biopsych

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1

With respect to vision, wavelength is to intesdity as

a) vision is to audition

b) Wavelenght is to color

c) color is to brightness

d) color is to loudness

c) color is to patter

c) color is to brightness

2

In humans, all of the visual receptors are in the

a)last layer of the retina to be reached by light entering the eye

b) first layer of the retina to be reached by light entering the eye

c) cornea

d) middle neural layer of the retina

e) blindspot

a) last layer of the retina to be reached by light entering the eye

3

Transduction refers to the

a) perception of light

b) conversion of one form of energy to another

c) transmission of sensory signals to the cortex

d) transmission of visual signals to the cortex

e) disappearance of visual stimuli

b) conversion of one form of energy to another

4

Most of the cones are concentrated in the

a) nasal hemiretinas

b) temporal hemirtinas

c) foveas

d) periphery of the retinas

e) blind spot

c) foveas

5

The retina-geniculate-striate system terminates in the

a) striate cortex

b) primary visual cortex

c) neocortex of the parietal lobe

d) both A and B

e) both A and C

d) both A and B

6

The retina-geniculate-striate system is organized

a) retinotopically

b) contralterally

c) from top to bottom

d) from left to right

e) on the basis of wavelength

A) retinotopically

7

Magnocellular neurons are particularly responsive to

a) color

b) movement

c) detail

d) stationary patterns

e) all of the above

b) movement

8

A compelling illustration of contrast enhancement is

a) the complementary color afterimage demostration

b) the Mach band demostration

c) later inhibition

d) color constancy

e) the cocktail sausage demostration

B) the Mach band demostration

9

The receptive fields of complex cortical cells are _________ than those of simple cortical cells

a) bigger

b) smaller

c) more circular

d) less circular

e) more monocular

A) biger

10

The existence of complementary color afterimages supports

a) the component theory

b) the opponent-process theory

c) the trichromatic theory

d) a hierarchiacal model

e) spatial-frequency theiory

B) the opponent-process theory

11

The dorsal stream flows from primary visual cortex to

a) inferotemporal cortex then to prestriate cortex

b) dorsal prestriate cortex then to inferotemporal cortex

c) inferotemporal cortex then to posterior parietal cortex

d) posterior parietal cortex then to inferotemporal cortex

e) dorsal prestriate cortex then to posterior parietal cortex

d) dorsal prestriate cortex then to posterior parietal cortx

12

In contrast to the "where" vs. "what" theory, Goodale and Milner have argued that the respective functions of the dorsal and ventral streams are

a) "what" vs "where"

b) "conscious perception" vs "control of behavior"

c) "control of behavior" vs. "conscious perception"

d) both A and B

e) both A and C

C) "control of behavior" vs. "conscious perception"

13

The receptive field of a visual neuron is the area of the

a) striate cortex within which stimulation can activate the neuron

b) striate cortex within which stimulation can inhibit the neuron

c) visual field within which the suitable visual stimulus can influence the firing of the neuron

d) retina within which stimulation with diffuse light can activate the neuron

e) all of the above

e) all of the above

14

Patients with prosopagnosia

a) can usually recognize a face as a face

b) have difficulty telling one face from another

c) report seeing faces as a jumble of individual parts, rather than as a unitary whole

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

D) all of the above

15

Akinetopisia is associated with damage to

a) MT/V5

b) primary visual cortex

c) posterior parietal cortex

d) the dorsal route

e) none of the above

a) MT/V5

16

Each cortical level of a sensory system (primary, secondary, ect.) is itself composed of different areas that mediate different psychological processes. This principle of sensory system organization is referred to as

a) hierarchical organizaiton

b) functional segregation

c) the binding problem

d) parallel processing

e) serial processing

b) functional segregation

17

The loudness pitch, and timbre or a sound are directly related to the ______,respectively, of the vibrations that produced it.

a) frequency, amplitude, and complexity

b) amplitude, complexity, and frequency

c) amplitude, frequency, and complexity

d) complexity, frequency, and amplitude

e) none of above

c) amplitude, frequency, and complexity

18

Which of the following is part of the organ of Corti

a) the oval window

b) the hair cells

c) the basilar membrane

d) all of the above

e) both b and c

e) both B and C

19

The auditory system is organized

a) retinotopically

b)geographically

c) tonotopically

d) somatotopically

e) volumetrically

C)tonotopically

20

The axons of the auditory nerves synapse in the ipsilateral

a) cochlear nuclei

b) superior olivary nuclei

c) medial geniculate nuclei

d) inferior colliculi

e) lateral lemniscus

a) cochlear nuclei

21

The primary auditory cortex is in the

a) temporal lobe

b) lateral fissure

c) occipital lobe

d) frontal lobe

e) both a and b

E) both a and b

22

Bilateral damage to which of the following auditory structures would be most likely to produce complete and permanent hearing loss

a) primary auditory cortex

b) superior colliculus

c) cochlear nerve

d) secondary auditory cortex

e) association cortex

c) cochlear nerve

23

The somatosensory system is

a) exteroceptive

b) proprioceptive

c) interoceptive

d) all of the above

e) both B and C

d) all of the above

24

The area of the body that is innervated by the left and right dorsal roots of a given segment of the spinal cord is a

a) dermatome

b) nociceptive area

c) Ruffini ending

d) Merkel's disk

e) None of the above

A) dermatome

25

The dorsal-column medial-lemniscus system is particularly responsive to

a) sound and movement

b) touch and proprioception

c) motor output

d) proprioception and temperature

e) pain and temperature

b) touch and proprioception

26

The anterolateral system includes the

a) spinothalamic tract

b) spinoreticular tract

c) spinotectal tract

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

d) all of the above

27

Primary somatosensory cortex is in the

a) precentral syrus

b) postcentral gyrus

c) occipital lobe

d) frontal lobe

e) temporal lobe

B) postcentral gyrus

28

Electrical stimulation of the periaqueductal gray (PAG) produces

a) opiates

b) serotonin

c) analgesia (pain relief)

d) opiate receptors

e) pain

c) analgesia (pain relief)

