the 17 cm mode D. There are three different input phosphors

The field of view is largest in the 25 cm mode

21

Which of the following materials would best educate a child about his/her radiologic examination?

A. Instructional videos B. Printed educational materials C. Activity book with cartoon-like drawings D. Pamphlets

Activity book with cartoon-like drawings

22

The transthoracic projection may be used for which of the following radiographic examinations?

A. Lateral scapula B. Below the diaphragm ribs C. Lateral humerus D. AP sternum

Lateral humerus

23

What is the name of the spinal fixation devices used to correct scoliosis?

A. Harrington rods B. Intermedullary nails C. Vertebral brackets D. Moyer fasteners

Harrington Rods

24

Turning off the monitor and observing any areas of glare on the monitor's surface is a simple way to evaluate:

A. Ambient light B. Speckling C. After glow D. Noise

Ambient Light

25

The American Heart Association's guidelines for CPR emphasizes at least _______ chest compressions per minute.

A. 25 B. 50 C. 100 D. 200

100

26

A slight RAO position is used to project the sternum to the left of the thoracic vertebrae in order to take advantage of which of the following?

A. The heart shadow B. The hilum C. The larger left lung D. The pulmonary vessels

The heart shadow

27

Which of the following is a component of a CR reader?

A. Laser B. Light collecting system C. Analog-to-digital converter (ADC) D. All of the above

All of the above

28

What type of transmission of infection occurs with tuberculosis?

A. Contact B. Vector C. Fomite D. Airborne

Airborne

29

To prevent repeats, immobilization of a child may be necessary. An ideal immobilization aid will do which of the following?

A. Press the child against the table-top B. Secure the extremities tightly C. Restrict the positioning of the child D. Make the child feel comfortable and secure

Make the child feel more comfortable and secure

30

Scatter radiation will increase with an increase in which of the following?

1. Patient size
2. kVp
3. Atomic number of tissue
A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

1 and 2 only

31

Children have a greater sensitivity to radiation than adults. Which of the following should be done to keep radiation exposure to children to a minimum?

A. Do not use anti-scatter grids B. Collimate more precisely C. Use a pediatric filter D. All of the above

All of the above

32

What is the purpose of having aluminum filters in a film badge type dosimeter?

A. To absorb high energy x rays B. To hold the film in place C. To prevent scatter radiation from fogging the film D. To estimate radiation energy

To estimate radiation energy

33

Which of the following is the most widely accepted method for manually selecting radiographic techniques?

A. Fixed kVp technique chart B. Variable kVp technique chart C. Random selection technique chart D. Bit System

Fixed kVp technique chart

34

During which of the following examinations may high occupational exposure to the diagnostic radiographer occur?

A. Fluoroscopy, special procedures and extremity radiography B. Portable radiography, chest radiography and fluoroscopy C. Fluoroscopy, portable radiography and special procedures D. Special procedures, fluoroscopy and skull radiography

Fluoroscopy, portable radiography and special procedures

35

What position/projection is demonstrated on this radiograph?

A. Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection B. PA (Caldwell) projection C. AP axial (Towne) projection D. Axial oblique projection

Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection

36

Which of the following screen speeds will produce the best recorded detail?

A. 100 B. 200 C. 400 D. 800

100

37

Which of the following categories includes scatter radiation and leakage radiation?

A. Primary radiation B. Secondary radiation C. Backscatter radiation D. Stem radiation

Secondary Radiation

38

Which of the following anatomical areas would be included in a metastatic bone survey?

1. Ribs
2. Long bones
3. Spine
A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

2 and 3 only

39

What is the condition found in older women that involves the gradual loss of calcium from the bones?

A. Osteoporosis B. Osteosarcoma C. Osteogenesis D. Osteosclerosis

Osteoporosis

40

Which of the following can occur when the central ray is NOT aligned perpendicular to the image receptor?

1. Image improperly positioned
2. Collimating off critical anatomy
3. Distortion
A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 1 & 3 only D. 2 & 3 only

1 and 3 only

41

What is the purpose of the replenishment system in an automatic film processor?

A. Transport the x-ray film B. Maintain chemical strength C. Agitate the chemistry D. Maintain chemical temperature

Maintain chemical strength

42

How far must a radiographer stand back during a portable (mobile) radiographic exposure?

A. 1 meter B. 2 meters C. 3 meters D. 4 meters

2 meters (6 feet)

43

Which of the following does NOT use intensifying phosphors to help produce the radiographic image, and therefore, cause higher radiation exposure to the patient?

A. Computed radiography B. Indirect digital image receptors C. Charge-coupled devices D. Film-screen combinations

Computed radiography

44

A position of the chest, with the left scapula nearest the image receptor, and the thorax rotated 45 degrees is known as what position?

