MMED Quizzes and Human Anatomy & Physiology

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created 4 years ago by Jessica_Nguyen
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Flinder Uni Quizzes. Only up to week 9. Some extra questions, (Cards 29-39) from (http://www.easynotecards.com/notecard_set/29668) for Nervous System. Some extra questions (Cards 55-66) from (http://www.easynotecards.com/notecard_set/4954) for Endocrinology. Some extra questions (Cards 74-81) from (http://www.easynotecards.com/notecard_set/18815) for Respiratory System.
updated 4 years ago by Jessica_Nguyen
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physiology
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1

The two main sources of energy on earth are:

a. sun and earth core

b. sun and sea

c. sun and forests

d. seas and clouds

e. stars and sun

a.

2

Darwin developed a theory of:

a. Appearance of life on Earth

b. Appearance of consciousness

c. Right of aggression against the weakest

d. Evolution of species of Earth

e. History of civilizations

d.

3

Evolution was proposed as a biological process:

a. to explain the appearance of life on earth

b. to explain the appearance of different species of animals and plants

c. to explain the appearance of consciousness

d. to explain the origin of diseases

e. to explain the origin of human races

b.

4

Endocrine cells release substances into the:

a. air spaces of lungs

b. brain

c. urine

d. blood stream

e. digestive cavity

d.

5

Dissipative systems:

a. can produce order.

b. cannot produce order.

c. never use energy.

d. are alive.

e. are driven by linear systems.

a.

6

The process of cellular respiration:

a. converts the energy of fats into glucose.

b. converts the high energy ATP into glucose.

c. converts chemical energy in production of oxygen.

d. converts the energy of glucose into another high energy chemical, ATP.

e. converts carbon dioxide into electrical energy.Feedback

d.

7

The urethra belongs to:

a. Digestive system

b. Nervous system

c. Reproductive system

d. Urinary system

e. Musculoskeletal system

d.

8

Chromosomes contain:

a. multiple ring-like pieces of DNA

b. a single continuous piece of DNA

c. a single continuous piece of RNA

d. contractile proteins

e. rings of single strand proteinsFeedback

b.

9

In every cell there are:

a. about 3 mitochondria

b. more than 50 nuclei

c. 1 million Golgi complexes

d. about 100-2,000 mitochondria

e. 3 plasma membranes

d.

10

3 major structural subdivisions that make up nearly all of a cells volume are:

Select one:

a. Plasma membrane, mitochondria, microfilaments

b. Nucleus, plasma membrane, genes

c. Cytoplasm, nucleus, plasma membrane

d. Cytoplasm, nucleus, DNA

e. Nucleus, axons, Golgi apparatus

c.

11

The brain and spinal cord together compose the

Select one:

a. central nervous system.

b. autonomic division system.

c. somatic motor division of the nervous system.

d. peripheral nervous system.

e. visceral nervous system.

a.

12

Which of the following ions directly triggers neurotransmitter release from the presynaptic neuron?

Select one:

a. magnesium

b. potassium

c. sodium

d. calcium

e. chloride

d.

13

A myelin sheath on nerves:

Select one:

a. protects the axon from physical damage

b. shields the axon from the effects of neurotransmitters

c. reduces the energy required for action potential conduction

d. provides metabolic support to the axon

e. increases the speed of action potential conduction

e.

14

The afferent division of the nervous system carries

Select one:

a. Motor commands to the muscle

b. Sensory information to the central nervous system

c. Parasympathetic messages to organs

d. Sympathetic signals to the brain

e. Only visceral stimuli to the central nervous system

b.

15

Exocrine glands, smooth muscles, and cardiac muscles are controlled by the

Select one:

a. central nervous system.

b. autonomic nervous system.

c. somatic motor division.

d. sensory nervous system.

e. enteric nervous system

b.

16

What is the type of cell that makes the myelin sheath in peripheral nerves?

Select one:

a. Schwann cell

b. M cell

c. Kupfer cell

d. Microcyte

e. Peridendrocyte

a.

17

The influx of calcium into the axon terminal of a chemical synapse is responsible for the ________.

Select one:

a. fusion of vesicles to the membrane and of exocytosis neurotransmitter

b. initiation of an action potential

c. diffusion of the neurotransmitter across the membrane and into the cleft

d. movement of calcium through gap junctions

e. termination of an action potential

a.

