Pathology Final

Helpfulness: 0
Set Details Share
created 5 years ago by KatieMarie2016
673 views
updated 5 years ago by KatieMarie2016
show moreless
Page to share:
Embed this setcancel
COPY
code changes based on your size selection
Size:
X
Show:
1

What is the study of disease?

pathology

2

What is the state of balance between an organism and its environment?

Health

3

Coccidians

  • hosts: dogs, cats
  • treatment: Sulfadimethoxine, 1x per day (Albon R) tastes like butterscotch
  • Diagnosis: Do a direct or centrifuge
  • causes Toxoplasmosis, Cryptosporidium, Cryptoisospora, Eimeria
  • symptoms: diarrhea
4

What is it called when someone looks at things removed during surgery?

Surgical pathologist

5

Plasmodium

plasmodium caused the mall to become too complex for its normals: birds, dogs, cats and even people. The bus, the mosquito, now goes to the RBC parking lot.

  • causes Malaria
  • Apicomplexa
  • hosts: birds, primates, dogs, cats, people
  • carried by a mosquito
  • it is an RBC parasite
6

What is a state of imbalance?

Disease

7

Forces or factors from the outside? examples?

Extrinsic environment

temperature, humidity, electricity, microorganisms, insects, etc.

8

Forces or factors of which the individual has no control? examples?

Intrinsic environment

age, breed, sex, species, color, genus, idiosyncrasy, anything unique to the individual

9

What is caused by Streptococcus equi? What animal is it in?

Strangles in horses

10

What is the study of forces or causes of disease?

Etiology

11

What is the name of the procedure that a veterinary gross pathologist performs?

Necropsy

12

What is the study of the distribution and dynamics of diseases in populations?

Epidemiology

13

Taenia pisiformis

DH, IH

  • direct host- dogs
  • intermediate host- rabbits
14

What is any deviation from the normal body state caused by trauma, neoplasia, metabolic disease, degenerative disease or anomalous causes (like rheumatoid arthritis)?

Noninfectious disease

15

What are diseases that are not inherited? example?

Acquired disease

a cold

16

What are diseases that are inherited?

Genetic disease

17

What is an invasion and multiplication of microorganisms in body tissues especially that causes local cellular injury due to competitive metabolism, toxins, intracellular replication or an antigen-antibody response?

Infection

18

What are parasites that live internally such as worms and flukes?

Endoparasites

19

What are parasites that live on the surface of the host such as ticks, fleas and mites?

Ectoparasites

20

What are the cellular events and reactions and other pathologic mechanisms occurring in the development of a disease?

Pathogenesis

21

What type of cells have a membrane bound nucleus?

(These cells have a more advanced nucleus)

Eukaryotes

22

What type of cell has a single, circular chromosome located in a part of the cytoplasm? What is that part called?

(There is no nuclear membrane)

Prokaryotes

nuclear region

23

What are the 4 Koch's Postulates? Explain them

1) Microorganism must be found in abundance in all organisms suffering from the disease, but not in healthy organisms.

Healthy= no organism

Sick= Organism

2) Microorganism must be isolated from a diseased organism and grown in pure culture. pure= 1 microorganism per plate

3) The cultured microorganism should cause disease when introduced into a healthy organism.

Microorganism taken off AGAR plate, injected into animal, animal gets sick

Problem: it depends how much was taken off the plate and was given as well as how good the animal's immune system is

4) The microorganism must be re-isolated from the inoculated, diseased host and identified as same organism from original host

Microorganism from purposefully injected animal should match that from the original diseased animal

24

What is it called when you see a parasite/ bacteria/ microorganism then the animal has a certain disease caused by that particular microorganism?

One cause- one disease

25

What is it called when you have something caused by 1 disease because your immune system is down due to a 2nd disease? Example?

Multiple causation of Disease

AIDS

26

Babesia

The babies loved the dogs, horses and the people, but what was too complex for them to understand was that the Rock Band Company hired a band called ticks to sing new songs "piro" and "AL signs"

  • hosts: dogs, cattle, horses, people
  • Apicomplexa
  • RBC parasite
  • causes "piroplasmosis" AKA babesiosis
  • symptoms: anemic, lethargic
  • carried by ticks
27

What is an endospore? examples of microorganisms that have an endospore?

it helps the bacteria be resistant against any unfavorable environmental conditions

anthrax (like Bacillus anthracis), Clostridium groups

28

What is an organism that doesn't need oxygen called?

Anerobic

29

What is an organism that does need oxygen called?

aerobic

30

What is the most popular AGAR plate used?

blood AGAR

31

Pseudomonas aerginosa

  • Gram - rod
  • can live in gasoline
  • has Endotoxin and Exotoxin
  • its in infected ears & wounds
  • use Gentocin to treat
32

Borrelia burgdorfei

  • Gram - spiral
  • cause of Lyme Disease and poly-arthritis
  • carried by deer tick
33

Escherichia coli

  • Gram - rod, anerobic
  • causes GI problems, septicemia, Urinary Tract infections
  • found in uncooked hamburgers
34

Cytauxzoon

The Cyta flag flies high over the cat nation, Right Boxes of Cats. Their Population of Cat in a Vicinity is low.

  • Flagellate
  • RBC parasite of cats
  • symptoms: anemia, low PCV
35

Campylobacter fetus

  • Gram - vibrio
  • causes abortions in cattle, diarrhea
  • zoonotic
  • anerobic
36

Bordetella bronchisepteca

  • Gram - coccobacillus
  • causes kennel cough
37

Pasteurella multocida

  • Gram - rod
  • anerobic
  • lives in mouth of cats
  • symptoms: won't eat, ADR, hiding, fever
  • you heavily sedate, clip/scrub area, pop abcess
38

Salmonella sp.

  • Gram - rod
  • anerobic
  • has an endotoxin
  • causes GI problems, septicemia
  • can be in horses that infects them when they are stressed (stress causes lower immune system)
39

Klebsiella sp.

  • Gram - rod
  • causes metritis (uterus inflammed), abortion in horses
  • anerobic
  • NOT COMMON
40

Proteus sp.

  • Gram - rod
  • swarms on AGAR plates
  • rare so it may be on VTNE
41

Leptospira sp.

  • Gram - spiral
  • you vaccinate dogs against it
  • zoonotic
  • causes kidney disease, pneumonia, mastitis in cattle
42

Neisseria gonorrhea

  • Gram - cocci (makes it rare)
  • causes meningitis in people
43

Staphylococcus aureus

  • Gram + cocci, looks like grapes
  • causes mastitis in dairy cattle (economical loss)

must have a withdrawal time- nothing can be used from an infected cow for a certain amount of time

44

Streptococcus sp.

  • Gram + cocci, looks like a chain
  • Streptococcus agalactiae
  • Streptococcus equi
45

Bacillus anthracis

  • Gram + rod, very large
  • causes anthrax
  • spore former
  • its found in the environment
46

Clostridium botulineum

  • Gram + rod, large
  • can survive 2 hours in boiling water
47

Clostridium perfringens

  • Gram + rod
  • grows in stuffing made inside of turkeys
48

Clostridium tetani

  • Gram + rod
  • causes tetanis
  • neurotoxin produced
49

Nocardia asteroides

  • Gram + filament
  • unusual, so may be on VTNE
  • looks like a piece of hair; very thin
  • found in wounds that don't heal
50

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

  • Gram + rod
  • causes tuberculosis (TB)
  • **********************
  • zoonotic
51

Listeria monocytogenes

  • Gram + rod
  • coomon food borne illness
  • zoonotic
52

What are the 2 antibiotic spectrums? describe each

1) narrow- only specific organisms (gram -, gram +, etc.)

2) broad- can work against a lot of organisms ( cocci, rod, spiral, etc.)

53

Leucocytozoon

In Leu of the acute birds being so complex, the insects Ran Back to California.

  • hosts: birds
  • Apicomplexa
  • RBC parasite
  • acute, fatal disease
  • symptoms: anemia
  • carried by insects
54

What does "static" mean?

supresses or slows down growth of organism

55

Name the 3 morphological shapes

cocci, spiral, rod

56

What is an empirical diagnosis?

A diagnosis made on vet's experience, what others experience & what the profession knows

57

When were viruses discovered?

1982

58

name the 3 shapes (morphology) of a virus

1) polyhedral (or icosahedral)

2) helical (tightly coiled)

3) complex (mix of helical & polyhedral)

59

Why is it so hard to get rid of viruses?