A. LAO B. LPO C. RAO D. RPO

LPO

45

What does the clavicle articulate with medially?

A. Acromion of scapula B. Coracoid process C. Manubrium of sternum D. Body of sternum

Manubrium of sternum

46

Which of the following exposure indicator numbers indicates that the patient was overexposed?

A. 2.2 B. 2000 C. 100 D. 200

100

47

If a technologist is NOT involved in fluoroscopy, where can the radiation monitor be worn?

1. Collar
2. Waist
3. Sleeve
A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

1 and 2 only

48

In the abdomen diagram to the right, the letter "X" is located next to which anatomical structure?

A. Ascending colon B. Descending colon C. Transverse colon D. Sigmoid colon

descending colon

49

What position/projection is demonstrated on this radiograph?

A. AP foot B. Medial oblique foot C. Lateral oblique foot D. Lateromedial foot

medial oblique foot

50

Why was this AP knee radiograph repeated?

A. Improper collimation B. Grid cutoff C. Underpenetrated D. Low contrast

Underpenetrated

51

Kyphosis is found in which of the following anatomical areas?

A. Thoracic spine B. Lumbar spine C. Knees D. Feet

Thoracic spine

52

Which of the following projections are taken to demonstrate the tempromandibular joints?

A. Open and closed mouth lateral (Law) projection B. PA and parientoacanthial (Waters) projection C. PA (Caldwell) projection and parientoacanthial (Waters) projection D. PA and posterior profile (Stenvers) projection

Open and closed mouth lateral (Law) projection

53

Part angulation will produce which of the following types of shape distortion?

A. Magnification B. Minification C. Foreshortening D. Elongation

Foreshortening

54

A patient comes to the radiology department on a backboard for radiographs of the cervical spine and skull. Which position/projection do you do first?

A. AP skull B. Crosstable lateral cervical spine C. Obliques of the cervical spine D. Crosstable lateral skull

Crosstable lateral cervical spine

55

What term describes introducing contrast media against the normal flow?

A. Bolus B. Retrograde C. Intravenous D. Proximal

Retrograde

56

Excessive edge enhancement of a digital image can result in which of the following problems?

A. Loss of recorded details B. Loss of contrast C. Halo artifact D. Dead pixels

Halo artifacts

57

Which of the following will have an effect on the size of the effective focal spot?

A. Size of focusing cup B. Size of tungsten disk C. Size of filament wire D. Distance between cathode and anode

size of filament wire

58

A RPO position of the ribs, will best demonstrate which of the following?

A. Right axillary ribs B. Left axillary ribs C. Anterior ribs D. Posterior ribsr

right axillary ribs

59

Which of the following is a byproduct of photoelectric absorption?

1. Bremsstrahlung radiation
2. Photoelectron
3. Recoil electron
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

2 only

60

Which of the following would describe an x-ray photon?

A. High speed electron B. High speed neutron C. High speed proton D. High speed bundle of energy

High speed bundle of energy

61

What does it mean to administer drugs parenterally?

A. By injection or I.V. B. Orally C. Rectally D. All of the above

by injection of I.V.

62

When charting drug information, which of the following is NOT necessary?

A. Name of drug B. Gauge of needle used C. Route of administration D. Date and time

gauge of needle used

63

Which of the following would be considered long-term, biological effects of radiation?

A. Nausea, epilation, intestinal disorders B. Fever, sterility, mutations C. Cancer, cataracts, life-span shortening D. Erythema, leukemia, cretinism

Cancer, cataracts, life-span shortening

64

Arrange the following organs in order, from most radiosensitive to least radiosensitive.

1. Liver
2. Brain
3. Testes
A. 1, 2, 3 B. 2, 3, 1 C. 3, 1, 2 D. 1, 3, 2

3, 1,2

65

Photostimulable phosphor plates CANNOT be cleaned with water because:

A. water cannot penetrate the protective coating. B. water will dissolve the photostimulable phosphor. C. water will discolor the plates causing artifacts. D. water will cause the latent image to leak out.

water will discolor the plates causing artifacts

66

Which of the following radiographic devices should be routinely used to reduce patient radiation exposure?

A. Grids B. Tomography C. Fluoroscopy D. Automatic exposure control (AEC)

Automatic exposure control (AEC)

67

What is the cumulative effective dose limit for a 30 year old radiation worker?

A. 30 mSv (3 rem) B. 50 mSv (5 rem) C. 300 mSv (30 rem) D. 500 mSv (50 rem)

300 mSv (30 rem)

68

Which of the following physical signs and symptoms would indicate that a patient needs suctioning?