29

Asterognosia and asomatognosia are the two major type of

a) prosopagnosia

b) apraxia

c) somatosensory agnosia

d) contralateral neglect

e) stereognosis

c) somatosensory agnosia

30

Olfactory receptor cells

a) contain no receptor molecules

b) survive for only a few weeks and are replaced by new ones

c) have no axons

d) each contain three different receptor molecules

e) each contain 350 different receptor molecules

B) survive for only a few weeks and are replaced by new ones

31

The olfactory tracts project from the olfactory bulbs to the structure of the medial temporal lobes, particularly to the

a) amygdala

b) thalamus

c) piriform cortex

d) all of the above

e) both a and c

e) both A and C

32

All of the olfactory receptors with the same receptor protein

a) are located in the same part of the mucosa

b) are scattered throughout the mucosa

c) project to the same location of the olfactory bulb

d) both A and C

e) both B and C

e) both B and C

33

___________ are found in _______, which are often located around small protuberances called _____

a) taste receptors: taste buds: papillae

b) taste buds: taste receptors

c) taste receptors; papillae taste buds

d) taste buds, papillae; taste receptors

e) Papillae; taste receptors; taste buds

a) taste receptors; taste buds papillae

34

Gustatory afferents leave the mouth as part of the

a) facial (7th cranial nerve)

b) glossopharyngeal (9th) cranial nerve

c) vagus (10th) cranial nervew

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

d) all of the above

35

Gustation is to olfaction as

a) flavor is to order

b) onions are to potatoes

c) thalamus is to neocortex

d) ageusia is to anosmia

e) NaCL is to thiamine

d) ageusia is to anosmia

36

The dorsolateral prefontal association cortex

a) is important in the initiation of complex voluntary movements

b) sends projections to the primary and secondary motor cortices

c) plays a critical role in the elicitation of relexes

d) both A and B

37

The supplementary motor area and the premotor cortex are considered to be areas of

a) the parietal lobe

b) association cortex

c) secondary somatosensory cortex

d) secondary motor cortex

e) the primary motor cortex

d) the secondary motor cortex

38

Neurons that fire in the response to making a particular response, observing somebody else making the response, or just thinking about the response are called

a) supplementary motor neurons

b) premotor neurons

c) mirror neurons

d) both A and B

e) both A and C

c) mirror neurons

39

The somatotopic map of the primary motor cortex is called the

a) motor homunculus

b) somatosensory homunculus

c) stereognosis

d) somatotopic homunculus

e) supplementrary map

a) motor homunculus

40

The current view of primary motor cortex function is influenced by studies that found that long bursts of stimulation applied to the primary motor cortex elicit

a) simple movements of one joint

b) simple contractions of one muscle

c) complex natural-looking response sequences

d) reflexes

e) either A or B

C) complex natural-looking response sequences

41

The cerebellum is thought to

a) correct ongoing movements that deviate from their intended course

b) play a major role in motor learning, particularly when timing is critical

c) conduct signals f rom the cortex to the spinal cord

d) all of the above

E) both A and B

E ) both A and B

42

In general, the ventromedial descending motor tracts control the muscles of the

a) thumbs

b) fingers

c)trunk

d) toes

e) face

c) trunk

43

When a motor neuron fires, all the muscle fibers of its motor

a) unit contract together

b) pool contract together

c) segment contract together

d) equivalence contract together

e) feedback contract together

A) unit contract together

44

Muscle spindles provide the CNS with information about muscle

a) fatigue

b) length

c) tension

d) color

e) location

B) lenght

45

The patellar tendon reflex is a

a) withdraw reflex

b) reciprocal reflex

c) stretch reflex

d) recurrent reflex

e) multisynaptic reflex

c) stretch reflex

46

Recurrent collateral inhibition is mediated by

a) cocontraction

b) Renshaw cells

c) Golgi organs

d) muscle spindles

e) reciprocal innervation

B) Renshaw cells

47

The fact that the same basic movement can be carried out in different ways involving different muscles is called

a) cocantraction

b) a central sensorimotor program

c) motor equivalence

d) recurrent collateral inhibition

e) sensorimotor equipotentiality

c) motor equivalence

48

Response chunking and changing the level of control are thought to be important processes in

a) the stretch reflex

b) walking

c) sensorimotor learning

d) the withdrawal reflex

e) recurrent collateral inhibition

c) sensorimotor learning

49

Biopsychology is the scientific study of the

a) biology of behavior

b) brain

c) chemistry of the brain

d) biology of the brain

e) biology of cognition

a) biology of behavior

50

Scientists study the unobservable

a) with electron micrioscopes

b) with microelectrodes

c) by scientific inference

d) by direct observation

e) by direct measurement

c) by scientific inference

51

scientific progress is most likely when different approaches are focused on a single problem, particularly when the strengths of one approach compensate for the weaknesses of the others. This is called

