Surg Tech Practice 6 (Nicola)

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1

melanin

the pigment that occurs in the epidermis and absorbs light energy is

2

dermis

which layer contains hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and nerve fibers

3

epidermal

which cells contribute to the development og hair at the base of the hair follicle

4

dermal

which skin layer contains blood vessels to aid in the regulation of body temperature

5

sebum

sebaceous glands secret

6

fisrt degree

what burn classification involves only the epidermis

7

deep second-degree

a burn that destroys the epidermis, dermis, and accessory organs of the skin is

8

homograft

what type of graft is skin harvested from a cadaver

9

autograft

if skin taken from an unburned area of the patient and used as a transplant, it is called

10

radial, ulnar, median

what three innervate the forearm, wrist and hand?

11

palmaris longus

which muscle is responsible for flexing the hand in the wrist

12

radial and ulnar

what are the two main arteries that supply the hand and the forearm

13

rule of nines

what is a common method of determining the percentage of body surface burned

14

palatoshisis

what other pathology often occurs in conjunction with cheiloshisis

15

syndactyly

what medical term refers to the condition in which the digits of the hands and feet fail to separate

16

Dupuytren's disease

the condition causing the contraction of palmar fascia is known as

17

Rhytidectomy

what medical term refers to the surgical procedure commonly known as a face lift

18

Blephoaroplasty

a cosmetic procedure performed on the eyelid

19

FTSG

which type of donor skin graft includes the epidermis, dermis, and possibly subcutaneous tissue

20

Rhinoplasty

which procedure may involve the use of the local anesthetic cocaine?

21

ganglion cyst

which of the following is a synovial fluid-filled cyst that can rise from a tendon sheath or wrist joint

22

Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery 1. What type of membrane is the skin?

cutaneous

23

What layer binds the skin to the underlying structures?

Subcutaneous

24

What is keratinization?

The process by which cells are hardened to make skin, nails, and hair.

25

Which layer contains hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and nerve fibers?

Dermis or Stratum Corium

26

Which layer of skin functions best as a heat insulator?

Subcutaneous (hypodermis) Layer

27

Which cells contribute to the development of hair at the base of the hair follicle?

Epidermal

28

Which skin layer contains blood vessels to aid in the regulation of body temperature?

Dermal

29

What do sebaceous glands secrete?

oil (sebum)

30

Know the burn classifications.

1st Degree – affects just the dermis 2nd Degree – affect the dermis to varying degrees. 3rd Degree – Completely penetrate the full thickness of the skin. 4th Degree – Char burns

31

What bones form the hard palate of the mouth?

Consists of palatine processes of each maxilla, palatine bones. (Palatine and Maxillary)

32

Which three nerves innervate the forearm, wrist, and hand?

Radial, Median, and Ulnar

33

Which muscle is responsible for flexing the hand at the wrist?

palmaris longus

34

What are the two main arteries that supply the forearm and hand?

Radial, and Ulnar

35

What is a common method of determining the percentage of body surface burned?

Rule of Nines

36

What other pathology often occurs in conjunction with cheiloschisis?

Palatoschisos (cleft palate)

37

What medical term refers to the condition in which the digits of the hands or feet fail to separate?

Syndactyly

38

What is Dupuytren's disease?

Disease of the fascia of the palm and digits. The fascia becomes thick and contracted. Results in flexion deformities of the involved digits. (the condition causing the contraction of palmar fascia)

39

What is blepharoplasty, septoplasty, rhytidectomy, dermabrasion?

blepharoplasty- Surgical repair of the eyelid septoplasty- surgical procedure done to straighten the nasal septum rhytidectomy- Facelift dermabrasion- Planing of skin, either mechanically or chemically, to smooth a skin surface

40

Which type of donor skin graft includes the epidermis, dermis, and possibly subcutaneous tissue?

Full Thickness Skin Grafts

41

Which body site(s) is/are ideal for a split-thickness skin graft?

Lateral & ventral thighs Back Abdomen Chest

42

Know the following conditions: ganglion cyst, carpal tunnel syndrome, trigger finger, Dupuytren’s disease.

ganglion cyst- A benign lesion filled with synovial fluid. carpal tunnel syndrome- compression of a nerve in the carpal tunnel trigger finger- Stenosing tenosynovitis that affects digits. Dupuytren’s disease- tightening of the tissue of the palm of the h

43

What is the order of the procedure for reimplantation of a digit?

Bone to bone,

44

What surgical procedure is performed to remove hypertrophic breast tissue?

Reduction Mammoplasty

45

Which procedure involves an initial skin incision within the hairline beginning in the temporal region superior to the ear?

Rhytidectomy (face-lift)

46

Which instrument is responsible for expanding the surface area of a skin graft?

Mesh Graft device

47

Which nerve must be avoided during a rhytidectomy?