1. Gurgling sounds
2. Drooling
3. Facial paralysis
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 & 2 only D. 1, 2 & 3

1 and 2 only

69

Which of the following would best show a soft tissue mass in the neck?

A. Soft tissue radiograph B. Conventional tomography of the c-spine C. MRI of neck D. CT of neck

MRI of neck

70

When using automatic exposure control (AEC), equipped with three ionization chambers, which ionization chamber(s) should be activated when doing a PA chest?

Center chamber B. Right lateral chamber C. Both lateral chambers D. All three chambers

both lateral chambers

71

Which component of the television monitor transfers the video signal into a visible image?

A. Electron beam B. Aluminum reflector C. Anode D. Fluorescent screen

Fluorescent screen

72

For which of the following radiographic procedures would a small focal spot be essential?

A. Chest radiography B. Magnification radiography C. Cholecystography D. IVU

Magnification radiography

73

Which of the following is the radiation that is produced directly from the target of the x-ray tube?

A. Primary radiation B. Quality radiation C. Remnant radiation D. Secondary radiation

Primary radiation

74

There are contraindications to using some contrast agents. What does the term "contraindication" mean?

A. Not suitable for children B. Do not use at full strength C. Potential danger to serious adverse reactions D. It is illegal to administer without a doctors order

Potential danger to serious adverse reactions

75

Which of the following is considered the unit of heredity?

A. The cell B. The gene C. The chromosome D. The DNA molecule

the gene

76

Which two bones make up the shoulder girdle?

A. Clavicle and humerus B. Clavicle and scapula C. Scapula and humerus D. Scapula and sternumc

clavicle and scapula

77

Each cell of an image matrix is called what?

A. A square B. A pixel C. An element D. A byte

A pixel

78

The triangular space at the junction of the diaphragm and lateral chest wall is known as what?

A. Costophrenic angle B. Mediastinum C. Apex of lung D. Hiatus

costophrenic angle

79

You have become aware that a co-worker has been stealing surgery scrubs and taking them home to lounge around in. You have even heard that she has a pair on her scarecrow in her garden. You think that she may have been warned about this once before and that she promised to stop. You have just seen a part of a scrub sticking out of her backpack as she left work. Which of the following is the appropriate response?

A. Do not say anything to anyone. B. Remind your co-worker that surgery scrubs are not supposed to be removed from the hospital. C. Politely, tell your co-worker that you will inform the department manager the next time you catch her stealing. D. Inform your other co-workers that she is a thief.

Remind your co-worker that surgery scrubs are not supposed to be removed from the hospital.

80

An increase in beam filtration will have which of the following effects?

A. A higher energy useful beam will be produced B. A lower energy useful beam will be produced C. Less x rays will be produced D. Useful beam energy will not be affected

A higher energy useful beam will be produced

81

A hand radiograph was taken at 100 mA, .06 seconds, 60 kVp. The result was an image with an EI number of 2300. What would you do to correct this reject?

A. 100 mA, .03 seconds, 60 kVp B. 200 mA, .03 seconds, 60 kVp C. 100 mA, .06 seconds, 55 kVp D. 200 mA, .06 seconds, 55 kVp

100 mA, .03 seconds, 60 kVp

82

Which of the following would NOT reduce radiation exposure to the patient?

A. Gonadal shielding B. Radiographic grids C. High speed screens D. Beam restriction

Radiographic grids

83

Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?

A. Lacrimal B. Zygoma C. Ethmoid D. Vomer

Ethmoid

84

Which of the following is the connective tissue that fastens muscles to bones?

A. Tendon B. Ligament C. Meniscus D. Cartilage

Tendon

85

During the gestation period, a pregnant radiographer should NOT receive more than _______ per month.

A. 5 mrem (.05 msv) B. 10 mrem (.10 msv) C. 50 mrem (.50 msv) D. 100 mrem (1.0 msv)

50 mrem (.50 msv)

86

While using automatic exposure control (AEC), the radiographer wants to increase the exposure of the previous radiograph. Which of the following would need to be done?

A. Increase mA B. Increase kVp C. Increase the back-up time D. Increase the density control

Increase the density control

87

An unexposed x-ray film, after it has been sent through an automatic processor, will have a slight density on it. What is this density called?

A. Fog B. Safelight fog C. Base plus fog D. Afterglow

Base plus fog

88

What is the point where the two nasal bones and the frontal bone join together called?