Because the virus must be inside a cell to reproduce or live

60

Coronavirus

  • similar to Parvo, but not as bad
  • Called Feline Infectious Paratenitis (FIP) in cats
  • causes diarrhea in dogs
61

Parvovirus

  • causes Panleukopenia (Feline Distemper) in cats
  • diarrhea in dogs
  • it destroys the villi which can never regrow
  • won't cross species (cats can't get it from dogs)
62

Rhinotracheitis

  • caused by the herpes virus
  • worst respiratory problem in cats
  • respiratory and ocular disease
63

Hepatitis

  • inflammation of liver
  • fungal, bacterial, viral
    • viral- adenovirus, not seen in cats
64

Parainfluenza

  • upper respiratory disease in dogs
  • "kennel cough"
  • viral or bacterial but doesn't matter because you treat it the same way
    • viral- don't really do anything to fix
65

Feline Leukemia

  • affects immune system
  • some shed it fine & others always have it but some get lymphosarcoma
66

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)

  • once positive, they will always have it
  • affects the immune system
67

Bovine Viral Disease (BVD)

  • causes raging, bloody diarrhea
  • can vaccinate
  • not many deaths
68

Canine Distemper

  • causes respiratory, neurological & cutaneous disease
  • called "Hard Pad" disease
  • don't see anymore since the vaccine works
69

Equine Influenza

  • respiratory disease
  • found in young horses
  • contagious since it spreads through aerosol droplets
70

Rabies

  • vaccine is required by law
  • affects the nervous system
  • almost all that are infected, die
71

Microsporum canis, Microsporum gypseum, Trichophyton mentagrophytes

  • ringworm
  • causes crusty, alopecia, lesions
  • transmission: direct contact, contaminated clothes, soil, etc.
  • can use woods lamp, but only 50% glow under it
  • hard to get rid of
  • called "The Plague"
  • use DTM (Dermatophyte Test Media) to diagnose
  • treatment: shave the animal because it lives on the hairs, lime sulfur dip. Oral drugs if those don't work (Griseolfulvin, Ketaconazole)
72

Blastomycosis

  • found in dogs, cats, dolphins
  • can get in lymphatic system or even the eye
  • caused by inhalation
  • symptoms: anorexia, depression, weight loss, fever over 103oF, cough, dyspnea, ocular nasal discharge, wound exudates, lymphadenopathy, serosangunous (blood tinged fluid), CNS signs
  • Diagnosis: nothing is 100%, but can do CBC, cytology, radiology to help rule out list
  • treatment: Amphotericin (AKA Amphoterrible), Ketoconazole, Euthenasia
  • 6-12 week incubation period
73

Histoplasmosis

  • found in dogs and cats
  • dimorphic soil fungus
  • been associated with bird and bat droppings
  • symptoms in cats: weight loss, anorexia, pale MM, hepatomegaly, peripheral lymphadenopathy
  • symptoms in dogs: weight loss, diarrhea, dyspnea, cough, pale MM, low grade fever
  • transmission: inhalation
  • Diagnosis: CBC, radiograph, cytology/ histopathology
  • treatment: ketoconazole, Itraconazole
74

What is the "fading away" look that most cancer patients get called?

cachexia

75

Cryptococcosis

  • found in dogs and cats
  • budding yeast surrounded by a mucoid capsule
  • inhalation is the way it gets into the body
  • unilateral nasal discharge- fungal infection or tumor
  • symptoms in cats: nasal cavity & sinus lesions, chronic nasal discharge, nasal granulomas, lymphadenopathy, eye lesions, weigh loss/ anorexia
  • symptoms in dogs: CNS lesions (vestibular dysfunction), skin lesions in about 25% of cases
  • Diagnosis: cytology, antigen test
  • treatment: Amphotericin B (3x per week), ketoconazole, Itraconazole
    • (minimum treatment: 2 months)
76

Coccidiodomycosis

  • found in young, male dogs
  • dimorphic soil fungus
  • symptoms: mild cough but nothing coming up, low grade fever, anorexia, weight loss, weakness/depression of systemic, lameness, soft tissue swelling, pain if bone involved, skin lesions, CNS involvement MAY HAVE: lymphadenopathy, myocarditis
  • Clinical signs may not appear for weeks to years after initial exposure
  • Diagnosis: CBC, cytology, radiology, TITERS, serology
  • Treatment: ketoconazole, Itraconazole
    • (may require 6-12 months of treatment)
  • found mostly in the SW USA
77

Aspergillosis

  • may be: immuno-compromised with feline leukemia virus
  • symptoms in cats: abnormal lung, GI, liver, spleen & renal function; lethargy; fever; weight loss; anorexia
  • symptoms in young to mild dogs: chronic nasal discharge (usually unilateral), sneezing, unusual breathing, facial pain
    • localized infection
  • Symptoms in German Shepherds, 1-7 years old: weight loss, anorexia, fever, lameness, back pain, paralysis, ocular signs
    • generalized infection
  • diagnosis: radiology, biopsy, endoscopy
  • treatment: Topical clotrimazole
    • BID through nasal catheters or continuous contact therapy for 1
78

Malassezia pachydermatis

  • yeast
  • found in the ears and skin on dogs
  • skin looks like that of an elephant
  • symptoms: ears smell, shakes head a lot, painful to touch, chronic skin problems (hyperpigmentation)
  • Malassezia canis= ears
  • Diagnosis: cytology
  • treatment:Otomax ("Big Gun" medicine), Tresaderm (antibiotic, antifungal, corticosteroid)
79

What is the study of fungi & slime molds?

mycology

80

True or false: Fungi, Mold and Yeast are motile

false

81

What is a group of yeast called?

gang

82

What is a Diff Quick?

  • it is used to stain blood smears and ear cytology
  • it is very fast
  • all bacteria & yeast stain purple (shows morphology)
  • NOT A GRAM STAIN
83

How do molds reproduce? Yeast?

molds- sexual, asexual

yeast- budding

84

True or False: Fungi can withstand acids, can grow anywhere but can't eat everything.

false- it can eat anything and everything

85

What are the 2 ways for viruses to reproduce?

1) attachment (receptors of virion attach to host cell receptors)

2) entry (virion penetrates cell wall/membrane)

86

True or false: The best environmental conditions for a protozoan to thrive is 68.8o- 77oF.

true

87

What takes all non-normal blood cells out of the body?

Reticular endothelial system

88

Calicivirus

  • upper respiratory disease in cats
89

What is the brownian movement? What does Giardia do?

it's when you see lots of liquid under microscope.

Giardia will go against the current

90

Coccidians

  • hosts: dogs, cats
  • treatment: Sulfadimethoxine, 1x per day (Albon R) tastes like butterscotch
  • Diagnosis: Do a direct or centrifuge
  • causes Toxoplasmosis, Crytosporidium, Cryptoisospora, Eimeria
  • symptoms: diarrhea
91

Balantidium coli

  • ciliate
92

Fasciola hepatica

  • common name: liver fluke
  • host: cow, sheep, snail (IH)
  • symptoms:
  • causes liver failure
  • treatment: treat for snails since it is in the slime that is ingested; Albendazole
93

Dioctophyma renale

  • Giant kidney worm
  • found in dogs
  • Goes into the GI tract -> liver - > kidney or abdomen (will eat everything except the shell of the kidney)
  • infection: ingesting the fish that has the larvae
94

Diphylloboyhriasis

  • human tapeworm
  • found in raw fish
95

Taenia pisiformis

  • direct host- dogs
  • intermediate host- rabbits
96

Taenia taeniaeformis

  • Direct host- cats
  • intermediate host- rats, mice, rodents
97

Dipylidium caninum

  • Intermediate host- fleas
98

Echinococcus multilocularis

  • found in foxes, dogs, cats (DH)
  • found in mice, voles, lemmings, shrews (IH)
  • AKA hydatid disease
  • causes hydatid cysts in the brain
  • WASH YOUR HANDS
  • hard to get rid of (use Praziquantel)
99

Echinococcus granulosus

  • found in dogs (DH)
  • herbivores (IH)
100

How are Protozoans classified? What are those classifications?