a) converging operation

b) comparative analysis

c) critical thinking

d) scientific inference

e) functional imaging

c)

a) converging operation

52

In some studies, subjects are not assigned to conditions; instead subjects are selected because they are already living under these conditions (e.g. alcohol consumers and alcohol nonconsumers). Such studies are

a) unethical

b) case studies

c) true experiments

d) randomized experiments

e) quasiexperiments

e) quasiexperiments

53

The main difference between human brains and the brains of their mammalian relatives is that human brains tend to be bigger and

a) are white

b) are gray

c) have more cortex

d) have two hemispheres

e) both c and d

c) have more cortex

54

Research that is intended to bring about direct benefit to humankind is

a) biopsychological research

b) pure research

c) case-study research

d) applied research

e) correlational research

d) applied research

55

The division of biopsychology that studies the neural mechanisms of behavior through the direct manipulation of the brains of laboratory animals in controlled experiements is

a) physiological psychology

b) psychophysiology

c) neuropsychology

d) cognitive neuroscience

e) both A and B

A) physiological psychology

56

An advantage of biopsychological research on nonhuman animals as opposed to humans is that

a) the brains of nonhumans are simpler

b) there are fewer eithical constraints in studying nonhumans

c) research in several species makes it possible to use the comparative approach

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

D) all of the above

57

The term "within-subject design" refers to experiements in which

a) each subject is exposed to each condition of the experiement

b) a different group of subjects is tested in each condition of the experiement

c) some groups of subjects receive drug injections

d) invasive procedures are used, that is, those in which the internal physiology of the subject is manipulated

e) either c or D

A) each subject is exposed to each condition of the experiement

58

Which of the following make it difficult to make causal interpretations of experiements results?

a) independent-variable

b) dependent variable

c) confounded variables

d) constant variable

e) none of the above

c) confounded variable

59

Psychobiology, biological psychology, and behavioral neuroscience are all approximate synonyms for

a) cognitive behavior

b) behavioral psychology

c) biopsychology

d) neurophysiology

e) neuroscience

c) biopsycholgy

60

A major purpose of Chapter 2 of biopsychology is to teach you NOT to think about the biology of behavior in terms of

a) instinct

b) Cartesian dualism

c) traditional dichotomies

d) psychology

e) the brain

c) traditional dichotomies

61

The two genes, one on each chromosome of a pair, that control the same trait are called

a) dominants

b) phenotypes

c)genotypes

d) alleles

d) alleles

62

Epigenetic investigation, although of recent origin, has already identified

a) many active areas of nongene (junk) DNA

b) various kinds of small RNA molecules

c) histone remodeling as an important mechanism by which experience can influence gene expression

d) DNA methylation as an important epigenetic mechanism

e) All of the above

E) all of the above

63

The most extensive study of twins reared apart is the

a) British study

b) Canadian study

c) New York study

d) Minnesota study

e) North African study

d) Minnesota study

64

Genes can be turned on and off by transcription factors acting on_____

a) sex-linked traits

b) enhancers

c) phenylketonuria (PKU)

d) all of the above

e) non of the above

B) enhancers

65

Which of the following refer to evolutionary changes that are NOT adaptive?

a) Spandrels

b) exaptations

c) homologous structures

d) analogous structures

e) both B and C

A) spandrels

66

Which of the following is a main component of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection?

a) Heritablitity

b) Variation

C) Selection

d) all of the above

e) A and C only

d) all of the above

67

The sensitive period for PKU is the early period during which

A) identified sufferers are fed phenylalanine-reduced diets

B) excessive phenylalanine has substantial effects on neural development

C) Phenylalanine can be converted to phenylalanine hydroxylase

D) Both A and B

D) both A and B

68

Individuals who posses two identical genes for a particular trait

a) are homozygous for the trait

b) are heterozygous for that trait

c) cannot have offspring of the same phenotype for that trait

d) cannot have offspring of the same genotype for that trait

e) none of the above

a) are homozygous for that trait

69

The cerebral aquaduct connects the

a) lateral ventricles

b) third and fourth ventricles

c) fourth ventricle and central canal

d) left and right hemispheres

e) none of the above

B) third and fourth ventricles

70

To locate the terminals of axons that project from a particular brain structure, an investigator would employ

a) a retrograde tracing technique

b) an anterograde tracing technique

c) labeled chemicals that are readily transported to the neurons's nucleus

d) a Golgi stain

e) a Nissl Stain

b) an anterograde tracing technique

71

Which of the following functions are performed by glial cells?