A. Nasal septum B. Nasion C. Mental point D. Lambda

Nasion

89

Adding text digitally to an image is known as:

A. identifying. B. annotating. C. digitizing. D. legalizing.

annotating

90

The diagram represents the ionization chambers associated with automatic exposure control (AEC). Which chamber/chambers would be located directly below the central ray when the tube and Bucky are aligned?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1 & 2

3

91

Which of the following devices is used to measure the oxygen content of blood in a patient?

A. Thermometer B. Pulse oximeter C. Sphygomanometer D. Ventilator

Pulse oximeter

92

How much must the CR be angled for a carpal canal (tunnel) projection of the wrist if the long axis of the fingers and metacarpals are vertical to the cassette?

A. 15 degrees B. 30 degrees C. 45 degrees D. 60 degrees

30 degrees

93

Contrast resolution is a major advantage of digital imaging. What determines high contrast resolution in a digital image?

A. High exposure and low noise B. Low exposure and high noise C. High exposure and high resolution D. High resolution and low noise

High exposure and low noise

94

It is recommended that the signature of a patient on an informed consent form should be witnessed by which of the following individuals?

A. The radiographer doing the procedure B. The radiologist responsible for the procedure C. A family member of the patient D. A healthcare worker who is not involved in the procedure

A healthcare worker who is not involved in the procedure

95

To demonstrate the rotator cuff, which of the following procedures would be performed?

A. Knee arthrography B. Shoulder arthrography C. Myelography D. Conventional tomography

shoulder arthrography

96

n a histogram, a useful range of minimum to maximum numbers is determined. What is this range of numbers called?

A. Imperative range B. Useful image numbers C. Histogram range D. Values of interest

Values of interest

97

A darkroom that has low humidity may cause which of the following on a radiograph?

A. Fog B. Reticulation C. Static D. Crinkle marks

static

98

Which of the following techniques will produce the same radiographic exposure as 200 mA, 1/5 second, 60 kVp?

1. 200 mA, 1/10 second, 70 kVp
2. 400 mA, 1/10 second, 70 kVp
3. 400 mA, 1/20 second, 70 kVp
A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

1 and 3 only

99

Which of the following make up a person's self-image?

A. Self-esteem B. Body image C. Current role D. All of the above

All of the above

100

Which of the following can cause saturation in a digital image?

A. Low kVp B. High mAs C. Overexposure D. Underexposure

overexposure

101

How thick must the gonadal shielding be if the gonads lie within the primary beam?

A. .25 mm Pb B. .50 mm Pb C. .75 mm Pb D. 1.0 mm Pb

.50 mm Pb

102

Which of the following would be considered non-uniformity in a digital image?

1. Stripes in the image
2. Bright spots in the image
3. Dark spots in the image
A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 1 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

1, 2 and 3

103

Which of the following pathological conditions would produce the longest scale of contrast?

A. Osteoporosis B. Kyphosis C. Osteosclerosis D. Osteoma

osteoporosis

104

The brightness of a digital image affects which of the following?

A. Sharpness of detail B. Visibility of detail C. Distortion D. Exposure

visibility of detail

105

Which of the following is the best method for dealing with patients from diverse cultures?

A. Treat everyone the same. By doing so, no one should feel uncomfortable. B. Pay attention and be sensitive to your patient's reactions to your verbal and nonverbal communication. If they appear to be uncomfortable, consider that you may need to adjust your actions based on their culture. C. If your patient's name is ethnic, assume that their English is limited; speak loudly and slowly. D. Ask each patient details about their culture, including religion, language, and sexual preference; this way you'll know exactly how to work with him or her.

Pay attention and be sensitive to your patient's reactions to your verbal and nonverbal communication. If they appear to be uncomfortable, consider that you may need to adjust your actions based on their culture.

106

Which of the following must be done for a properly positioned AP projection of the ankle?

A. Ankle joint flexed B. Tube angled 10 degrees cephalad C. Plantar surface touching the image receptor D. All of the above

Ankle joint flexed

107

"Exposure creep" is a new term that implies that radiographers are using higher exposures than necessary and allowing the software to adjust the brightness. How can an imaging department manager evaluate if "exposure creep" is occurring in his/her department?

A. Ask the radiographers if they are overexposing the patients B. Ask the radiologists if the images are too dark C. Do a repeat analysis of deleted images D. Make monitoring exposure indicator numbers part of a quality assurance program

Make monitoring exposure indicator numbers part of a quality assurance program

108

The red arrow is pointing to which anatomical area of this typical vertebra?

A. Transverse process B. Pedicle C. Lamina D. Spinous process

Lamina

109

Which of the following is necessary for a PA projection of the chest?

1. Scapulae not superimposing the lung fields
2. 10 posterior ribs visualized above the diaphragms
3. Sharp outline of the diaphragms
A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

1, 2, and 3

110

An inanimate object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms is classified as which of the following?