Facial Nerve

48

Why is mineral oil used during procurement of a skin graft using a dermatome?

to reduce friction & provide smooth surface

49

What type of dressing is required for the recipient skin graft site?

Wet dressing

50

Which type of suture is most often used to close the skin in plastic surgery to achieve a cosmetic closure?

Nylon

51

What happens during the aging process?

Elastin fibers decrease in number & adipose is lost – causes wrinkling & sagging. Collagen is lost, Slow healing.

52

Which layer of epidermis is found only in the thick skin areas such as the palms of the hands and soles of the feet?

Stratum Lucidum

53

What is the thick-strength layer of the dermis known as?

Reticular Layer

54

Which sudoriferous glands are found in the axillae?

Apocrine

55

Which sudoriferous glands are distributed over most of the body and open directly to the skin.

Merocrine

56

What is the anterior portion of the palate that consists of the palatine processes of each maxilla called?

Hard palate

57

Congenital malformations of the palate occur during which part of the pregnancy?

1st Trimester

58

How many phalanges are in a normal hand?

14

59

What is a diarthrosis joint?

synovial joints

60

Which artery provides blood to the medial side of the forearm?

Ulnar

61

What is radial dysplasia?

club hand, congenital, failure of the radium to develop

62

Which surgical procedure is performed to improve the cosmetic appearance of the chin by correcting micrognathia?

Mentoplasty

63

What is microtia?

congenital absence of part or all of the ear

64

Where would an autograft be taken from to replace the congenital absence of an ear?

Costal Cartilage

65

Which instrument set(s) should a surgical technologist open for an autograft to treat microtia?

Thoracic Set

66

Which instrument would a surgeon need to dissect the nasal mucosa during a cleft palate repair?

Cottle Elevator

67

Which plastic surgical procedures are considered a “clean” and not sterile procedure?

Rhinoplasty

68

During replantation, which drug may be used to prevent vasospasm?

Papaverine

69

Which type of flap allows the tissue to be transferred to remain attached to its blood supply?

Pedicle flap

70

Which type of instrument will be attached to the Mayo stand during a cleft palate repair?

Self- retaining mouth gag

71

How many carpal bones compose each wrist?

8

72

What is blepharochalasis?

A condition in which there is a lack of tone or relaxation of the eyelid skin, causing the lid to appear thin and wrinkled

73

Which analgesic can be given to a patient who is about to undergo plastic surgery?

Meperidine

74

Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery All Key Terms Skeleton – page 386 – Study guide 1. What is the longest & most complex of the synovial joints?

The Knee

75

2. Which ligament originates from the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia and extends to the lateral condyle of the femur?

anterior cruciate ligament

76

What is pronation? Supination?

Pro- pointing a body part downward.. Sup-pointing a body part upward

77

Know examples of a cartilaginous Joint?

Manubrium, ribs, Sternum, pubic symphysis

78

Osteochondritis-

inflammation of bone and cartilage.

79

Osteomalacia-

Abnormal condition characterized by softening of the bone due to a loss of calcification of the bone.

80

Osteonecrosis-

Destruction and death of bone tissue.

81

What is Pott’s, Colle’s, and Transcervical Fx?

Pott's fracture- fracture of the fibulia near the ankle. Colle's Fracture- fracture of the distal radius that occurs at the epiphysis within 2.54 centimeters of the wrist joint, forcing the hand into a dorsal & lateral position.

82

Which bone articulates with the distal tibia & fibula?

Talus

83

Where is the medial malleous?

medial prominence medial side of tibia (ankle)

84

Where is the sacroiliac joint?

between the sacrum and the ilium of the pelvis

85

What is the anterior portion of the coxal bone?

Pubis or pubic bone

86

What articulates with the head of the femur?

Tibia Acetabelum

87

Which bone articulates with the glenoid cavity to form the shoulder joint?

humerus

88

The end of which bone articulates with the manbrium?

Clavicle

89

What articulates with the distal clavicle and provides attachments for muscles of the arms and chest?

Acromion Process

90

What medical term is used to refer to the first seven rib pairs?

true ribs

91

Which bones are attached to each thoracic vertebrae?

Ribs

92

What is the initial step in the body's repair of a fracture?

Fracture Hematoma(BLOOD CLOT)

93

Which type of cells break down and assimilate bone?

osteoclasts

94

Where are the osteocytes located?

LACUNA

95

What are the distal and proximal ends of long bones called?

EPIPHYSES

96

Which bone is posterior to the mandible and anterior to the trachea?

HYOID bone

97

What is the name of the second cervical vertebra?

AXIS

98

The first cervical vertebra is?

atlas

99

During total hip replacement surgery, which instrument is used to replace the femoral head?

FEMORAL COMPONENT

100

Which hemostatic agents are used in orthopedics?

GELFOAM, AVITENE, THROMBIN, BONE WAX.