Surg Tech Practice 2 (Nicola)

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1

The right lung is divided into_____lobes.

three.

2

The sterile tourniquet cuff is applied

during draping but before other drapes are placed over the upper extremity

3

The structure that extends from the level of the foramen magnum to the pons is the_____.

medulla oblongata.

4

The structures within the ventricles that produce CSF are the_____.

choroid plexuses.

5

The suprarenal arteries feed the________.

adrenals.

6

The surgical excision of a dilated portion of the aortic wall with immediate reconstruction using a synthetic graft is known as an__________.

abdominal aortic aneurysm resection.

7

The typical order for compression plating is______.

drill, depth gauge, tap, screw.

8

The use of screw and plate geometry to apply forces at a fracture site is called_____.

dynamic compression.

9

The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is the________.

mitral.

10

The valve between the right atrium and right ventricle is the_______.

tricuspid.

11

The venous cannulation for cardiopulmonary bypass is placed in the_______and the arterial cannula is placed in the___________.

vena cavae, aortic root.

12

The________receives unoxygenated blood from the body.

right atrium.

13

The_______artery supplies blood to the walls of the left atrium and left ventricle.

circumflex.

14

The______pumps blood into the aorta.

left ventricle.

15

The______pumps blood into the pulmonary artery.

right ventricle.

16

The_____serves as a relay station for sensory impulses by channeling them to appropriate regions of the cortex for interpretation_____.

thalamus.

17

The____is the largest of the cranial nerves and has three branches.

trigeminal.

18

The____nerve has autonomic motor fibers that supply the heart and a variety of smooth muscles.

vagus.

19

The____nervous system functions independently and continuously without conscious effort.

autonomic.

20

The____plays a key role in maintaining homeostasis by regulating a variety of visceral activities.

hypothalamus.

21

The___nerve supplies the muscles that act in adjusting the amount of light that enters the eyes.

oculomotor

22

To replace a femoral head, which of the following equipment is/are not necessary?

screw driver.

23

Turning the hand so that the palm is upward is referred to as_______.

supination.

24

Typical suture gauge for a femoral vascular anastomosis is________.

5-0.

25

Visualization of a joint for diagnosis and conservative treatment of joint disease is called

arthroscopy

26

What are the correct prep parameters for a rotator cuff repair?

The entire affected arm, past the shoulder and up to the border of the neck.

27

What degree scopes are used during knee arthroscopy?

30 and 70.

28

What is the best temperature for irrigation used on the brain?

body temperature.

29

What is the correct position for a total-hip arthroplasty?

lateral, affected side up.

30

What is the correct statement that describes a variation of an aneurysm?

Atherosclerotic aneurysms are classified as true aneurysms.

31

What is the grading scale for the Outerbridge Test used to measure patella synovium?

Grade 1-6.

32

What is the primary reason for performing a total-hip arthroplasty?

degenerative joint disease.

33

What is the widely used amino amide used in surgery?

lidocaine/hydrochloride

34

What is phacoemulsification used for?

Removal of a cataract

35

Which approach would be best for an aortofemoral bypass?

anterior abdominal.

36

Which arteries supply the neck and head outside of the skull with blood?

External carotid.

37

Which arteries supply the pelvis and perineum with blood?

internal iliac.

38

Which artery supplies the upper portion of the digestive tube, the spleen, and the liver?

Celiac.

39

Which bone articulates proximally with the glenoid cavity?

humerus.

40

Which bone articulates with the distal tibia and fibula?

talus.

41

Which choice indicates the correct sequence of events for clamping of the vessels prior to an arteriotomy?

heparinize patient, apply proximal clamp, apply distal clamp, incise vessel.

42

Which clamp is removed last during a carotid endarterectomy?

internal carotid artery.

43

Which condition results from a failure of the bony structures around the neural tube to close properly during embryonic development?

spina bifida.

44

Which condition results from an obstruction of the flow of CSF, overproduction of CSF, or improper absorption of CSF?

hydrocephalus.

45

Which division of the nervous system is responsible for slowing the heart rate?

Parasympathetic.

46

Which gauge suture is appropriate for closing a carotid arteriotomy?

6-0

47

Which graft material cannot be safely used in the popliteal space?

porous Dacron graft.

48

Which graft requires preclotting by the surgical team?

Dacron grafts

49

Which instrument is preferred for removal of a foreign body in the bronchial tree of infants and children?

rigid bronchoscope.