A. Vector B. Fomite C. Host D. Reservoir

Fomite

111

Which of the following positions/projections should be done if the patient has a suspected hip fracture?

A. AP and PA B. AP and Cleaves method C. AP and axiolateral D. Internal and external rotation

Ap and axiolateral

112

What is the purpose of protective drapes on a fluoroscopic unit?

A. Shield operator from primary radiation B. Shield operator from scatter radiation C. Shield operator from leakage radiation D. Prevent backscatter radiation

Shield operator from scatter radiation

113

How will two bodies of unlike electrical charge affect each other?

A. The charges will be neutralized B. The two bodies will repel each other C. The two bodies will be attracted to each other D. They will have no effect on each other

The two bodies will be attracted to each other

114

Which of the following is appropriate when radiographing a patient with a newly fractured forearm?

1. Remove the splint
2. Support the wrist and elbow joints
3. Notify the patient before moving the injured forearm
A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

2 and 3 only

115

After transporting a patient back to his/her room on a stretcher, which of the following must be done before leaving the room?

A. Leave the bed in the low position B. Put the side rails in the up position C. Put the call button within reach of the patient D. All of the above

All of the above

116

Which of the following imaging modalities does NOT use x ray to produce the image?

A. Bone densitometry B. Computed tomography C. Sonography D. Mammography

Sonography

117

Primary radiation barriers in walls must be ______ high and ______ thick.

7 feet, 1/16''

118

Which of the following describes a compound fracture?

A. The broken bone pierces the skin B. The break involves a joint C. The bone is in many small pieces D. The fracture is in the skull

The broken bone pierces the skin

119

Which of the following digital imaging practices will assure the ALARA principle is accomplished?

A. Monitoring exposure indicators B. Increasing kVp 15% so mAs can be reduced 50% C. Precise collimation rather than cropping D. All of the above

All of the above

120

Which of the following should be done to best visualize the sternum?

1. Shallow breathing
2. Short SID
3. Shallow RAO
A. 3 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 1 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

1 and 3 only

121

Which of the following is examined during endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography?

Biliary/pancreatic ducts

122

A large radiation dose to the gastrointestinal tract could result in which of the following symptoms?

1. Nausea
2. Vomiting
3. Diarrhea
A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 1 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

1, 2, 3

123

In order to see a visible change in radiographic density, how much must the mAs be changed?

30%

124

A number of computers connected together is known as a:

A. cell. B. network. C. system. D. infrastructure.

network

125

What is the medical term for a collapsed lung?

A. Pleural effusion B. Pneumothorax C. Atelectasis D. Hemothorax

Atelectasis

126

Which of the following exposure techniques will produce the most heat units (H.U.)?

A. 200 mA, .75 secs., 75 kVp, single phase B. 100 mA, 1.0 secs., 65 kVp, three phase, six pulse C. 100 mA, .75 secs., 75 kVp, three phase, twelve pulse D. 100 mA, .75 secs., 75 kVp, single phase, high frequency

200 mA, .75 secs., 75 kVp, single phase

127

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) states that any information that identifies a patient is known as:

A. Protected Health Information (PHI). B. Private Patient Information (PPI). C. Secure Patient Information (SPI). D. Confidential Health Information (CHI).

Protected Health Information (PHI)

128

How will an air-gap technique affect contrast?

A. Produce a longer scale of contrast B. Produce a shorter scale of contrast C. Contrast will be eliminated D. Contrast will remain the same

Produce a shorter scale of contrast

129

Which of the following is the best method to minimize contamination of radiographic equipment while radiographing an isolation patient?

A. Have only one radiographer perform the examination B. Have a family member position the patient while the radiographer handles the equipment C. Have the radiology nurse position the patient while the radiographer handles the equipment D. Have two radiographers, one positioning the patient while the other handles the equipment

Have two radiographers, one positioning the patient while the other handles the equipment

130

Which of following examinations would involve the greatest exposure and therefore, be considered the highest risk for female patients?

A. Abdomen B. Chest C. Lumbar spine D. Skull

Lumbar Spine

131

What factors must be considered when determining the thickness requirements for protective barriers?

1. Distance from the x-ray source to the barrier
2. Who will occupy the area on the other side of the barrier
3. What type of radiographic procedures will be done in the area
A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 1 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

1, 2 and 3

132

When using automatic exposure control (AEC), which of the following changes could be made to reduce the patient's entrance skin dose?

A. Increase kVp B. Increase focal spot size C. Decrease collimation D. Decrease SID

Increase kVp

133

What is the purpose of the rectification circuit?