18

Efferent nerves carry neural information to

Select one:

a. The skin

b. Muscles

c. The brain

d. Spinal cord

e. Dorsal root ganglia

b.

19

What is the composition of grey matter in the CNS?

Select one:

a. Mainly non-myelinated neurones, glial cells, and blood vessels

b. Slightly pigmented non-myelinated nerve fibres

c. Lightly myelinated nerve fibres that connect entirely within the CNS

d. Connective tissue and blood vessels supplying the white matter

e. Non-myelinated sensory nerve fibres going from the spinal cord to the thalamus

a.

20

A motor unit consists of

Select one:

a. one axon terminal branch and the myofibrils it controls.

b. one skeletal muscle fiber and the neuron that controls that fiber.

c. one skeletal muscle fiber and all the neurons that control that fiber.

d. one neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it controls.

e. one set of synergistic muscle that share the same motor nerve.

d.

21

Most of the time, the parallel thick and thin filaments of the myofibrils are connected by ________ that span the space between myosin and actin molecules.

Select one:

a. crossbridges

b. sarcomeres

c. tropomyosin molecules

d. nebulin molecules

e. calcium ions

a.

22

Striated muscles are so-called because of a repeating pattern of light and dark bands. One repeating unit of the banding pattern is called a

Select one:

a. sarcomere.

b. crossbridge.

c. sarcofibril.

d. myomere.

e. myofilament.

a.

23

The pathway from a sensory receptor on the skin to the cerebral cortex is:

Select one:

a. dorsal root on the same side of the body – spinal cord – thalamus – cerebral cortex on the opposite side of the body.

b. dorsal root on the same side of the body – spinal cord – hypothalamus – cerebral cortex on the opposite side of the body.

c. ventral root on the same side of the body – spinal cord – thalamus – cerebral cortex on the opposite side of the body.

d. ventral root on the same side of the body – spinal cord – hypothalamus – cerebral cortex on the opposite side of the body.

e. ventral root on the same side of the body – spinal cord – hypothalamus – cerebral cortex on the same side of the body.

a.

24

Which of the following is the correct statement about muscle

Select one:

a. There are different kinds of muscle cells in the body

b. Muscle cells are non excitable

c. Contraction is due to increased magnetic forced. Contraction does not require energy

e. Heart muscle is not really a type of muscle

a.

25

The sensory fibres of the muscle spindles synapse onto

Select one:

a. joint receptors

b. Golgi tendon organs

c. spinal interneurons

d. gamma motor neurons

e. alpha motor neurons

e.

26

How many synapses are there in the Golgi tendon organ reflex pathway?

Select one:

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

e. 5

b.

27

The withdrawal reflex is initiated by activation of what type of receptor?

Select one:

a. warm receptor

b. photoreceptor

c. muscle spindle stretch receptor

d. taste receptor

e. nociceptor

e.

28

A muscle spindle is:

Select one:

a. a modified tendon embedded in a skeletal muscle

b. a receptor for detecting how hard a muscle is contracting

c. found only in muscles that are responsible for maintaining posture

d. a group of muscle fibres with a sensory axon wrapping around them

e. sensitive to both muscle force and muscle length

d.

29

The patellar ʺknee jerkʺ reflex is an example of a(n) ________.
A) extensor thrust reflex
B) stress reflex
C) cross extensor reflex
D) stretch reflex

d.

30

Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order):

A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords

B) roots, divisions, cords, and trunks

C) divisions, roots, trunks, and cords

D) trunks, divisions, cords, and roots

a.

31

Which of the following is not true about the integration center of a reflex arc?

A) The center may be a single synapse between a motor and a sensory neuron.

B) There are always multiple synapses with chains of interneurons.

C) It is always located in the CNS.

D) More complex reflex arcs in the center are polysynaptic reflexes.

b.

32

A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called
a ________.
A) Golgi tendon reflex
B) flexor reflex
C) crossed extensor reflex
D) plantar reflex

a.

33

Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________.
A) afferent nerves
B) efferent nerves
C) motor nerves
D) mixed nerves

a.

34

In a crossed extensor reflex, if the right arm were grabbed it would flex and the left arm would
________.
A) also flex
B) extend
C) abduct
D) adduct

b.

35

A simple spinal reflex goes along which of the following reflex arcs?

A) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor

B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector

C) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor

D) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector

b.

36

Transduction refers to conversion of ________.

A) presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses

B) stimulus information to nerve impulses

C) receptor energy to stimulus energy

D) afferent impulses to efferent impulses

b.

37

Select the statement that is most correct.

A) Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord that are associated with
efferent fibers.

B) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.

C) The dorsal root ganglion is a motor-only structure.

D) The cell bodies of afferent ganglia are located in the spinal cord.

b.

38

The peripheral nervous system includes ________.
A) sensory receptors
B) basal nuclei
C) the spinal cord
D) the corpus callosum

a.

39

If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region
that nerve supplies?

A) complete loss of sensation

B) a complete loss of voluntary movement

C) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only
of autonomic control

D) a complete loss of sensation and movement

b.

40

Which of the following statements relating to near accommodation is correct?Select one:

a. For near accommodation relaxation of the ciliary muscles lengthens the lens

b. For near accommodation contraction of the ciliary muscles shortens the lens

c. For near accommodation contraction of the ciliary muscles lengthens the lens

d. For near accommodation relaxation of the ciliary muscles lengthens the lens

e. Increased tension on the lens increases the curvature of the lens for near accommodation

b.

41

Which of the following statements with respect to controlling the shape of the lens is incorrect?

Select one:

a. When the ciliary muscles contract close images are better focussed on the retina.

b. When the ciliary muscles contract the lens is stretched.

c. When the ciliary muscles contract the zonal fibres are relaxed

d. When the ciliary muscles contract the lens is optimized for near vision.

e. When the ciliary muscles contract the curvature of the lens is increased.

b.

42

Which of the following statements relating to the macular lutea is correct?

Select one:

a. The fovea is the outer ring of the macula lutea

b. Due to structural changes, light falls directly onto photo receptors in the macula lutea.

c. The macular lutea contains a high density of rods.

d. The density of rods decreases as you move from the macula lutea to the periphery of the retina

e. There is considerable light refraction at the macula lutea

b.

43

Which of the following statements relating to the constriction of the pupil is correct?

Select one:

a. Parasympathetic stimulation of the radial muscles within the iris causes the iris to constrict

b. Sympathetic stimulation of the circular muscles in the iris causes the iris to constrict

c. Parasympathetic and sympathetic stimulation of both the circular and the radial muscles in the iris are needed to cause the iris to constrict

d. Parasympathetic stimulation of the circular muscles in the iris causes the iris to constrict

e. Sympathetic stimulation of the radial muscles in the iris causes the iris to constrict

d.

44

Dilation of the afferent arteriole will lead to

Select one:

a. an increase in GFR.

b. a decrease in GFR.

c. no change to GFR.

d. usually little change in heart rate but a decrease in respiration rate.

e. b and d

a.

45

In the presence of vasopressin, the distal and collecting tubules are

Select one:

a. highly permeable to water.

b. impermeable to water.

c. highly permeable to renin.

d. impermeable to aldosterone.

e. none of the above

a.

46

Renin is secreted into the

Select one:

a. blood stream.

b. Bowman's capsule.

c. distal tubule.

d. adrenal cortex.

e. lungs.

a.

47

Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole will lead to

Select one:

a. an increase in GFR.

b. a decrease in GFR.

c. no change in GFR.

d. a gradual increase in urine output.

e. increase in Na+ secretion in the lungs.

b.

48

A patient has a sudden loss of plasma Na+ concentration due to blood loss following a boating accident. Which of the following would you expect to occur in that patientsoon after the blood loss to compensate for the low Na+ levels ?

Select one:

a. Increased renin and aldosterone secretion.

b. Increased secretion of Na+ into the proximal tubule.

c. Decreased renin and aldosterone secretion.

d. Increased vasopressin release from the lungs.

e. Both B & C are correct

a.

49

A sky diver experiences a sudden shock upon jumping out of an airplane, leading to increased sympathetic nerve activity.  Which of the following would likely occur in the sky diver as a consequence of increased sympathetic nerve stimulation.

Select one:

a. Dilation of the afferent arteriole.

b. Dilation of the efferent arteriole.

c. Constriction of the afferent arteriole.

d. Constriction of collecting duct.

e. Dilatation of the Bowman's capsule.

c.

50

Thyroid Hormone (T3 and T4) is made from:

Select one:

a. Cholesterol

b. Glucose

c. Tryptophan

d. Tyrosine

e. Testosterone

d.