By the way they move

Sarcomastigophora (ameba or flagella), Apicomplexa (nonmotile when mature), Microspora (no motion), Cilophora (cilia)

101

Ostertagia ostertagi

  • found in cattle
  • fecal-oral
  • lives in the abomasum
102

Ancylostoma caninum

  • dog hookworm
  • found in dogs
  • causes severe anemia in puppies
  • treatment: Strongid (liquid that is cheap and tastes good)
  • transmission: transmammary, through the skin, fecal-oral
103

Toxocara canis & Toxocara cati

  • canis- dog roundworm
  • cati- cat roundworm
  • found in puppies and kittens
  • can see in stool or vomit- looks like spaghetti
  • always deworm 2 times
  • treatment: Strongid
104

Trichuris vulpis

  • whipworm
  • found in older, large breed dogs
  • lives in the cecum & large intestine
  • treatment: Drontal Plus
  • prepatant period of 3 months
  • hard to get rid of in the environment
  • only seen every 3 days
105

Dirofilaria immitis

  • heartworm
  • hosts: DH- dogs, cats, ferrets, seal lion; IH- mosquito
  • causes: embolism
  • will see in bunches
  • problem in the south
  • diagnosis: Knotts test, direct smear
  • 6 month prepatant period
106

Acanthocheilonema reconditum (Dipetalonema reconditum)

  • you will only see 1 or 2
  • moves all around
  • fibria found in the blood but it is harmless
107

Oxyuris equi

  • "itchy butt"
  • pinworm of horses
  • got it by fecal-oral
  • Not zoonotic
  • diagnosis: the horse is scratching its butt against fences, etc.
  • Dogs and cats can't get it
108

Toxascaris leonina

  • roundworms of dogs and cats
  • found in dogs and cats
  • treatment: strongid/ common dewormers
109

Dioctophyma renale

  • Giant kidney worm
  • found in dogs
  • Goes into the GI tract -> liver - > kidney or abdomen (will eat everything except the shell of the kidney
  • infection: ingesting the fish that has the larvae
110

Sarcoptes scabiei

  • found in puppies, dogs in not clean environments
  • symptoms: puritic; patches of lesions on elbows, hocks, ears; arathemitis
  • zoonotic and contagious to other animals
  • Not stopped by allergy meds
  • treatment: Ivermectin, paramite dip, clean the environment
  • diagonsis: skin scrape; rib pinna ("thump" test)
  • hard to see because they move around but not hard to get rid of
111

Otodectes cynotis

  • found in puppies, kittens
  • extremely puritic in the ears
  • "surface feeder"
  • Easy to kill
  • treatment: Ivermectin, clean the environment, Tresaderm
  • not zoonotic, but is highly contagious between animals
  • dark, crumbly discharge- smear on the slide & look on 10x
112

Demodex canis

  • NOT highly puritic
  • NOT contagious to anything else or anyone
  • Do a mean skin scrape
  • Do a skin scrape 1 time after a negative
  • Hard to treat
  • "get it into remission"
  • lives in hair follicles normally but may infect head, forelimbs, lips, eyes, ears
  • NORMAL FLORA
  • treatment: FDA approved- Mitaban dip (Amitraz), Goodwin ointment, Ivermectin
113

Demodex cati and gatoi

  • rare in cats
  • contagious in other cats
  • gatoi has shorter mite than cati
  • No FDA approved treatment but the lime dip is used
  • Gatoi is hard to find on a slide
114

Fasciola hepatica

  • common name: liver fluke
  • host: cow, sheep, snail (IH)
  • causes liver failure
  • treatment: treat for snails since it is in the slime that is ingested; Albendazole
115

Ixodes scapularis

  • Deer tick
  • causes Lyme Disease (by Borrelia burdorgeri)
  • zoonotic
  • 3 host tick
  • fever/ flu may end up as polyarthritis
116

Dermacentor variabilis

  • American dog tick
  • causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever; >1 ticks may cause tick paralysis
  • 3 host tick
117

Gastrophilus intestinalis

  • in horses, donkeys
  • BOT flies
  • causes colic
  • located on the distal limbs where it is eaten and goes to the high part of the stomach
  • causes BOTS
118

Giardia

Gia loves puppies so much that she made a small flag that has pink waves on it. She won a trophy.

  • hosts: puppies
  • Flagellate
  • found in small intestine
  • symptoms: watery diarrhea with possible pinkish mucous
  • has troph &cysts
  • treatment: Metronidazole (Flagyl)
119

What is an exotoxin?

an organism does not have to die to release the toxin

120

What is an endotoxin?

an organism has to die to release a toxin. Causes fever, shock, hemorrhage, diarrhea, etc.

121
card image

What type of bacteria is this? explain what is good or bad about it? what color is it when stained? Why is it that color?

  • gram negative
  • have cell walls with a thin peptidoglycan layer without teichoic acid. they have a lipopolysaccharide (outer membrane) and a periplasmic space (which contains toxins & enzymes to protect the bacterium)
  • stains pinkish red- the pink color of safranin is retained due to open pores that are made when rinsed with the alcohol
122
card image

What type of bacteria is this? explain what is good or bad about it? what color is it when stained? Why is it that color?

  • gram positive
  • have cell walls with a thick peptidoglycan layer that usually contains teichoic acid
  • stains purple- retains the crystal violet stains
123
card image

1) cocci

2) coccobacillus

3) vibrio

4) bacillus or rod

5) spirillum

6) spirochete

7) Staphylococci

8) Streptococci

124

True or False: Under ideal conditions, a bacteria can replicate every 20 minutes.

True

125

How many Americans will get an animal bite wound sometime in their lifetime?

approximately half

126

How many different infectious agents have been reported to be transmitted from bites?

30

127

What is the most common pathogens found in bite wounds?

Pasteurella sp., Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus mitis, Moraxella sp., Corynebacterium sp., Neisseria sp., Bergeyella zoohelcum, etc.

128

Capnocytophaga bacteria is associated with what animal's bite?

rabbits

129

True or False: Dog bite wounds are puncture wounds while cat bite wounds are crushing-type.

False- Dog is crushing, cat is puncture

130

Fill in the blank:

______ male cats/dogs fight more than _____ male cats/dogs.

______ cats fight more than _____ cats.

Intact male cats fight more than neutered male cats.

Neutered male cats fight more than female cats.

131

Aspergillosis

  • may be: immuno-compromised with feline leukemia virus
  • symptoms in cats: abnormal lung, GI, liver, spleen & renal function; lethargy; fever; weight loss; anorexia
  • symptoms in young to mild dogs: chronic nasal discharge (usually unilateral), sneezing, unusual breathing, facial pain
    • localized infection
  • Symptoms in German Shepherds, 1-7 years old: weight loss, anorexia, fever, lameness, back pain, paralysis, ocular signs
    • generalized infection
  • diagnosis: radiology, biopsy, endoscopy
  • treatment: Topical clotrimazole
    • BID through nasal catheters or continuous contact therapy for 1 hour
132

What kind of AGAR plate is fungi (mold & yeast) grown on?

SDA- Sabouraud Dextrose Agar

133

What are free living and don't require a host to complete its' life cycle?

most fungi

134

What are true pathogens?

those that infect healthy people and animals

135

What is opportunistic pathogens?

those organisms that present in low numbers in people and animals that cause disease when the host environment is altered.

136

What are superficial mycoses? Example?

those located on the outer surface of hair, nails and skin

ringworm

137

What are systemic mycoses? Example?

those that invade body tissues and tend to be dimorphic fungi

Blastomyces

138

What are opportunistic mycoses? Example?

those fungi that are normally harmless, but can cause disease in a compromised/ altered host.

Candida

139

How are Protozoans classified? What are those classifications?

By the way they move

Sarcomastigophora (ameba or flagella), Apicomplexa (nonmotile when mature), Microspora (no motion), Cilophora (cilia)

140

What are Platyhelminthes?

flatworms

"platy is flatty"

141

What are the 3 forms of leishmaniasis in order of most serious to least serious?

1) visceral leishmaniasis

2) cutaneous leishmaniasis

3) mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

142

Taenia saginata

  • found where beef is a major food source and sanitation is inadequate
  • causes taeniasis (usually asymptomatic)
  • DH- humans
  • IH- cattle, buffalo, llamas, wild ruminants
143

Taenia solium

  • found where undercooked pork is eaten
  • causes taeniasis (usually asymptomatic)
  • DH- humans
  • IH- pigs, sheep, dogs, deer, camels, marine mammals, bears
  • can be found in cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle, liver heart or brain of pigs
144

How can Taenia eggs be differentiated? How can Taeniasis be diagnosed?

  • by counting the uterine branches after doing an India stain
  • by examining 3 consecutive stool samples
145

What does CAPC stand for?

C- Companion

A- Animal

P- Parasitic

C- Council

146

What is the outer protein of a virus called? What is it made up of? What do some viruses have that surrounds the capsid?

Capsid

capsomeres

envelopes

147

What are the 2 ways for viruses to reproduce?

1) attachment (receptors of virion attach to host cell receptors

2) entry (virion penetrates cell wall/membrane

148

What is Discospondylitis?

  • it results when bacteria or fungi become implanted in the bones of the vertebral column.
  • seen in both cats and dogs with large and giants breeds more commonly affected
  • routes of bacterial infection- UTI, bacterial endocarditis, sites of dental extraction
  • symptoms: weight loss, idiopathic fever, depression, reluctant to exercise, spinal pain, hyperesthesia over the lesion, presence/absence of neurological signs
  • Diagnosis: radiographs, CBC, myelography, CSF, surgical biopsy, tissue culture
  • treatment: long term antibiotic therapy (Enrofloxacin)
149

What are the 3 clinical forms of Blastomycosis?

  1. primary pulmonary infection
  2. disseminated disease
  3. local cutaneous infection
150

What is Thrush?