A. Increase voltage to kilovoltage B. Terminate the exposure C. Change alternating current to direct current D. Regulate incoming voltage to the autotransformer

Change alternating current to direct current

134

What do the letters N.P.O. stand for?

A. Nothing by mouth B. Nothing after midnight C. No liquids D. No solid food

nothing by mouth

135

Fluoroscopic imaging is usually performed at which of the following techniques?

A. Low kVp, low mA B. High kVp, low mA C. Low kVp, high mA D. High kVp, high mA

high kVp, low mA

136

What should the radiographer do once he/she has sent a patient's images to PACS?

A. Delete the images from the local server B. Save a duplicate copy to a CD C. Check PACS to make sure the images were transmitted D. Delete the patient's information from the hospital information system (HIS)

Check PACS to make sure the images were transmitted

137

Which of the following is NOT a property of x rays?

A. Highly penetrating, invisible rays B. Electrically neutral C. Homogeneous wavelengths or monoenergetic D. Heterogeneous wavelengths or polyenergetic

Homogeneous wavelengths or monoenergetic

138

The breakdown of water molecules within the body due to irradiation is known as what?

A. Hydrodisintegration B. Mitosis C. RBE D. Radiolysis

Radiolysis

139

Discussing a patient's medical records with anyone NOT directly involved in the patient's care is referred to as what?

A. Libel B. Slander C. Breach of confidentiality D. Defamation of character

Breach of confidentiality

140

Which of the following radiographic qualities affects the sharpness of details of a digital image?

A. Brightness and contrast B. Spatial resolution and distortion C. Brightness and spatial resolution D. Contrast and distortion

spatial resolution and distortion

141

Where is the larynx located?

A. Between the nasopharynx and oropharynx B. Between the hard palate and soft palate C. Between the thyroid gland and trachea D. Between the epiglottis and trachea

Between the epiglottis and trachea

142

Where does the central ray enter for a PA projection of the hand?

A. 3rd carpometacarpal joint B. 3rd metacarpophalangeal joint C. 3rd interphalangeal joint D. 3rd proximal carpal joint

3rd metacarpophalangeal joint

143

This radiograph demonstrates what common gastrointestinal pathology?

A. Hiatal hernia B. Ileus C. Diverticulitis D. Appendicitis

Ileus

144

How much radiation will be received from an exposure of 200 mA, .5 second at 76 kVp, if the x-ray machine emits 3 mR/mAs?

A. 100 mR B. 200 mR C. 300 mR D. 760 mR

300mR

145

If the object is angled, what must be done to prevent shape distortion?

A. Angle the CR B. Angle the image receptor C. Angle the CR and image receptor an equal amount D. Increase SID and decrease OID

Angle the CR and image receptor an equal amount

146

Which of the following positions/projections would best demonstrate the right sacroilliac joint?

A. AP B. PA C. RAO D. RPO

RAO

147

Which of the following factors affect differential absorption?

A. Part thickness B. Part density C. Atomic number D. All of the above

All of the above

148

Radiographic film that is stored in a room that is too warm may result in the film having which of the following?

A. Fog B. Short scale contrast C. Reticulation D. Crinkle marks

Fog

149

Which of the following describes the dose-response relationship shown here?

A. Nonlinear, nonthreshold B. Nonlinear, threshold C. Linear, nonthreshold D. Linear, threshold

Linear, threshold

150

To best demonstrate the dens using the Fuch method, the CR must be parallel to which of the following positioning lines?

A. Mentomeatal line (MML) B. Interpupillary line (IPL) C. Orbitomeatal line (OML) D. Acanthiomeatal line (AML)

MML

151

For an AP projection of the hip joint, the feet should be placed in which of the following positions?

A. Lateral B. Supine C. Inversion D. Eversion

Inversion

152

The red arrow is pointing to which part of the scapula?

A. Acromion B. Scapular notch C. Superior angle D. Coracoid process

Acromion

153

Which of the following procedures should be done first?

A. Lower gastrointestinal series B. Abdominal sonography C. Intravenous urogram D. Upper gastrointestinal series

Abdominal sonography

154

Fainting is a common medical emergency in the Imaging Department. If a patient appears to be about to faint, what is the first thing you must do?

A. Call for help B. Administer oxygen C. Lie the patient down D. Call a code

Lie the patient down

155

In film-screen radiography, an increase in radiographic density can result from an increase in which of the following?

1. mAs
2. kVp
3. SID
A. 1 only B. 1 & 2 only C. 1 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

1 and 2 only

156

Which of the following units of measurement is determined by multiplying the absorbed dose by an appropriate weighting factor?