a) provide support structure in the brain

b) Modulate neural communication

c) remove waste and cellular debris

d) all of these

e) A and C only

D) all of these

72

Which of the following kinds of neurons can be found in the neocortex

a) stellate cells

b) pyramidal cells

c) chandelier cells

d) both A and B

e) non of the above

d) both A and B

73

Stephanie's anatomy class is studying major structures of the brain. She is studying the tectum, tegmentum, and superior and inferior colliculi. Her class is studying the ______

a) telencephalon

b) diencephalon

c) Mesencephalon

d) metencephalon

e) myelencephalon

c) Mesencephalon

74

Between the frontal and parietal lobes is the

a) central fissure

b) lateral fissure

c)corpus callosum

d) temporal lobe

e) longitudinal fissure

a) central fissure

75

The neurons that join the spinal cord via the dorsal roots are

a) sensory

b) motor

c) tracts

d) afferent

e) both A and B

e) both A and D

76

In general, afferent nerves carry sensory information

a) to the CNA

b) to the PNS

c) from the CNS

d) from the cortex

e) from the brain

A) to the CNS

77

Myelination

a) causes cancer

b) penetrates the blood brain barrier

c) occurs only on Schwann cells

d) increases the speed of the axonal conduction

78

The two major divisions of the nervous system are the

a) ANs and the CNS

b) SNS and the CNS

c) PNS and the CNS

d) ANS and the PNS

e) brain and the spinal cord

c) PNS and CNS

79

the somatic nervous system

a) is part of the PNS

b) participates in sensory and motor interactions with the external enviorment

c) is part of the ANS

d) all of the above

e) both A and b

A) is part of the PNS

80

In cross section, spinal gray matter has four arms; among these are the two

a) ventral roots

b) ventral horns

c) posterior horns

d) posterior horns

e) both B and D

C) ventral horns

81

Which of the following generally acts to conserve the body's energy?

a) CNS

b) PNS

c) sympathetic nervous system

d) parasympathetic nervous system

e) somatic nervous system

d) parasympathic nervous system

82

The thalamus and hypothalamus compose the

a) brain stem

b) diencephalon

c) mesencephalon

d) medulla

e) pituitary

b) diencephalon

83

When a tumor near the cerebral aqueduct causes cerebrospinal fluid to accumulate in the brain, the disorder is

a) hydrocephalus

b) down syndrome

c) cranial elephantiasis

d) multiple sclerosis

e) Parkinson's disease

a) hydrocephalus

84

the blood brain barrier impedes the passage into cerebral neurons of

a) most proteins and other large molecules

b) small unnatural molecules

c) glucose

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

A) most proteins and other large molecules

85

Communication among mammalian neurons often occur

a) at points where their cell bodies contact one another

b) across gaps called dendrites

c) across synapes

d) at points where their axons contact one another

e) at points where dendrites contact one another

c) across synapes

86

Action potential begins with the

a) opening of voltage-activated sodium channels and influx of sodium into the cell

b) closing of ligand-activated chloride channels

c) opening of ligand-activated potassium channels and release of potassium from the cell

d) closing of voltage-activated potassium channels

e) closing of voltage-activated calcium channels

a) opening of voltage-activated sodium channels and influx of sodium into the cells

87

Another word for " integration" of postsynaptic potentials (temporally or spatially) is

a) "firing"

b) "all or none"

c) "summation"

d) "release"

e) " activation"

c) "summation"

88

Axodendritic synapses

a) are rare

b) often terminate on the axon hillock

c) always terminate on dendrites

d) sometimes terminate on cell bodies

e) A and C

c) always terminate on dendrites

89

Large peptide neurotransmitters (i.e. neuropeptides) are synthesized in the cell body and

a) stored in the Golgi complex until they are broken down

b) released by the Golgi complex into the synapes

c) transported via microtubules to the terminal buttons

d) stored in vesicles with small-molecules neurotransmitters

e) transported along the axons to the nodes of Ranvier

c) transported via microtubules to the terminal buttons

90

Glial cells have been shown to

a) release chemical tranmitters

b) contain receptors for neurotransmitters

c) conduct signals

d) participate in neurotransmitter reuptake

e) all of the above

e) all of the above

91

in the presence of the appropriate enzyme, dopamine is converted to

a) L-Doppa

b) Tyrosine

c) norepinephrine

d) epinephrine

e) serotinin

c) norepinephrine

92

During the repolarization state of an action potentional

a) sodium channels are open and potassium channels are closed

b) sodium channels are closed and potassium channels are open

c) both sodium and potassium channels are open

d) both sodium and potassium channels are closed

e) none of the above

b)sodium channels are closed and potassium channels are open

93

After release, neurotransmitters can be deactivated/removed from the synapse by

a) reuptake

b) enzymatic degradation

c) G proteins

d) all of the above

e) both A and B

E) both A and B

94

Second messengers

A) are synthesized in response to activation of metabotropic receptors

B) can influence metabolic activities of the cell

C) can induce IPSPs or EPSPs

D) can bind to DNA to influence protein synthesis

E) All of the above

E) all of the above

95

The process of neurotransmitter release is referred to as

a) excitation

b) exocytosis

c) synthesis

d) metabolism

e) expulsion

b) exocytosis

96

Once released, neurotransmitter molecules typically produce signals in postsynaptic neurons by

a) binding to presynaptic receptors

b) binding to postsynaptic receptors

c) entering postsynaptic neurons

d) binding directly to calcium ions

e) attaching to vesicles

b) binding to postsynaptic recetors

97

Which of the following is a process that acts to distribute ions evenly in neural tissue

a) random motion, which tends to move ions down their concentration gradients

b) electrostatic pressure, where like repels like and opposites attract

c) sodium potassium pumps, which distribut Na+ and K+ ions

d) both A and B

e) both A and C

D) both A and B

98

Locals EPSPs are

a) graded respones

b) postsynaptic responses

c) transmitted decrementally

d) depolarizations

e) all of the above

d) all of the above

99

A neuron normally fires when

a) its sodium-potassium pumps are stimulated

b) there is a single EPSP

c) there is a single IPSP

d) the degree of depolarization on the axon adjacent to the hillock exceeds the threshold of activation

e) it buttons are stimulated

D) the degree of depolarization on the axon adjacent to the hillock exceeds the threshold of activation