50

Which is the correct position for an anterior cervical discectomy and fusion?

supine with head turned away from the affected side.

51

Which is the longest vein in he body?

greater saphenous.

52

Which mechanical device is designed for circulatory support after cardiac procedures?

intra-aortic balloon pump.

53

Which medication is always added to injectable saline for intra-arterial irrigation?

Heparin.

54

Which of the following accurately describes the layers of an artery from inner to outer layers?

tunica intima, tunica media, tunica adventitia

55

Which of the following articulates with the head of the femur?

acetabulum.

56

Which of the following hemostatic agent(s) is/are not used in orthopedics?

Xeroform.

57

Which of the following is not a positioning aid for intracranial procedures?

Kocher headrest

58

Which of the following is not considered a sterile procedure?

bronchoscopy

59

Which of the following is usually a result from a tear in the branch of the middle meningeal artey and can cause rapid deterioration?

epidural hematoma

60

Which of the following pieces of equipment would not typically be used during a knee arthroscopy?

insufflator

61

Which of the following statements accurately describes the characteristics of a vein?

Veins have specialized structures called valves.

62

Which of the following statements concerning abdominal aneurysms is correct?

Most abdominal aneurysms arise below the level of the renal arteries.

63

Which of the following statements concerning blood pressure is incorrect?

Venous BP is much higher than arterial BP.

64

Which of the following statements correctly outlines the procedure to turn a bone flap?

incision, raise muscle flap, perforator, crainotome.

65

What is Recession or resection the surgical treatment for?

Used to correct strabismus. Recession is more effective when performed on vertical acting muscles. Resection is more effective on lateral rectus

66

What instrument is used to remove the recipient cornea during keratoplasty?

Trephine

67

Why is Gelfoam used in ENT surgical procedures?

Reduce Edema

68

What does the term congenital mean?

Present at birth

69

Which term is commonly referred to as the throat?

pharynx

70

What is the name of the lowest tracheal cartilage that forms a ridge between the right and left main stem bronchi?

Carina

71

What is the enlargement of a structure due to an increase in the size of its cells called?

Hypertrophy

72

What does otosclerosis describe?

Middle ear inflammation

73

What is the pinna also know as?

Auricle

74

What are the three sections of the pharynx?

Nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx

75

Which tonsils are removed during the procedure called tonsillectomy?

Palatine

76

Which tonsils are removed during the procedure called adenoidectomy?

Pharyngeal

77

What are the conchae?

osseous ridges on the lateral walls of the nasal cavity

78

What terms describe the concavity on the tympanic membrane where the malleus is attached?

Umbo

79

What is one of the most frequent causes of epiglottitis?

Virus

80

What is a reduction of hearing referred to as?

Deafness

81

What is the usual cause of a vocal cord nodule?

Vocal abuse

82

In what position will the adult patient be placed to undergo tonsillectomy under local anesthesia?

Sitting

83

What is the most common autologous site for securing a graft for tympanoplasty?

temporalis fascia

84

What does Panendoscopy involve viewing of?

Esophagus

85

What structures are removed during UPPP?

tonsils, adenoids, uvula, soft palate

86

Name the structure that separates the outer and middle ear.

Tympanic membrane

87

Which of the following is not a normal feature of the tympanic membrane?

Convex

88

Name the ossicles of the middle ear from lateral to medial.

malleus, incus, stapes

89

What does the footplate of the stapes rest upon?

Oval window

90

What fluid fills the spaces of the bony labyrinth?

Perilymph

91

What is the function of the cristae located in the inner ear?

Control dynamic equillibrium

92

What is the seventh cranial nerve also known as?

Facial nerve

93

What is an otoscope used for?

View outer ear

94

Why is nitrous oxide NOT used during reconstructive ear surgery?

It expands the middle ear

95

What is a Tympanotomy?

An incision into the tympanic membrane

96

Which piece of equipment assumes the role of the heart and lungs while undergoing cardiopulmonary bypass?

pump oxygenator (heart and lung machine)

97

Which portion is generally utilized for lobectomy?

Posterolateral

98

Which procedure includes a prep from midabdomen to toes, with the affected leg prepped circumferentially?

femoral-popliteal bypass.

99

Which procedure involves the release of the median nerve from the transverse carpal ligament?

carpal tunnel release.

100

Which solution should never be found on a back table during a CABG?

Water.