A. Rad B. Rem C. Roentgen D. Becquerel

Rem

157

After an IV injection, how should the contaminated needle be placed in the sharps container?

A. Remove the needle from the syringe and place the needle in the container B. Recap the needle and place the needle with syringe in the container C. Do not recap the needle, but place the needle with syringe in the container D. Do not recap the needle, but remove it from the syringe and place it in the container

Do not recap the needle, but place the needle with syringe in the container

158

The hip joint is located midway between which anatomical landmarks?

A. Symphysis pubis and greater trochanter B. Symphysis pubis and iliac crest C. Symphysis pubis and A.S.I.S. D. Symphysis pubis and ischial tuberosity

symphysis pubis and ASIS

159

Mobile protective barriers should NOT be used when making exposures above what kilovoltage?

A. 70 kVp B. 90 kVp C. 110 kVp D. 140 kVp

90 kVp

160

Which of the following bones is in the proximal row of carpals?

A. Trapezoid B. Triquetrum C. Capitate D. Hamate

Triquetrum

161

What is a study of unacceptable radiographs called?

A. Reject analysis B. Witch hunting C. Film critique D. Waste summary

Reject analysis

162

Which of the following statements would properly describe optimum collimation?

A. The x-ray beam should be approximately the size of the image receptor. B. Automatic collimation shall be used at all times. C. Extension cylinders shall be used at all times. D. Only tissues of the body in which there is a diagnostic interest will be in the primary beam.

Only tissues of the body in which there is a diagnostic interest will be in the primary beam.

163

Which of the following is part of a Bucky assembly?

A. Grid B. Tray for holding a cassette C. Device for moving the grid D. All of the above

All of the above

164

The symbol to the right is a warning that the material in the container is which of the following?

A. Radioactive waste B. Flammable C. Chemical waste D. Biohazardous waste

Biohazardous waste

165

During portable (mobile) radiography, which of the following is the duty of the radiographer?

A. Ask others to leave the room or give them an apron B. Use gonadal shielding on the patient C. Make it clear when you are going to make an exposure D. All of the above

All of the above

166

Which of the following properties of lead assures that most of the scatter radiation will be absorbed?

A. Mass B. Thickness C. Atomic number D. Structure

Atomic number

167

If a patient has been sedated for a myelogram, what could cause the exam to be cancelled?

A. The patient's family is not present B. The scout films were misplaced C. The radiologist is late for his/her lunch D. The patient did not sign a consent form

The patient did not sign a consent form

168

When manipulating a digital image, what does changing the window level do?

A. Changes the brightness of the image B. Changes the contrast of the image C. Changes the resolution of the image D. Changes the size of the image

Changes the brightness of the image

169

What is the name of the groove between the lesser and greater tubercles of the humerus?

A. Trochlear B. Humeral C. Bicipital D. Surgical

Bicipital

170

Which of the following is the proper tube angle for an AP projection of the coccyx?

A. 10 degrees cephalad B. 10 degrees caudad C. 25 degrees cephalad D. 25 degrees caudad

10 degrees caudad

171

Which of the following pathologies are well visualized on a double contrast barium enema?

A. Cholecystitis B. Hiatal hernia C. Polyps D. Gastritis

Polyps

172

In order to drive the electrons across the x-ray tube, which of the following must occur?

A. There must be at least 200 mA B. The tube must have a rotating anode C. The cathode is negatively charge and the anode is positively charged D. The cathode is positively charge and the anode is negatively charged

The cathode is negatively charge and the anode is positively charged

173

Which of the following produces the greatest risk to the radiographer?

A. Leakage radiation from the x-ray tube B. Backscatter radiation from the floor and walls C. Scatter radiation from the patient D. The primary beam

scatter radiation from the patient

174

According to the legal theory of respondeat superior, which of the following statements is true?

A. The radiographer is responsible for his/her superior's negligence. B. The hospital is responsible for the radiographer's negligence. C. The radiologist is superior to the radiographer. D. The radiographer is the only one responsible for his/her negligence.

The hospital is responsible for the radiographer's negligence.

175

Which of the following describes the term extravasation?

A. Injecting fluid into tissues B. Blood backing into the syringe C. Inability to stop bleeding D. Missing the vein, causing discomfort

Injecting fluid into tissues

176

If the infraorbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the image receptor for an AP axial (Towne) projection of the skull, how much caudad angle is required?

A. 25 degrees B. 30 degrees C. 37 degrees D. 45 degrees

37 degrees

177

Which of the following positions/projections will best demonstrate the left colic (splenic) flexure?

A. LAO B. RAO C. Supine D. AP axial

LAO

178

An intoxicated patient and his intoxicated friend are belligerent and making it difficult for you to complete the radiographic procedure. What must you do?