  • bacterial infection of the sulci of frogs (in the hoof)
  • found in horses that are kept in wet conditions
  • most common bacterium isolated is Fusarium necrophorum
  • symptoms: foul smelling black discharge from the frog, lameness if infection is severe, deep erosion of the frog sulci
  • diagnosis: visual signs, smell,
  • treatment: cleaning of the feet, removal of necrotic tissue, apply topical astringents (like Koppertox, iodine, etc.)
151

What is the most common cause of mycotic pneumonia in birds?

Aspergillus fumigatus

152

What are the 4 types of nucleic acids found in viruses?

  1. single strand RNA
  2. single strand DNA
  3. double strand RNA
  4. double strand DNA
153

Symbiont means what?

parasite

154

How are viruses cultured?

implanted in animals

155

the study on how the body protects itself

(The study of the body's protective mechanisms against invasive organisms)

Immunology

156

noticed that those who recovered from smallpox were resistant to subsequent attacks of the disease

date of discovery

the Chinese

as early as 2650 B.C.

157

Fill in the Blank

The ___________ deliberately infected _______ with smallpox by rubbing _________ from infected individuals into cuts of skin.

Chinese

infants

scabs

158

confirmed that the material from cow pox lesions could be used in place of smallpox to help the body's immune system

the date of this discovery

person whose idea it really was

Edward Jenner, English Doctor

1798

a dairy maid

159

TRUE OR FALSE:

Bone and liver cells regenerate but cardiac cells do not.

True

160

studied the resistance of chickens to fowl cholera

causes fowl cholera

date of this study

Louis Pasteur

Pasteurella multocida

1879

161

How was it discovered that a killed culture could be a vaccine?

Pasteur's assistant left a culture of the organism on the table while he went on vacation. The culture died. When he came back, he infected the chickens with this dead culture- they didn't get sick. Later, the same chickens were infected with a live sample, known to kill chickens, and they were resistant.

162

Substances in body fluids that provide protection

Humoral immune response

163

Protective factors found in serum

the type of protein that they are

antibodies

immunoglobulins

164

protein molecules that are produced by plasma cells as the result of an interaction between antigen sensitive B lymphocytes and a specific antigen

antibody

165

Active acquired

gotten from shots (vaccines) or infection (invading microbes)

166

Passive acquired

From mom (antibodies from milk or placenta)

167

cell mediated immunity

immune response accomplished by cells in the body

168

cells that bind, ingest & destroy foreign material through a process

phagocytes (through phagoytosis)

169

"eating by cells"

phagocytosis

170

5 cells that make up the myeloid system

  1. Basophils
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Neutrophils
  4. Monocytes
  5. Lymphocytes
171

myeloid cells

erythroid cells

myeloid cells = WBC, leukocytes

erythroid cells= RBC

172

Also called segs or PMNs; formed in the bone marrow

Neutrophils

PMN = polymorphonuclear cells

173

Will be seen in the highest numbers; doesn't stain;

function

neutrophils

phagocytosis of foreign matter

174

neutrophils called the infantry

first line of defense; has the most numbers

175
card image

granuoles in cytoplasm; segmented nucleus (granulocytes)

BEN (baso, Eosino, Neutro)

176

agranulocytes (no granuoles)

biggest and may have vacuoles

LM (lympho, mono)

Monocytes

177
card image
card image
178

True or false:

Gram - organisms are more resistant to the effects of phagocytosis than Gram + organisms

True

179
  1. increase in neutrophils = ?
  2. increase in Eosinophils = ?
  3. increase in Basophils = ?
  1. bacteria
  2. parasites, allergies
  3. anaphalaxis
180

stains red; less efficient at phagocytosis than neutrophils; in horses, they look like raspberries

Eosinophils

181

stains purple; can't see nucleus

function

Basophils

to provoke acute inflammation at sites of antigen deposition

182

True or False:

It is not normal to not see Basophils but normal to not see neutrophils.

False- Baso= not common, Neutro= common

183

immature Neutrophils that sit and wait for instruction

bands

184

GOOD OR BAD. Why?

20/100 cells are bands

bad

it means that the infection is so bad, that the normal number of neutrophils is not enough to beat the infection alone

185

biggest of white blood cells

monocytes

186

2 types of monocytes

card image

macrophages (in the tissues)

monocytes (in the bloodstream)- handymen

187

makes for a good antigen (good for body to see)

  • foreign protein (protein is most recognizable)
  • bigger= better for body to see
  • how it gets in
  • how much is getting in
  • who is getting the antigen
  • simple polysacarids are bad since the body dissolved the sugars which makes it almost unnoticable
188

Macrophages in the connective tissue

Histiocytes

189

Macrophages in the liver

Kupffer cells

190

Macrophages in the brain

Microglia

191

Macrophages in the lungs

Alveolar

192

happens to Macrophages that die

Phagocytized by other macrophages

193

Function if macrophages

  1. Invoking fever- secretes interleukin
  2. inflammation- secretes enzymes, and prostaglandins; aid in healing by influencing fibroblasts
  3. Antigen processing- stimulate antigen sensitive cells
194

Any foreign matter

Antigen

195

A site on TOP an antigen molecule that stimulates an immune system and binds to antibody

Epitope

196
  • developed from stem cells in the bone marrow
  • gives rise to plasma cells and produces antibodies
  • produces immunoglobulins that respond to antigens
  • roundish with large nucleus

B Lymphocytes

197
card image
  • mediates the cell-mediated immune system

T Lymphocytes

198

TRUE OR FALSE
T cells can only respond to an antigen if it is not attached to a cell.

False- It can only attach if it IS attached to a cell

199

processing steps of antigens

  • macrophages (that have this ability) engulf antigen
  • macrophages place them on the edge of the cell's cytoplasm for the B Lymphocytes to recognize
  • B lymphocytes attach to antigen, and takes it in
  • B cells begin to divide rapidly
  • plasma cells & memory cells are created to protect the body against this specific antigen later on
200

plasma cells

produces antibodies which are specific to the original antigen that started this process

201

memory cells

lives from months to years and if they ever encounter the original antigen again, they react quickly to stimulate more antigen sensitive cells resulting in a bigger immune response

202

3 types of T cells

  1. Cytotoxic T cells
  2. Suppressor T cells
  3. Helper T cells
203
  • KILLS targets
    • attaches to target cell & secrete special protein that kills the cell

Cytotoxic T cell

204
  • has regulatory role
  • suppresses immune response

Suppressor T cell

205

TRUE OR FALSE:

B cells and T cells look the same under the microscope.

True

206
card image

how many T cells are destroyed because they didn't pass "school"?

2/3

207
card image

slowly grows over the antigen

IgM

208
card image

covers antigen very closely

IgG

209

Interferon

  • substance produced by lymphocytes following viral infections
  • has antiviral affects
210

Interleukins

  • substance made by macrophages and most other nucleated cells
  • many types
  • functions: increasing proliferation of Helper cells, increasing Cytotoxic activity, causing neutrophilia, increasing antibody production
211

primary immune response

1st time the body is exposed to the antigen (IgM, IgG)

212

secondary immune response

  • body exposed to antigen a 2nd time
  • body is already prepared so it can respond faster & bigger
213

PRIMARY OR SECONDARY IMMUNE RESPONSE

Vaccine?

Booster?

Vaccine- primary

booster- secondary

214

Why are vaccines not given until the animal is at least 6 weeks of age?

Because the maternal antibodies will destroy the vaccine

215

Maternal immunity lasts longer for which disease?

Parvo

216

Why do we do booster shots?

Because we never know exactly when the maternal immunity goes away

217
card image

Failure of Passive Transfer (FPT)

  • foal/equine does not get colostrum either because the mare dies, there is no milk, foal is to weak to nurse or the mare rejects the foal.
  • Ways to prevent FPT is to milk the mare yourself and then give the milk to the foal, get milk from another mare, get blood from the mare & spin it & then give the plasma to the foal
  • important that the foal gets the colostrum because the villi in the stomach can only take the Igs 16-24 hrs. after birth
218
card image

Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (CID)

  • 2-5% of horses, primarily Arabians, get it inheritately from mom AND dad.
  • It is very lethal because the T and B lymphocyte functions are absent and they lack humeral immunity.
  • Thankfully, there are tests to see if a horse has it as a recessive gene R R .
  • The only thing thing to do if a foal has it is to euthanize it
219

Feline Leukemia

  • found in cats
  • affects the T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes and macrophages
  • macrophages, in trying to destroy the virus, actually helps spread the virus around the body
220

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)

  • found in cats and it affects the T cells and macrophages
221

Systemic Lupus Erythematosis

  • found in dogs and cats of any age, especially Shelties, Beagles, and Old English Setters.
  • AKA "the great Imposter" because it can look like other diseases
  • symptoms: skin lesions, polyarthritis, kidney disease (may have 1, 2 or all 3)
  • to test, you do a skin biopsy, SLE test, ANA test (Antinuclear antibody)
  • drugs to use- Pretnezone ($) or Azathiopeine ($$$$)
222
card image