100

the brief period of time immedicatley after the initation of an action potential when it is impossible to initaiate another one in the same neuron is called

a) threshold of excitiation

b) threshold of inhibion

c)absolute refractory period

d) IPSP

e) relative refractory period

C) absolute refractory period

101

the release of neurotransmitter molecules from terminal buttons is often triggered by

a) an efflux (exit) of sodium ion

b) an influx (entrance) of calcium ions

c) the sodium potassium pump

d) the arrival of an IPSP at the axon hillock

e) the release of calcium ions from the buttons

b) an influx (entrance) of calcium ions

102

Drugs that facilitate the activity of the synapse of a particular neurotransmitter are said to be ___________ of that neurotransmitter

a) facilitators

b) agonists

c) antagonists

d) autoreceptors

e) endorphins

b) agonists

103

Which of the following is an endocannbinoid

a) nitric oxide

b) aspartate

c) anandamide

d) THC

e) indolamine

C)anandamide

104

in the open-field test, a high bolus (droppings) count is frequently used as an indicator of

a) aggression

b) fearfulness

c) motor activity

d) attention

e) defense

b) fearfulness

105

which of the following is a weakness of the gene knockout technique as a method of biopsychological research

a) most behavioral traits are influenced by many interacting genes

b) elimination of one gene often influences the expression of the other genes

c) the effects of some gene knockouts are likely to depend on experience

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

d) all of the above

106

Most cognitive neuroscientific research is based on the assumption that

a) complex cognitive precesses from the combination of simple constituent cognitive processes.

b) each constituent cognitive process is mediated by activity in a particular area of the brain

c) constituent cognitive processes tend to be localized in subcortical structures

d) all of the above

e) both a and ab

e) both a and b

107

Stereotaxic surgery can be used to reach specific areas of the brain for the purpose of

a) creating lesions

b) implanting electrodes

c) placing cannulas

d) all of the above

e) a and c only

d) all of the above

108

the brainbow techique

a) is an extension of the green fluorescent protein technique

b) is a technique for labeling neurons in an animal different colors so that each can be traced

c) has not yet been applied to neural tissue in multicellular animals

d) all of the above

e) a and b only

e) a and b only

109

electrooculography (EOG) is a technique for monitoring

a) penile engorgement

b) cortical activity

c) blood pressure

d) eye movement

e) muscle tension

d) eye movement

110

Neuropsychological assessment is useful because it can

a) assist diagnosis

b) influence treatment

c) be the basis for effective counseling

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

d) all of the above

111

functional MRI generates images of increases to areas of the brain of

a) oxygenated blood flow

b) water flow

c) nitric oxide flow

d) alpha waves

e) GFP

a) oxygenated blood flow

112

an important advantage of the oral route of drug administration in comparison to other conventional routes is its relative

a) predictability

b) ease

c) safety

d) all of the above

e) both b and c

e) both b and c

113

Unlike brain-imaging techniques (fmri) TMS permits the study of _____ between human cortical activity and cognition

a) links

b) causal relations

c) correlations

d) neural connections

e) communication

b) causal relations

114

three doctors are trying to choose the best physiological method to use. Dr. X wants to identify the major tracts (connections) in his patient's brain. Dr. Y is interested in discovering what parts of an intact brain are active during a language learning task. Dr. Z wants to know exactly when brain activity changes in a visual search task. Dr. X should use ______, Dr. Y should use_______ and Dr. Z should use_____

a) a diffusion tensor imaging; fMRI; ERP

b) CT; intracellular recording; fMRI

c)MEG; ERP; PET

d) SCR; diffusion tensor imaging; EMG

e) TMS; ERP; fMRI

a) diffusion tensor imaging; fMRI; ERP

115

A state of decreased sensitivity to a drug as a result of previous exposure to the drug is called

a) drug tolerance

b) drug sensitization

c) drug withdraw

d) physical dependence

e) psychological dependence

a) drug tolerance

116

the nicotine in tobacco acts on which receptors

a) cannabinoid receptors

b) acetylcholine receptors

c) opioid receptors

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

b) Acetylcholine receptors

117

according to the text, addicts are drug users who

a) are tolerant and psychologically dependent

b) are physically and psychologically dependent

c) are tolerant and physically dependent

d)continue to use a drug despite the drug's adverse effects on their health and social life, and despite their efforts to stop.

e) continue to use a drug because they are locked into a cycle of drug taking and withdrawal effectsq

d)continue to use a drug despite the drug's adverse effects on their health and social life, and despite their efforts to stop