A. Stop the procedure and send them home B. Get adequate help to subdue the two C. Separate the two and get assistance to finish the procedure D. Refuse to complete the exam

Separate the two and get assistance to finish the procedure

179

Which position/projection of the elbow demonstrates the radial head free of superimposition?

A. AP B. 45 degree medial rotation C. 45 degree lateral rotation D. Lateral

45 degree lateral rotation

180

Which of the following is a disadvantage of computed radiography (CR) compared to conventional radiographs?

A. Decreased spatial resolution B. Decreased repeat rate C. Decreased latitude D. Decreased workflow

decrease spatial resolution

181

What is it called when air enters the pleural space?

A. Pleural effusion B. Hemothorax C. Pneumothorax D. Pneumogram

Pneumothorax

182

The patient is prone, the knee is slowly flexed to form a 55 degree angle from the table, the CR is angled 45 degrees and directed to the patellofemoral joint. Which position of the patella does this describe?

A. Hughston B. Merchant C. Settegast D. Grashey

Hughston

183

Which of the following bones has a medial condyle?

A. Fibula B. Mandible C. Radius D. Tibia

Tibia

184

What is the maximum amount of water-soluble contrast media that should be given to a child that weighs only 60 pounds?

A. 30 ml B. 60 ml C. 100 ml D. 200 ml

60 ml

185

Which of the following exposure techniques will produce the least exposure to the patient?

A. 50 mAs, 60 kVp B. 25 mAs, 70 kVp C. 50 mAs, 70 kVp D. 75 mAs, 80 kVp

25 mAs, 70 kVp

186

Where is the most common place along the length of a ureter for a kidney stone to hang up?

A. Renal pelvis B. Ureteropelvic junction C. Ureterovesical junction D. Urethra

Ureterovesical junction

187

How much mAs will be generated if the control panel is set at 400 mA and .2 seconds?

A. 20 mAs B. 40 mAs C. 60 mAs D. 80 mAs

80 mAs

188

What must the radiographer do to correct a radiograph that had the proper density but demonstrated excessive quantum mottle?

A. Increase kVp, decrease mAs and leave all other factors the same B. Decrease kVp, increase mAs and leave all other factors the same C. Change to a slower speed screen and leave all other factors the same D. Decrease SID and leave all other factors the same

Decrease kVp, increase mAs and leave all other factors the same

189

What is the name of the proximal, funnel shaped portion of the ureter called?

A. Cortex B. Medulla C. Renal pelvis D. Calyx

Renal pelvis

190

Equalization can be applied to a digital image to improve which of the following?

A. Visibility of details B. Spatial resolution C. Noise D. Sharpness of details

visibility of details

191

What are the first physical signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to contrast medium?

1. Apprehension
2. Itching, sneezing
3. Tightness in the chest
A. 1 & 2 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

1, 2 and 3

192

Characteristic x rays result when:

A. high speed electrons are slowed down or stopped. B. a tungsten K-shell electron is ejected and an L-shell electron replaces it. C. the filament is heated to 2300 degrees Celsius. D. the x-ray tube vacuum is lost.

a tungsten K-shell electron is ejected and an L-shell electron replaces it

193

According to the Code of Federal Regulations Title 21 (21 CFR) for fluoroscopic equipment manufactured after June 10, 2006, neither the length nor the width of the x-ray field shall exceed the size of the image receptor by more than _______ percent of the SID.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

3

194

The shortest exposure time that a radiographic system can produce is known as its:

A. timer cut-off. B. minimum response time. C. exposure load. D. system limit.

minimum response time

195

Which of the following pieces of support equipment need to be kept above the patient?

A. Chest tubes B. Urinary catheters C. IV tubes D. Drainage tubes

IV tubes

196

The higher the energy of the x ray the:

A. greater the quantity B. greater the speed C. higher the frequency D. longer the wavelength

higher the frequency

197

If a pregnant patient must have a radiographic examination of the chest, which of the following would provide the greatest protection for the fetus?

A. Limiting beam restriction to just the area of the chest B. Removing the grid and using a screen technique C. Using a high kVp technique D. Shielding the abdomen front and back

Shielding abdomen front and back

198

When the patient is supine, which part of the stomach is well filled with barium?

A. Pylorus B. Body C. Fundus D. Rugae

fundus

199

Which vertebrae have transverse foramen?

A. Cervical B. Thoracic C. Lumbar D. Sacral

Cervical

200

Which of the following is an example of good body mechanics?

A. Turn at the waist B. Carry objects at arms' length C. Keep back straight D. Keep feet close together

keep back straight