Rheumatoid Arthritis

  • "erosive"
  • found in small or toy breed dogs
  • causes polyarthritis
  • drugs- Pretnezone ($) or Azathiopeine ($$$$)
223

Pemphigus foliaceus and vulgaris

  • found in middle aged dogs
  • P. foliaceus
    • crusty epidermis that won't go away
  • P. vulgaris
    • mucal membranes with ulcerated marks
    • breeds: acetas, chows, dobermans, Newfoundlands, collies, shelties, German shepherds
  • Pretnezone ($) or Azathiopeine ($$$$)
224

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (IMHA or AIHA)

  • found in dogs and rarely in cats
  • body attacks RBC
  • drugs- Pretnezone ($) or Azathiopeine ($$$$)
  • do a PCV or COOMBS test to diagnose
  • sometimes a secondary infection with heartworms, cancer or Babesia
  • may resolve itself
225

Autoimmune thrymbocytopenia

  • found in dogs and rarely in cats
  • platelets attacked
  • causes epistaxis, hematochezia (blood in stool), bleeding of mucosal surfaces, weak, lethargic
  • do a CBC to diagnose
  • may resolve itself
226

Cerebellum hypoplasia

  • cats
  • cerebellum is too small
227

Which cells regenerate the best?

epithelial cells

228

Which tissue cell doesn't regenerate and therefore it creates a scar?

cardiac tissue

229
card image

What is the 1st phase of wound healing? What does it do?

1) Exudative-inflammatory-debridement "announcement"

  • inflammation, redness (increase blood flow), heat (kills infection), swelling, pain (makes you aware of a problem)
  • neutrophils come in
  • prolonged by: foreign bodies in the wound, radiation in therapeutic doses, corticosteroids, hematomas (blood clot)
  • will have 5-10 minutes of vaso-constriction to keep you from bleeding out
230
card image

What is the 2nd phase of wound healing? What does it do?

2) Proliferation-Collagen (12-36 hrs after cut)

  • strength of the wound is repaired
  • decrease in neutrophils
  • prolonged by: hypoprotenemia (not enough protein), hypovelemia, radiation therapy, zinc deficiency/excess, excessive movement or mechanical stress
231

What type of wound is the worst to repair on its own?

paw pad wounds

232
card image

What is the 3r d phase of wound healing? What does it do?

3) Remoeling-maturation (2-3 weeks after cut)

  • rapidly healing tissues
  • gets tensiles strength (takes more strength to break)
  • bones, tendons and ligaments take years to get through this phase
233

What is the "Golden Period"?

6-8 hrs after the wound was created, which is the reason why we hasten to clean wounds so soon

234

What is the difference between Primary First Intention versus Second Intention Healing?

Primary First Intention- healing that occurs after SURGEON makes a wound or heals a wound surgically

Second Intention- healing that occurs that doesn't involve any doctor; heals by itself

235

What does "Proud Flesh" refer to?

a wound that never gets out of phase 2

  • a horse on the distal limb
236

What are ground substances?

polysaccharides and glycoproteins; "fillers"

237

prevention of blood loss

Hemostasis

238

4 major steps of hemostasis

  1. vasoconstriction (vascular spasm)
  2. platelet plug
  3. clotting cascade "bigger guns" -> 15-20 seconds after wound is created
  4. permanent fibrous seal (scab)
239

problem with coagulating/clotting

coagulopathy

240

Fibrous system

removes clots after sturdy clot is made permanent to keep thromboembylism from occurring or to prevent a blood clot from happening

241

clot getting loose in the bloodstream

thromboembylism

242

How do platelets know to come and where to go?

Chemicals are released from the damaged cells into the bloodstream

243

Von Willebrand's Disease

  • Found in dobermans (68%-73%), Shelties (18%-28%), Scotties (16%-30%) and is a genetic problem
  • not very common
  • it is a defect in the Von Willes factor in factor 8
  • signs: spontaneous bleeding, prolonged bleeding
  • you can do a transfusion
  • send off to coagulation panel for confirmation
244

What are the 2 parts of a clotting cascade?

  1. Intrinsic pathway- that is what happens in the bloodstream when blood is exposed to a foreign surface
  2. extrinsic pathway- originates outside the blood
245
  • another name for developmental anomalies
  • definition for developmental anomalies
  • "Congenital Disease"
  • Malformations that may occur during the growth and development of a tissue or organ and are present at birth as congenital lesions
246

Polydactyly

  • causes extra toes in pigs and cats
  • Not a problem
247

Palatoschisis

  • creates a cleft palate in puppies and kittens and is fatal
  • causes aspiration pneumonia
  • may be caused by: too much vitamin A (hypervitaminosis), folic acid deficiency, but most are idiopathic
248

True or False:

Bone and liver cells regenerate but cardiac cells do not.

True

249

Renal hypoplasia

  • small kidney
  • depends on the other kidney as to if this is fatal
250

Intraventricular septal defects

  • opening in the septum between the 2 ventricles
  • it depends on how big that opening is as to how big of a problem this is
  • Does constitute a murmur -> grave prognosis
  • can do ultrasound to figure out what is causing the murmur
  • Fatal if surgery is not done
  • The animal will eventually die of heart failure
251

Agenesis

complete failure of a tissue or organ to grow

252

Aplasia

indicates a failure to grow and implies the presence of a rudimentary organ

253

Aplastic anemia

failure of a tissue to renew itself; found in bone marrow and causes RBC to not regenerate.

fatal but rare in animals

254

Hypoplasia

refers to the failure of an organ to reach normal size

255

Adaptive lesions

cellular changes that are observed microscopically and what those changes mean

256

Acquired lesion

adaptive responses of cells to change in the demands made upon them (meaning the cells can make changes to themselves under certain circumstances)

257

lesion

  • a circumscribed area of pathologic tissue
    • (a wound; on the surface so it is seen)
258

Hyperplasia

example?

increase in organ size or tissue mass due to an increase in the number of constituent cells

chronic otitis externa in cocker spaniels

259

physiologic hyperplasia

response to an increased level of a normal stimulus such as a hormone or as a compensatory response

Not necessarily bad!!!

260

Give an example of where physiologic hyperplasia can be a good thing

If one kidney is physiologic hyperplasia it helps the body if the other kidney is hypoplasia

261
  • Metaplasia
  • example?
  • an adaptive response in which one type of mature differentiated cell is replaced by a different type of cell in response to chronic irriation
  • lungs- constant smoking, the lungs may put down cartilage to try and stop that irritation
262

Dysplasia

abnormal growth; AKA disorderly hyperplasia or atypical hyperplasia

"precancerous" or "preneoplastic"

263

hypertrophy

an increase in organ or structure size

264

list in order from least harmful to worst

dyplasia, metaplasia, neoplasia

metaplasia (can be reversed)

Dysplasia (can be reversed if caught early enough)

  • cryotherapy or "freeze it off"

Neoplasia (can't be reversed)

265

Where all blood cells come from

Stem cells

266

What are immature RBC called?

what is it called when you see immature RBC?

Rubricyte

severe anemia

267

Reason why osteosarcoma is so dangerous

by the time you see osteosarcoma, it has moved to some other part of the body

268

What you do to make sure the entire tumor is removed

card image

Wide margins

269

What is neoplasm?

an abnormal mass of tissue, the growth of which exceeds and is uncoordinated with that of normal tissues and persists in the same manner after the cessation of the stimulus, which evoked the change

270

Tumor

means any swelling but is now synonymous with neoplasm

271

Benign tumor

a tumor that does not metastasize and doesn't necessarily lead to the death of the host

slow growing and non-invasive

272

malignant tumor

a neoplastic growth having variable degrees of metastasis

rapid growing and invasive

273

3 categories of carcinogens with examples

  • chemicals- aflatoxins produced by the fungus Aspergillus; inorganic salts like nickel and beryllium salts; hormones; polycyclic hydrocarbons like in cigarettes
  • physical agents- radiation (white animals in hot, sunny climates are more at risk)
  • viruses- DNA & RNA viruses can cause neoplasia; papilloma viruses causes warts; FELV causes tumors of the lymphoid tissue in cats
274

3 radiographs you take to check for metastasis

  • VD of the chest
  • 2 lateral chests
275

True or False:

Most neoplasia cases have known causes.

False- most are idiopathic

276

cancer

any malignant tumor

277

neoplasia

refers to the process of tumor formation; means "new growth"

278
card image

Mitotic figures

malignant tumor

Anophase (not normally seen)

279

metastasis

  • constitutes greatest threat to the life of a patient suffering from cancer
  • very complex process
280

Steps on how metastasis occurs

  • tumor cells must detach from the primary mass
  • gain entrance to the bloodstream or lymphatics
  • penetrate a vessel wall
  • escape the vessel
  • invade tissue
281

list of chemo drugs that can be used against metastasis

  • Cisplatin
  • Methotrexate
  • Asparaginase
  • Vincristine
282

True or False:

Vincristine is great because it only affects tumor cells. The only problem is that some tumor types are resistant to it.