118

in addition to the nucleus accumbens, the prefrontal cortex, the hippocampus and the amygdala are thought to play major roles in

a) the initial taking of addictive drugs

b) drug tolerance

c) the drug withdrawal syndrome

d) drug sensitization

e)severe chronic addiction

a) the initial taking of addictive drugs

119

the conversion of drugs in the body to nonactive chemical is referred to as drug

a) tolerance

b) metabolism

c) withdrawal

d) blocking

e) habituation

b) metabolism

120

taking one drug can often produce tolerance to other drugs; such tolerance is called

a) generalized tolerance

b) cross tolerance

c) contingent tolerance

d) functional tolerance

e) transferred tolerance

b) cross tolerance

121

after the termination of exposure to some drugs, there are withdrawal effects that are usually

a) similar to the initial effects of the drug

b) opposite to the initial effects of the drug

c) similar to the initial effects of the drug, but more severe

d) similar to the initial effects of the drug, but much less severe

d) similar to the initial effect of the drug, but much less sever

e) no longer than a few minutes

b) opposite to the initial effects of the durg

122

many researchers believe that a major cause of drug relapse is

a) priming

b)stress

c) drug-related environment cues

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

d) all of the above

123

which of the following is a depressant

a) methamphetamine

b) alcohol

c) cocaine

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

b) alcohol

124

the lack of strong support for early physical dependence theories of addiction lent indirect support to the notion that the primary factors in drug addiction are

a) withdrawal effects

b) tolerance effects

c) conditioned withdrawal effects

d) conditioned compensatory respones

e) the drug's positive incentive properties

e) the drug's positive incentive properites

125

psychoactive drugs are those that affect

a) the activity of the central nervous system

b) subjective experience

c) behavior

d) all of the above

e) psychotic behavior

d) all of the above

126

cirrhosis and korsakoff's syndrome are two of the dire consequences of chronic______ consumption

a) nicotine

b) morphine

c) cocaine

d) marijuana

e) alcohol

e) alcohol

127

according to Siegel, heroin users are more likely to die from an overdose when they

a) take heroin in an environment in which they have frequently taken it before

b) take heroin subcutaneously

c) take heroin in an environment in which they have never taken it before

d) take heroin in an environment in which they have often taken other drugs before

e) buy their heroin from a friend

c) take heroin in an environment in which they have never taken it before

128

evidence that the nucleus accumbens is involved in drug addictions comes from reports that

a) animals will self-administer microinjections of addictive drugs directly into the nucleus accumbens

b) microinjection of addictive drugs into the nucleus accumbens can lead to the development of conditioned place preferences

c) lesions to the nucleus accumbens reduce the rewarding effects of systemic drugs

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

d) all of the abov

129

cell bodies of the mesotelencephalic dopamine system are in the

a) midbrain

b)substantia nigra

c) ventral tegmental area

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

d) all of the above

130

_______ tolerance to psychoactive drugs is tolerance that occurs because less drug gets to its site of action of the brain

a) contingent

b) metabolic

c) situationally specific

d) functional

e) behavioral

b) metabolic

131

which of the following routes of drug administration offers the least opportunity to counteract the effects of an overdose?

a) IV

b) IM

c) SC

d) through the mucus membranes

e) oral

a) IV

132

Many chemicals are kept from passing from the circulatory system of the CNS into CNS neurons by

a) reflexology

b) tolerance

c) the blood-brain barrier

d) the cerebrospinal fluid

e) withdrawal

c) the blood brain barrier

133

a key point of the incentive-sensitization theory of addiction is that

a) the positive-incentive value of addictive drugs habituates with use

b) the pleasure-producing effects of addictive drugs are sensitized

c) although the anticipated pleasurable effects of addicted drugs increase as the result of drug use, their actual pleasurable effects may not

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

c) although the anticipated pleasurable effects of addicted drugs increase as the result of drug use, their actual pleasurable effects may not

134

In comparison to the cortices of rats that had been reared in enriched environments, the cortices of rats that had been reared by themselves in barren cages

a) were thinner

b) had less dendritic development

c) had fewer synapses per neuron

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

d) all of the above

135

the process of the growth of a fertilized egg into a mature nervous system is called

a) neural growth

b) neuroplasticity

c)neurodevelopment

d) psycholocial development

e)rewiring

d)neurodevelopment

136

the course of human cognitive development is thought to reflect development in the

a) prefrontal cortex

b) hippocampus

c) secondary neocortex

d) posterior parietal cortex

E0 hypothalamus

a) prefrontal cortex

137

in mammals, adult neurogenesis has been found to occur in the

a)hippocampus

b) olfactory bulb

c)amygdala

d) all of the above

e) both a and b

e) both a and b

138

after the formation of the neural tube, the number of cells destined to become part of the adult nervous system

a) actually declines

b) stays the same until the end of the neural-plate phase

c) increases rapidly

d) stays the same until the end of the neural groove phase

e) double and then stays the same until birth

c) increases rapidily

139

in addition to the radial migration of developing neurons there is considerable______ migration.