51

The hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system is unique in that

Select one:

a. it allows hormones to be released from the pancreas after feeding.

b. It allows high concentrations of hormones to be picked up at the hypothalamus and delivered directly to the anterior pituitary.

c. allows hypothalamic hormones to act directly in the lungs without entering the blood stream.

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

b.

52

In patients with excess production of thyroid hormone which of the following symptoms would you expect to occur.

Select one:

a. Increased metabolic rate

b. Decreased metabolic rate

c. No obvious change in metabolic rate

d. Decreased taste sensation

e. None of the above

a.

53

The Renin Angiotensin System controls:

Select one:

a. Blood pressure

b. Blood sugar

c. Cortisol secretion

d. Stomach secretions

e. Liver metabolism

a.

54

The loss of Luteinizing Hormone (LH) from the body would cause:

Select one:

a. Low estrogen

b. High estrogen

c. Low testosterone

d. High testosterone

e. A and C above

e.

55

Thyroid hormone exerts its influence by ________.

A) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei
B) exerting only a minor effect on body metabolism
C) causing a reduction in the number of blood vessel adrenergic receptors, and therefore
decreasing blood pressure
D) acting to decrease basal metabolic rate

a.

56

The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent
on ________.

A) the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path
B) the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ
C) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ
D) nothing, all hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types
because hormones are powerful and nonspecific

c.

57

Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior
pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary
gland is through the ________.

A) hepatic portal system
B) general circulatory system
C) hypophyseal portal system
D) feedback loop

c.

58

The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland
because ________.

A) it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal
release
B) embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer
functional
C) it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural
system due to its location
D) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for
release

d.

59

Insulin, a small (51-amino-acid) protein, is synthesized by the beta cells of the pancreas. This
hormone is released ________.

A) in excessive amounts in obese people
B) in response to severe physical stress (i.e., a ten-mile run)
C) when the bodyʹs glucose level rises
D) when the bodyʹs glucose level drops

c.

60

Hormones often cause a cell to elicit multiple responses; this is because ________.

A) there are thousands of receptors on the cell membrane
B) the receptors bind to several hormones at the same time
C) the protein kinases are rapidly metabolized
D) during protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes

d.

61

The parathyroid glands maintain adequate levels of blood calcium. This is accomplished
through ________.

A) blocking the action of growth hormone
B) targeting the bone and activating osteoclasts so that calcium will be released
C) antagonizing the synthesis of calcitonin
D) slowing the activity of tissues that require calcium for activity

b.

62

Which of the following is not a steroid-based hormone?

A) estrogen
B) aldosterone
C) epinephrine
D) cortisone

c.

63

Cellular responses to hormones that initiate second-messenger systems include ________.

A) possible activation of several different second-messenger systems
B) cyclic AMP phosphodiesterase formation of an active second messenger
C) formation of a specific protein kinase that acts on a series of extracellular intermediates
D) hormone binding to intracellular receptors

a.

64

Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus ________.

A) enter venous circulation and travel to the heart, which pumps the hormone-containing
blood to the pituitary
B) enter the hepatic portal system, which feeds the pituitary
C) travel by arteries to the pituitary
D) first enter into the hypophyseal portal system

d.

65

A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH),
and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain
this problem.

A) FSH stimulates estrogen secretion by ovarian cells; therefore it is not synthesized by
males.
B) The physician is wrong, a hormone made in the adenohypophysis could not influence
fertility.
C) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.
D) The man must be producing progesterone, which inhibits the synthesis of FSH.

c.

66

Which of the following would be associated with the action of steroids on cells?

A) extracellular receptors with a specificity for only a single amino acid sequence on the
hormone
B) an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP
C) second-messenger systems
D) a hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cellʹs DNA

d.

67

The Law of Young and Laplace describes:

Select one:

a. the collapsing pressure of the whole lung.

b. how air moves in and out of the lung.

c. how blood moves through the capillaries in the lung.

d. the collapsing pressure in the alveolus due to surface tension.

e. the collapsing pressure in the capillaries.

d.

68

Premature babies have difficulty breathing because

Select one:

a. their brain has not developed sufficiently to initiate breathing

b. their lungs remain filled with fluid

c. their diaphragm is not fully developed

d. their lungs are hard to inflate because they have not produced enough pulmonary surfactant

e. their rib cage has not developed sufficiently to inflate the lung

d.