False- it is Asparaginase

283

Percent of how much of mammary tumors in dogs are malignant and where they move to.

50% of mammary tumors goes to the lungs

284

Percent of how much of mammary tumors in cats are malignant and where they move to.

90% of mammary tumors goes to the lungs

285

What PDR stands for

Physician

Desk

Reference

286

True or False:

When a tumor moves, the tumor type changes

False

It will always keep the origin type- if it starts in the mammary glands and moves to the lungs. When it is biopsied, it will be mammary glands tissue

287

Dexamethasone

slows growth of lymphosarcoma and shrinks tumors down

corticosteroid

*will not completely destroy tumor, just delay its growth*

288

Fill in the Blank:

Chemo works best on cells with _____ ______ ______ like epithelial cells.

high mitotic action

289

2 origin classifications of tumors

  • mesenchymal
  • epithelial
290

PICK THE ENDINGS

  1. Benign mesenchymal or epithelial neoplasms= _______
  2. Malignant mesenchymal neoplasms= _______
  3. malignant epithelial neoplasms= _______
  1. "oma"
  2. "sarcoma"
  3. "carcinoma"
291

what is an exception to the naming rule for tumors?

Malignant melanoma, myeloma (chronic back pain)

292

What is it called when there is a mix of mesenchymal and epithelial cells?

mixed mammary tissue

293

What does in situ mean?

the soonest you can detect it

294

True or False:

You can't tell what a tumor is just by looking at it.

True

295

What are the different mesothelium called depending on where it is located?

pleura (lungs)

pericardium (heart)

mesentery (anchors small intestine to abdominal wall)

omentum (connects stomach & intestines to liver)

296
card image

*look at recording*

Blister Beetles

  • found in: horses, cattle, ruminants
  • signs: fever, depression, dehydration, decreased appetite, anorexia, similar signs to colic, blisters in the mouth, diarrhea, ulcers in GI tract, hemachurea
  • contains a toxin called cantharidin
  • caused by: droughts that force farmers to use alfalfa
  • treatment: IV fluids, hospitalize, NSAIDs, put mineral oil down GI tract to coat. soothe, protect and hopefully bind to toxin
  • poor prognosis
297

the toxin that is in blister beetles

cantharidin

298
card image

look at book

pg. 373-380 UZD

Toxoplasmosis

  • AKA "litter box disease"
  • protozoan
  • pregnant women are scared of cats because of this disease
  • cats are the only definitive host
  • resistant to disinfectants
  • the poop does not have an infectious stage of toxoplasmosis
  • bradyzoites (inside tissue cysts), tachyzoites, sporozoites
  • only sheds the 1-2 weeks after infection and won't shed the rest of the host's life
  • Titer is not a positive diagnosis because it may not be shedding at time test is done or oocysts are unsporolated
  • host may seem achy because cysts are in the muscle
  • treatment: Clindamycin
299

When was toxoplasmosis first discovered? By whom?

1908 by Nicolle and Maneaux

300

the 2 distinct life cycles of toxoplasmosis

  1. sexual (cats)
  2. asexual (everyone else and cats)
301

TRUE OR FALSE:

Titer test is a positive diagnosis for Toxoplasmosis.

False- it is not a positive test

302
card image

page 157-163 UZD

  • hypersensitivity reaction that causes puritic dermatitis
  • "Plague" on people
303

Which flea is the #1 flea to bite people?

rat flea

304

Listeriosis

  • caused by Listeria monocytogenes
  • AKA "circling disease"
  • gram + motile bacteria
  • nonendospore forming
  • has flagella
  • flu like symptoms
  • affects newborns, infants, elderly and immuno-compromised people
  • associated with consumption of contaminated food
  • resistant to drying, freezing and heat
    • temperature: 1oC- 45oC
    • pH: 3.6-9.5 (anything greater than 5pH increases growth)
  • "usually" killed by cooking or pastueurization
  • salt tolerant
  • adherence & invasion
  • death rate= 26%
  • loves CNS
  • Signs: head pressing, ataxia, solitary, anorexia, facial paralysis, reproduction problems (like still birth or abortions)
  • seasonal (winter & early spring)
305

Why is Listeriosis commonly seen in the winter and early spring?

Because that is when usually farmers use silage

306

TRUE OR FALSE:

Listeriosis can survive for months in food, bedding (like straw or shavings), and soil.

True

307

What are the main reservoirs for Listeriosis?

soil, intestinal tract of animals

308

Some animals can carry the bacterium without what?

Showing signs

309

#1 cause of Listeriosis?

*******UNCOOKED FOOD!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!***** :)

310

the 6 causes of plant poisoning

  1. starvation
  2. dietary imbalance
  3. opportunistic feeding
  4. curiosity and abnormal appetites
  5. herbicide damaged plants- increases the palatability
  6. incidental causes
311

You are dealing with a disease caused by poisonous plants if:

  1. a number of animals are affected simultaneously
  2. disease occurs during growth period of plants
  3. animals have access to contaminated feed or the plant
  4. there are sudden changes in pasture management or if the disease develops shortly after the food is changed
  5. affected animals are starved, thin or are under abnormal weather conditions
312

Lantana

Lantana is ornamental person and smells very good, like mint, but she is VERY toxic. Keep kids, sheep, cattle and horses far away from her. She is an irritating girl. If she gets too close, she can cause diarrhea, paralysis and in some extreme cases, death. To treat an unknowing victim, give them an injection of sodium thiosulfate.

  • mint flavored ornamental
  • affects sheep, cattle, horses, children
  • whole plant is toxic
  • GI irritation that causes bloody, water diarrhea; paralysis; death
  • treatment- sodium thiosulfate injections
313

Prunus

Prunus loves fruit- cherries, peaches, plums, etc. However, when Prunus wilts, he becomes very toxic, so during this time, keep horses and especially ruminants away from him. If a horse or ruminant does get near wilted Prunus, you will know because the animal will have dyspnea, bloated, have convulsions and may even die. Treat with sodium thiosulfate injections.

  • includes wild Cherry, Cherry trees, peach trees, plum trees, etc.
  • affects ruminants and horses
  • toxin is hydrogen cyanide found in wilted leaves
  • symptoms: dyspnea, bloat, pain, convulsions, death
  • treatment: sodium thiosulfate injections
314

Dumb cane

  • large green leafed plant used to decorate houses
  • whole plant is toxic
  • irritates oral mucosa when eaten, causing excessive salivation
  • treatment: milk & anithistamines for anaplylaxis
315

Red Maple

  • affects ruminants and horses
  • wilted leaves are poisonous
  • symptoms are seen 1-3 days after ingestion
    • hemolysis, icterus, hematuria, anemia (due to oxidative damage to cells), anorexia
  • treatment: diuresis, transfusions, stress reduction, poor prognosis
316

Dallas grass

  • contains a fungus that is toxic
  • affects ruminants
  • 2 forms
    • gangrenous- tail 7 ear tips slough; lamness; cold limbs
    • dallas grass staggers- inability to stand; tremors
  • treatment: sedation, stress reduction, remove animals from the source, calcium, saline cathartics, bush hog the pasture
317

Johnson grass

  • a tall grass that grows everywhere on poor land
  • toxic when wilted
  • becomes cyanogenic
  • affects all animals but ruminants are most susceptible
  • symptoms: dyspnea, bloat, pain, convulsions, death
  • treatment: sodium thiosulfate injections
318

Mistletoe

  • parasite of the trees
  • whole plant is toxic especially the berries
  • affects dogs and cats
  • poisoning mostly seen during Christmas time
  • symptoms: nausea, vomiting, gastroenteritis
  • treatment: symptomatic care such as fluids
  • Children have died from eating the berries
319

English Ivy

  • decorative plant
  • whole plant is toxic
  • puppies & kittens are at risk; has been known to kill goats & chickens
  • symptoms: GI signs, labored breathing, convulsions
  • treatment: symptomatic
320

Pigweed

  • weed that is common to the southeastern pastures in late summer
  • horse & ruminants are affected
  • toxic principle is unknown
  • history of exposure includes grazing on poor pastures
  • symptoms occur 5-10 days after ingestion or death can occur in 48 hours
  • symptoms: weakness, trembling, incoordination, rear limb paralysis, polyuria, dilute urine, renal failure
  • treatment: supportive therapy including fluids, purgatives, calcium if needed and a good diet
321
card image

Canine Distemper

*LOOK AT RECORDING*

00:59:00

  • other names: "Hard Pad Disease"
  • species affected: dogs, other carnivores
  • Etiology: paramyxovirus (RNA virus)
  • Pathogenesis: aersolized
    • 3 forms
      • respiratory
      • nervous
      • cutaneous
  • Clinical signs: fever, cough, mucopurulent nasal & ocular discharge, dehydration, anorexia, pneumonia
  • CNS signs: ataxia, seizures, twitching
  • Diagnosis: history, physical exam, serology, fluorescent antibody test
  • Treatment: antibiotics for secondary infection, anti-convulsive meds, supportive care- keep cage & animal clean, keep animal warm, try to get the animal to eat, TLC
  • Prevention: vaccine, modified live, boosters, DHPP, 1st dog vaccine,
  • Other: WORST upper respiratory disease; close to the human measle virus; Don't see much anymore because the vaccine works
322