a) rapid

b) tangential

c) intermediate

d) circuitous

e) axonal

b) tangential

140

totipotentail (totipotent) means that a developing cell

a) is capable of developing into any type of cell in the organism

b) is totally committed to one cell for life

c) cannot divide

d) is totally developed and will not differentiate

e) is entirely potent in excitation or inhibition

a) is capable of developing into any type of cell in the organism

141

Early monocular deprivation

a) elimates ocular dominance columns

b) decreases the width of ocular dominance columns from the deprived eye

c) increases the width of ocular dominance columns from the nondeprived eye

d) causes ocular dominance columns to develop sooner

e) both b and c

e) both b and c

142

at the tip of each growing axon or dendrite is an amoeba-like process called

a) an amoeba cell

b) a growth cone

c) a pioneer cell

d) a blueprint cell

e) a growth cell

b) a growth cone

143

evidence suggests that many neurons die during development because

a) they are genetically programmed to die

b) of their inability to compete successfully for their target's life-preserving chemicals (neurotrophins)

c) of failures of regeneration

d) both A and B

e) both B and C

d) both a and b

144

the human brain grows after birth because of

a) synaptogenesis

b) myelination

c)increased dendritic branching

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

d) all of the above

145

cell adhesion molecules (CAM) are thought to mediate

a) differentiation

b) aggregation

c) proliferation

d) sprouting

e) cell dealth

b) aggregation

146

there seem to be two different mechanisms of neural migration: glial mediated migration and

a) amoeboid migration

b) somal translocation

c) pioneer migration

d) growth cone translocation

e) neural cresting

b)somal translocation

147

a core symptom of autism is

a)reduced ability to detect emotions and intentions of others

b) reduced capacity for social interaction and communication

c) tremor at rest

d) all of the above

e) both a and b

e) both a and b

148

the nervous system develops from the

a) growth cones

b) ectoderm

c) mesoderm

d) endoderm

e) none of the aboe

b) ectoderm

149

the neural crest develops into the

a) ventricular system

b)cortex

c) peripheral nervous system

d) circulartory system of the brain

e) neural tube

c) peripheral nervous system

150

a recent findings is the synaptogenesis depends on the presence of

a)astrocytes

b) neurons

c)growth cones

d) pioneer cones

e) guidance molecules

a) astrocytes

151

the neural groove develops into the neural

a) tube

b)plate

c) mesoderm

d)endoderm

e) cord

a)tube

152

apoptosis is safer than necrosis because apoptosis does not involve

a) neuron death

b) inflammation

c)suicide

d) degeneration

e)synapse rearrangement

b)inflammation

153

involuntary smacking and sucking movements of the lips, thrusting and rolling of the tongue, lateral jaw movements, and puffing of the cheeks are all symptoms of

a) tardive dyskinesia

b) dementia

c) general paresis

d) mercury poisoning

e) lead poinsong

a) tardive dyskinesis

154

a tremor is

a) a neoplasm

b) cluster of cells that grows independently of the rest of the body

c) an aneurysm

d) a thrombus

e) both a and b

e) both a and b

155

after the axon of a typical multipolar neuron is cut, the distal segment always degenerates. this is called ______ degeration

a) anterograde

b) retrograde

c) distal

d) proximal

e) transneural

a)anterograde

156

which of the following have neuroprotective effecss

a) estrogens

b) necrosis

c) oligodendrocytes

d) apoptosis stimulator protein

e) neuron culture

a) estrogens

157

tonic-clonic (grand mal) convulsions in epilepsy produce ____, which in itself can cause brain damage

a) absence discharge

b) incontinence

c) cerebral hypoxia

d) auro

e) 3 per second spike and wave

c) cerebral hypoxia

158

major neuropathological correlates of Alzheimer's disease are

a) neurofibrillary tangles in the neural cytoplasm

b) amyloid plaques

c) a decline in acetylcholine levels

d) all of the above

e) both a and b

d) all of the above

159

a study of the effects of brain damage on cognitive fuctions in doctors and scientists suggested that ______ played an important roll in their recovery.

a) age

b) field of specialization

c) congnitive reserve

d) sex

e) cognitive sprouting

c) cognitive reserve

160

reorganization of neural circuits after damage to the mammalian brain is thought to occur largely through the

a) the accurate regeneration of the damaged neurons

b) strengthening of existing connections by release from inhibition

c)establishment of new connections by collateral sprouting

d) all of the above

e) both B and C

e) both b and c

161

the major neurochemical correlate of Parkinson disease is reduction of

a) cortical acetylcholine

b) dopamine in the substantia nigra and striatum

c) acetylcholine in the striatum

d) sertotonin in the cortex

e) the ratio of acetylcholine to dopamine in the cortex

b) dopamine in the substantia nigra and striatum

162

brain damage following ischemic strokes seems to be caused by

a) NMBA buildup

b) excessive serotonin release

c) an imbalance of GABA

d) excessive norepinephrine release

e) excessive glutamate release

e) excessive glutamate release

163

in the peripheral nervous systems of higher vertebrates, regenerating axons are guided to their correct targets by

a) growth cones

b) blueprints

c) differential adhesiveness

d)oligodendroglia

e) Schwann-cell sheaths

e) Schwann-cell sheaths

164

Huntington's disease is caused by

a) a single dominant gene

b)a neurotoxin

c) an infection

d) a single recessive gene

e) a decline in dopamine

a) a singe dominant gene

165

strokes are caused by

a) tardive dyskinesia

b) cerebral hemorrhage

c) cerebral ischemia

d) all of the above

e) both B and C

e) both b and c

166

a disorder in which fat deposits cause the walls of blood vessels to thicken and reduce blood flow is

a) arteriosclerosis

b) contusion

c) embolism

d) dementia

e) encephalitis

a) arteriosclerosis

167

in a car accident, a women banged the front of her head on the steering wheel. A subsequent CT scan revealed a subdural hematoma over the left occipital lobe. the woman clearly had suffered a