69

Ciliated cells in the airways:

Select one:

a. secrete pulmonary surfactant

b. beat in a wave like manner to remove debris from the lung

c. secrete mucus

d. increase the surface area for reabsorption of fluid

e. beat in a random motion to keep mucus glands clear

b.

70

Which of the following statements is correct:

Select one:

a. the concentration of carbon dioxide is highest in the lung

b. the concentration of carbon dioxide is higher in venous blood than in arterial blood.

c. carbon dioxide is less soluble in blood than oxygen

d. carbon dioxide is only produced in muscle cells

e. the concentration of carbon dioxide is higher in the arterial blood than in the tissues.

b.

71

The plural cavity is:

Select one:

a. is a sealed sac wrapped around each lung

b. is connected to the lung and the ribs

c. stops the lung from collapsing

d. is filled with a lubricating fluid

e. all of the above are correct

e.

72

External intercostal muscles are

Select one:

a. involved in expiration

b. connected to the lung by ligaments

c. connected to the diaphragm

d. involved in active inspiration

e. connected to the collar bone

d.

73

Surfactant develops in the lung around:

Select one:

a. 12 weeks of gestation

b. 18 weeks of gestation.

c. 25 weeks of gestation

d. 32 weeks of gestation

e. at birth

d.

74

The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The function of type II is to ________.

A) secrete surfactant
B) trap dust and other debris
C) replace mucus in the alveoli
D) protect the lungs from bacterial invasion

a.

75

Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is

A) less than the pressure in the atmosphere.
B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.
C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.
D) greater than the intra-alveolar pressure.

b.

76

Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. Expiration, however, depends on two factors. Which of the choices below lists those two factors?

A) the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid
B) the expansion of respiratory muscles that were contracted during inspiration and the lack of surface tension on the alveolar wall
C) the negative feedback of expansion fibers used during inspiration and the outward pull of surface tension due to surfactant
D) combined amount of CO2 in the blood and air in the alveoli

a.

77

Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________.

A) pressure within the pleural cavity
B) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs
C) negative pressure in the intrapleural space
D) difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure

b.

78

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) During fetal life, lungs are filled with fluid.
B) Respiratory rate is lowest in newborn infants.
C) Descent of the diaphragm results in abdominal breathing.
D) The chest wall becomes more rigid with age.

b.

79

Tidal volume is air ________.

A) remaining in the lungs after forced expiration
B) exchanged during normal breathing
C) inhaled after normal inspiration
D) forcibly expelled after normal expiration

b.

80

Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?

A) solubility in water
B) partial pressure gradient
C) the temperature
D) molecular weight and size of the gas molecule

b.

81

Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract if you were to blow up a balloon?

A) diaphragm would contract, external intercostals would relax
B) internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract
C) external intercostals would contract and diaphragm would relax
D) diaphragm contracts, internal intercostals would relax

b.

82

The second heart sound is associated with:

Select one:

a. closure of the semilunar valves.

b. opening of the semilunar valves.

c. closure of the atrioventricular valves.

d. opening of the atrioventricular valves.

e. movement of blood through the aor

a.

83

The left AV valve lies between the

Select one:

a. left atrium and left ventricle.

b. left atrium and right atrium.

c. right atrium and right ventricle.

d. SA node and the aorta.

e. left and right branches of the bundle of His.

a.

84

Which of the following statements about the heart is most correct.

Select one:

a. blood found in the pulmonary vein has a high oxygen content.

b. blood in the pulmonary artery has a high oxygen content.

c. blood in the aorta is low in oxygen.

d. blood in the inferior vena cava is high in oxygen.

e. none of the above

a.

85

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Select one:

a. the left and right ventricles contract simultaneously.

b. the bundle of His has the highest pacemaker frequency.

c. blood from the lungs enters the heart via the pulmonary vein.

d. A and C are correct.

e. none of the above are correct.

d.

86

Which of the following statements is most correct?

Select one:

a. the SA node is located in the right atrium.

b. the AV node is intrinsically excitable only at night.

c. the SA node has the lowest intrinsic pacemaker frequency.

d. the AV node has a higher intrinsic pacemaker frequency compared to the SA node.

e. the bundle of His is the primary pacemaker in the heart.

a.

87

Stimulation of the vagus (parasympathetic) nerve supply to the heart will lead to

Select one:

a. an increase in heart rate.

b. an increase in stroke volume.

c. a slowing of the heart rate.

d. an increase cardiac output.

e. an increase in end-diastolic volume.

c.