Canine Parvovirus

  • species affected: dogs (Dobermans, Rottweilers); wild dogs
  • Etiology: parvo virus (DNA virus)
  • Pathogenesis: fecal-oral
    • 7-14 days incubation period
  • Clinical signs: anorexia, febrile, lethargy, vomiting, loss of appetite, fever, and bloody, foul smelling diarrhea
  • Diagnosis: ELISA, CBC (white cell count), rule out internal parasites if at early stages
  • Treatment: IV fluids, ant-inflammatory (NSAIDs), antibiotics for secondary infections, anti-emetics, isolate the animal, avoid subcutaneous fluids because of sloughing
  • Prevention: vaccine, inactivated, start at 6-8 weeks old & do boosters every 3-4 weeks until 16-22 weeks old; clean the environment (1:30 bleach will kill parvo)
  • Other: You have to wait for the virus to take its course; it is the most resistant type of virus; Neutropenia= virus has hit the bone marrow
323

Coronavirus

*LOOK AT RECORDING*

  • species affected: dogs
  • Etiology: corona virus (RNA virus)
  • Pathogenesis: fecal-oral contact
    • heads to GI tract
  • Clinical signs: may or may not see vomiting, NO fever and loose, watery diarrhea
  • Diagnosis: serology, history
    • too many different strands that serology isn't a difinitive test
  • Treatment: symptomatic treatment
    • IV fluids, feeding if anorexic
    • NPO (don't feed anything), antisemetics, isolation of animal
  • Prevention: vaccine, Inactivated; isn't popular
  • Other: self limiting; low mortality; "nuisance" disease
324

Kennel Cough

  • other names: Infectious Canine Tracheobronchitis
  • species affected: dogs
  • Etiology: bacterial or viral
    • bacterial- Bordetella bronchiseptica; gram- coccobacillus
    • viral- parainfluenza
  • Pathogenesis: aerosol droplets -> goes to upper respiratory tract
  • Clinical signs: "honking" sound; dry cough that is a sudden onset
  • Diagnosis: symptoms/signs; history- been sheltered recently or been near lots of dogs
  • Treatment: antitussives if coughing a lot; antibiotics
    • antitissives:Torbutrol tablets (Butorphinol tartrate)
    • antibiotics: Amoxicillin, ClavamoxR
  • Prevention: vaccine
    • bacterial- modified live
      • injectable- last a long time but takes a while to take effect
      • intranasal- works fast but only lasts 6 months
    • viral- modified live; intranasal
  • Other: classic sign= the animal is fine except for the dry cough
325

Infectious Canine Hepatitis

*LOOK AT RECORDING*

  • species affected: dogs
  • Etiology: adenovirus 1 (DNA virus)
  • Pathogenesis: oronasal, fecal-oral; ***; goes to tonsils, then lymph nodes, then blood, then tissues, then to the liver
  • Clinical signs: very high fever; depression; lethargy; pale MM: abdominal pain; lack of appetite; hepatomegaly; icterus; corneal edema, "Robin egg blue"; coagulopathy
  • Diagnosis: CBC, profile
    • CBC- leukopenia; neutropenia; thrombocytopenia
    • profile- increase in AST, ALT, ALP; hypoglycemia
  • Treatment: symptomatic
    • IV fluids; try & feed; give glucose; pain meds; antibiotics for secondary infections
    • look out for DIC
    • Sam-e: may help "sick liver" *expensive*
  • Prevention: vaccine
    • DHPP OR DAPP
    • inactivated, modified live
    • bring in 6 weeks old, give boosters every 3-4 weeks until 18 weeks old
  • Other: old vaccine caused "BLUE EYE" in some animals
326

Leptospirosis

  • species affected: dogs, ZOONOTIC; wild life is a reservoir
  • Etiology: gram- spiral serovars of:
    • Leptospira interrogans
    • Leptospira canicola
    • Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiac
    • Leptospira pomona
    • Leptospira grippotyphosa
  • Pathogenesis: can penetrate:
    • MM; abrated skin; bite wounds; placental; urine contact; lanerial(sp?)
    • goes to blood stream; loves liver & kidneys
  • Clinical signs: fever (104oF); lethargy; icterus; vomiting; shock; acute renal failure; collapsed; dehydration; coagulopathy
  • Diagnosis: CBC; profile; PCR; fluorescent antibody test
    • CBC- low platelets; low WBC
    • profile- increased BUN & creatine; increase in AST, ALT & ALP; bilirubinuria
    • PCR- not readily available
  • Treatment: symptomatic; antibiotics
    • symptomatic- IV fluids; Sam-e
    • antibiotics- Penicillin; Doxycycline
  • Prevention: vaccine (bacterin) DHLPP
    • can cause allergic reactions
    • only prevents some serovars
  • Other: Don't see much anymore because the vaccine works
    • put PCV tube up against white paper & serum will be yellow
    • If giving vaccine that may cause a reaction, keep animal in exam room for 20 minutes and give BenadrylR if there is a reaction
327

Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis

  • other names: Feline Herpes Virus
  • species affected: cats
  • Etiology: herpes virus 1
  • Pathogenesis: aerosol droplets -> goes to respiratory system
  • Clinical signs: fever (> 104oF); depression; lethargy; not eating; unthrifty; nasal discharge that maybe purulent; sneezing; coughing; eyes- ocular discharge; conjunctivitis; crusty; keratitis
  • Diagnosis: Clinical signs; serology; PCR; fluorescent antibody test
  • Treatment: take discharge off of nose with warm cloth; nursing care; antibiotics for secondary infection; opthalmic preparation; Interferon drug (antiviral meds- give every 2 hrs); oxygen care if the cat can't breathe
  • Prevention: routine vaccine; modified live; FVRCP
  • Other: WORST upper respiratory disease; not eating because they can't smell the food because the nose is stopped up; lives dormant in the nervous system -> will have flare ups
328

TRUE OR FALSE:

Cats will continue to groom even when sick.

False- they will stop grooming if they get sick

329

Calicivirus

  • species affected: cats
  • Etiology: RNA virus
  • Pathogenesis: aerosol droplets; loves synovial joints, epithelium of upper respiratory tract, & the mouth
  • Clinical signs: ocular & nasal discharge; fever; oral ulcers on tongue with hypersalivation; arthritis; pneumonia; unthrifty; dyspnea; lack of appetite; sneezing; anorexia because of the ulcers
  • Diagnosis: clinical signs; fluorescent antibody test; PCR; ELISA
  • Treatment: supportive care; oxygen care if they can't breathe; antibiotics for secondary infection; isolation
    • supportive care- IV fluids, decrease the fever; try to feed; nursing care
  • Prevention: vaccine, modified live or inactive; FVRCP
330

Virulent Systemic Calicivirus Infection

*LOOK AT RECORDING*

  • species affected: cats
  • Etiology:
  • Pathogenesis: outbreak in shelters
  • Clinical signs: acute respiratory disease; vasculitis; facial & limb edema; cutaneous ulceration; multisystem organ failure; DIC
  • Diagnosis:
  • Treatment:
  • Prevention:
  • Other:
331

Chlamydia

  • other names: Chlamydia felis; "Feline Pneumonitis"
  • species affected: cats; ZOONOTIC
  • Etiology: gram- cocci; intracellular
  • Pathogenesis: intracellular bacteria
  • Clinical signs: ocular discharge; conjuctivitis; low fever- other than that, they are acting normal
  • Diagnosis: C&S but it isn't done often
  • Treatment: symptomatic; antibiotics
    • symptomatic- keep face clean
    • antibiotics- Doxycycline; Tetricycline is the best; Clavamax (Penicillin family)
  • Prevention: there is a vaccine but it isn't widely used because its a nuisance infection, not a killer
  • Other: least serious upper respiratory disease; give doxy tablet 7 chase it down with 3mL of water
332

Feline Distemper

  • other names: Feline Panleukopenia
  • species affected: cats
  • Etiology: parvo virus (DNA virus)
  • Pathogenesis: fecal-oral contact
    • goes to intestinal tract and then it kills the villi
  • Clinical signs: spontaneous abortions; fever (107oF); tender abdomen; diarrhea (not as common as dog parvo); vomiting; anorexia; fetal death; cerebellum or retinal defects in neonates; oral ulcers
  • Diagnosis: CBC; history; clinical signs; fluorescent antibody test; PCR
  • Treatment: supportive care- antibiotics for secondary infection; IV fluids; antiemetics; NPO; nursing care
  • Prevention: vaccine, modified life or inacctivated; start vaccine at 8-9 weeks old and do boosters every 3-4 weeks until 22 weeks old; bleach the environment
  • Other: "Cat Parvo"; if you can feel the loops of teh intestines, they will be rope-like and thickened; wait for virus to take its course
333