a) countercoup injury

b) contusion

c) consussion

d) both a and b

c) both a and c

d) both a and b

168

oligodendroglia actively

a) stimulate neural regeneration

b) block neural regeneration

c) guide neural regeneration

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

b) block neural regeneration

169

the two major categories of seizure are

a) generalized and simple

b) generalized and partial

c) petis mal and grand mal

d) cortical and subcortical

e) complex and simple

b) generalized and partial

170

multiple sclerosis

a) attacks young adults

b) is associated with the development of areas of scar tissue in the CNS whit matter

c) is a progressive disorder

d) is a disease of CNS myelin

e) all of the above

e) all of the above

171

which type of tumor is likely to be benign

a) encapsulated

b) metastic

c) infiltrating

d) malignant

e) congenital

a) encapsulated

172

memory consolidation

a) requires the hippocampus

b) involves reactivation of neural activity associated with the memory

c) processing occurs during sleep and relaxed wakefulness

d) all of the above

e) none of the above

d) all of the above

173

Explicit memories for the particular events or experiences of one's life are _____ memories.

a) semantic

b) procedural

c) episodic

d) remote

e) implicit

c)episodic

174

loss of memory for information learned or events that occurred before the amnesia-inducing brain injury is ______ amnesia

a) short term

b) anterograde

c) medial temporal lobe

d) retrograde

e) consolidation

d) retrograde

175

although most theories of LTP focus on neural mechanisms,______ have also been found to influence LTP

a) presynaptic neurons

b) postsynaptic neurons

c) astrocytes

d) electoral stimulation

e) microglia

c) astrocytes

176

support for the hypothesis that long term potentiation is the mechanism of memory came from the discover that

a) LTP can be elicited by levels of stimulation that mimic normal neural activity

b) LTP effects are prominent in neural structures that have been implicated in memory

c) behavioral conditioning can produce LTP-like effects

d) the induction of maximal LTP in the hippocampus blocks learning of the Morris- water task

e) all of the above

e) all of the above

177

the reduction of cholinergice (acetylcholine) activity in the brains of predementia Alzheimer patients results from damage to the

a) basal forebrain

b) frontal cortex

c) mediodorsal nuclei

d) rhinal cortex

e) mammillary bodies

a) basal forebrain

178

the frontal lobes are susceptible to change as we age. Associated with this change are deficits in _____ memory, which is the ability to remember to complete a function at a future time

a) short term memory

b) remote memory

c) Prospective memory

d) Implicit memory

e) working memory

c) Prospective memory

179

the current consensus is that memories of experiences are likely stored

a) diffusely throughout the structures of the brain that participated in the original experience

b) throughout the hippocampas

c) in the CA1 subfield of the hipppocampus

d) in the diencephalon

e) in the rhinal cortex

A) diffusely throughtout the structures of the brain that participated in the original experience

180

the amygdala is thought to play a role in

a) object recognition memory

b) memory for the emotional significance of experiences

c) memory for time

d) space and working memory

e) memory for language

b) memory for the emotional significance of experiences

181

in addition to the memory deficits commonly observed in medial temporal lobes amnesiacs, predementia Alzheimer's patients commonly experience deficits in

a) short-term memory

b) implicit memory for verbal and perceptual material

c) implicit memory for sensormotor learning

d) all of the above

e) both a and b

e) both a and b

182

the NMDA receptor is a type of ______ receptor

a) serotonin

b) glutamate

c) dopamine

d) GABA

e) nitric oxide

B) glutamate

183

the first theories of Korsakoff's amnesia attributed it to mammillary body damage, but later evidence suggested that damage to the ______ is a major contributing factor

a) frontal cortex

b) hippocampus

c) mediodorsal nuclei of the thalamus

d) temporal infarction

e) cribriform plate

c) mediodorsal nuclei of the thalamus

184

Long-term potentiation has been most frequently studied in the

a)hippocampus

b) amygdala

c) substantia nigra

d) neocortex

e) cerebellum

a) hippocampus

185

The NMDA receptor is thought to be involved in

a) all LTP phenomena

b) postsynaptic inhibition

c) habituation

d) LTP at some synapses

e) eye blink inhibition

d) LTP at some synapses

186

memory that is expressed by improved performance without conscious recall/recollection is

a) short term memory

b) remote memory

c) prospective memory

d) Implicit memory

e) working memory

d) implicit memory

187

A major contribution of H.M's case was following: It

a) was the first to strongly implicate the medial temporal lobes in memory

b) effectively challenged the view that memory functions are diffusely and equivalently distributed throughout the brain

c) provide support for the view that there are distinct modes of short-term and long-term storage.

d) provided evidence of memory without conscous awareness

e) all of the above

e) all of the above

188

LTP occurs only when the high intensity, high frequency stimulation activates the

a) presynaptic neurons but not the postsynaptic neurons

b) postsynaptic neurons but not the presynaptic neurons

c) both presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons

d) hippocampus

e) the hippocampus and the performant path

c) both presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons

189

Evidence suggests that the induction of LTP is postsynaptic and the maintenance and expression involve presynaptic changes. This implies the existence of a retrograde messenger ( a messenger from the postsynaptic cell to the presynaptic cell). Recent studies suggest that this messenger may be

a) glutamate

b) dopamine

c) serotonin

d) Nitric oxide

e) NMDA

d) nitric oxide