Feline Leukemia

  • other names: FeLV
  • species affected: cats
  • Etiology: retrovirus
  • Pathogenesis: oral-nasal; bite wounds; grooming other animals; loves lymphoid tissue; can affect the bone marrow
    • conditions:
      • test + now, - later
      • test + forever
      • test + -> lymphosarcoma
  • Clinical signs: no symptoms; looks like a "sick cat"; anemia; thrombocytopenia; fever; unthrifty
  • Diagnosis: ELISA; CBC; fluorescent antibody test; PCR
  • Treatment: isolate the cat- keep indoors, eliminate stress, vaccinate
  • Prevention: vaccine. inactivated; the time between the 1st vaccine and the 2nd vaccine is VERY CRITICAL (3 weeks apart)
  • Other: not a death sentence; use a different style of testing for 2nd diagnosis
334

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus

  • other names: FIV; "Feline AIDS"- Dr. B hates this name
  • species affected: cats
  • Etiology: lentivirus
  • Pathogenesis: intact male fighting cats= bite wounds; can be dormant for months at a time
  • Clinical signs: fever; anorexia; unkept; GI problems; anemia; looks "sick"; lymphadinopathy; cachezia; chronic- stomatitis, gingivitis, oral ulcers
  • Diagnosis: ELISA; history; CBC
  • Treatment: keep indoors; isolate; symptomatic treatment
  • Prevention: vaccine (test can't tell the difference between infected and vaccinated); neuter male cats & keep indoors
  • Other: once +, always +; not a death sentence; Duel test for FeLV and FIV
335

Feline Infectious Peritonitis

  • other names: FIP
  • species affected: cats
  • Etiology:
  • Pathogenesis:
  • Clinical signs:
  • Diagnosis:
  • Treatment:
  • Prevention:
  • Other:
336

Equine Infectious Anemia

  • other names: "Swamp Fever"
  • species affected: horses, mules, donkeys
  • Etiology: retrovirus; infects macrophages and endothelial cells
  • Pathogenesis: spread by flying insects (stable flies, deer flies, biting flies); affects red blood cells; can also be spread via placental, contaminated instruments, mom's milk or transfusion (not common)
  • Clinical signs: anemia, fever, anorexia, depression, lethargy, decrease in appetite, lymphodenopathy, or the animal may have no symptoms
  • Diagnosis: Coggins test (AKA AGID- augar gel immunodifusion test)
    • definitive test
    • has USDA specific form
    • sent to special lab for diagnosis
  • Treatment: NONE; euthanize or quarantine the animal for the rest of their life
  • Prevention:fly control; keep grass short; can use top spot fly repellent or a tag that can be tied to the mane
  • Other: reportable disease
337

"Sleeping Sickness"

  • Eastern Equine Encephalomyelitis (EEE)
  • Western Equine Encephalomyelitis (WEE)
  • Venezuelan Equine Encephalomyelitis (VEE)
  • species affected: horses, mules, donkeys
  • Etiology: togavirus
  • Pathogenesis: insect spread with mosquito as #1 culprit
  • Clinical signs: neurological signs; fever; anorexia; animal acts stiff; weakness; not eating/ decrease in appetite; ataxia; inability to rise; personality change; "frantic"; blindness; death; proprioceptive deficits- stumbling, can't walk up/down curb well, circling
  • Diagnosis: Antibody titers; CSF tap
  • Treatment: NONE; supportive care maybe; usually euthanized
  • Prevention: vaccine, inactivated; core vaccine given anually; insect control
338

Strangles

  • species affected: horses, mules, donkeys
  • Etiology: bacterial, gram+ cocci (Streptococcus equi)
  • Pathogenesis: upper respiratory disease; spread through aerosol droplets
  • Clinical signs: purulent discharge; fever; depression; not eating; upper respiratory signs- sneezing, coughing, nasal discharge, enlarged submandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes
  • Diagnosis: C&S; clinical signs
  • Treatment: lance the abcess, drain it & flush it out; antibiotics (Penicillin type); isolation; antiinflammatory (NSAID- Banamine)
  • Prevention: vaccine (bacterin), intranasal
    • not a core vaccine; only used in specific situations; questioned because of efficiency
  • Other:HIGHLY CONTAGIOUS; can spread thru tack, water buckets, feed buckets, or your clothing; Even a vaccinated horse can still ge tthe disease
339

Purpura hemorrhagica

  • species affected: horses, mules, donkeys
  • Etiology: caused by Strangles
  • Pathogenesis: goes to blood vessels
  • Clinical signs: vasculitis; purulent discharge; fever; depression; not eating; upper respiratory signs- sneezing, coughing, nasal discharge, enlarged submandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes
  • Diagnosis: C&S; clinical signs
  • Treatment: lance the abcess, drain it & flush it out; antibiotics (Penicillin type); isolation; antiinflammatory (NSAID- Banamine)
  • Prevention: vaccine (bacterin), intranasal
    • not a core vaccine; only used in specific situations; questioned because of efficiency
  • Other:
340

Bastard Strangles

  • species affected: horses, mules, donkeys
  • Etiology: caused by Strangles
  • Pathogenesis: bacterial will spread to other parts of the body
  • Clinical signs: pneumonia; purulent discharge; fever; depression; not eating; upper respiratory signs- sneezing, coughing, nasal discharge, enlarged submandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes
  • Diagnosis: C&S; clinical signs
  • Treatment: lance the abcess, drain it & flush it out; antibiotics (Penicillin type); isolation; antiinflammatory (NSAID- Banamine)
  • Prevention: vaccine (bacterin), intranasal
    • not a core vaccine; only used in specific situations; questioned because of efficiency
  • Other: 20% of horses that get Strangles, get this strand
341

Equine Influenza

  • other names: horse flu; "The Snots"
  • species affected: horses, mules, donkeys
    • commonly seen in younf horses, 1-3 years old, that are highly stressed
  • Etiology: orthomyxovirus
  • Pathogenesis: repsiratory diseease -> aerosol droplets
  • Clinical signs: coughing; sneezing; serous nasal discharge; fever (106oF); lethargy; depression; no appetite; reluctant to move
  • Diagnosis: ELISA; virus isolation; clinical signs
  • Treatment: REST!!; antibiotics for secondary infection; isolate the horse; supportive care- hydration, antiinflammatory (NSAID-Banamine); try and increase appettite (Bran mash)
  • Prevention: vaccine, modified live or killed, intranasal
    • core vaccine; not long lived; vaccine just decreases the serverity of the infection
    • "4 way"= contains 4 antigens (there is also a 3 way & a 5 way)
  • Other: HIGHLY CONTAGIOUS
342

Equine Viral Rhinopneumonitis

  • species affected: horses, mules, donkeys
  • Etiology: herpes virus
    • EHV-1
    • EHV-4
  • Pathogenesis: aerosol droplets
  • Clinical signs: coughing; sneezing; nasal discharge; fever; EHV-1 can cause abortions because it likes fetal tissues
  • Diagnosis: serology; viral isolation
  • Treatment: REST!!!; supportive care- antiinflammatory (NSAID- Banamine), antibiotics for secondary infections, try to get them to eat
  • Prevention: vaccine; may or may not be core, depending on the horse
  • Other: no antiviral helps
343

Bovine Viral Diarrhea

  • other names: BVD; "Cattle Parvo"
  • species affected: cattle
  • Etiology: togavirus
  • Pathogenesis: fecal-oral contact; fomites; palcenta; aborted fetuses and tissues
  • Clinical signs: diarrhea with blood and mucous; anorexia; fever; rumen motility is decreased; oral lesions; serous nasal discharge
  • Diagnosis: serology; *clinical signs*
  • Treatment: nursing care; reduce stress; quarantine; symptomatic care- IV fluids, oral fluids or stomach tube; + antibiotics; get them to eat
  • Prevention: vaccine, modified live or killed- given 6 months of age & boostered if needed; proper nutrition & housing
  • Other: low fatality; we have to worry about withdrawal times -> how long an animal has to be held, from either slaughter or dairy production, because of the medication
344

Infectious Bovine Keratoconjunctivitis

*LOOK AT RECORDING*

  • other names: "pink eye"; IBK
  • species affected: cattle
  • Etiology: Moraxella boris- gram- coccobacillus
  • Pathogenesis: effects the eyes; flies sit on ocular discharge of infected bovine & then goes to another bovine
  • Clinical signs: crusty eyelids; looks painful;
  • Diagnosis:clinical signs
  • Treatment: injectable oxytetracycline; florfenicol injection
  • Prevention: vaccine, not a core vaccine; fly control
  • Other: not a death sentence