Health Assessment 302 Exam 3 (New) Material

Helpfulness: 0
Set Details Share
created 6 years ago by Husky_Murse
511 views
updated 6 years ago by Husky_Murse
show moreless
Page to share:
Embed this setcancel
COPY
code changes based on your size selection
Size:
X
Show:
1

The Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) Diagnostic Algorithm includes these 4 features

1. Acute Onset or Fluctuating Course

2. Inattention

3. Disorganized thinking

4. Altered LOC

2

The diagnosis of delirium by Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) requires a combination of how many of CAM's 4 features?

Features 1 and 2 and either 3 or 4

3

Simple screening tool for dementia; takes up to 3 minutes to administer; includes word recall & clock drawing

Mini-Cog (assessing older adults)

4

What 3 steps are involved in administering the Mini-Cog assessment to an older adult to screen for dementia?

1. Ask patient to remember 3 unrelated words (i.e. sunrise, banana, chair) & repeat to ensure correct learning

2. Ask patient to draw the face of a clock. After numbers are on the face, ask patient to draw hands to read 10 minutes after 11:00

3. Have patient recall 3 words in step 1

5

Phil is having difficulty speaking, Without knowing the background, what neuro structures could potentially be involved?

-Frontal cortex (motor function & speech content)

-Parietal cortex (speech content)

-CN's V, VII, IX, X, XII

6

Location of the following:

1. Broca's area

2. Wernicke's area

1. Frontal lobe - usually left side

2. Parietal lobe - usually left side

7

Damage here would cause expressive aphasia

Broca's area

8

Damage here would cause receptive aphasia

Wernicke's area

9

Lobe housing thought processes

Frontal

10

Lobe housing speech processes (most)

Parietal

11

Lobe housing hearing processes

Temporal

12

Lobe housing visual processes

Occipital

13

LOC:

Sleepy, drifts off, not fully alert, but fairly easy to arouse

Lethargic/somnolent

14

LOC:

Difficult to arouse

Obtunded

15

LOC:

Responds only to persistent & vigorous stimuli

Stupor

16

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) examines what 3 components?

-Eye opening

-Verbal response

-Motor response

17

Lobe dealing with orientation, attention (concentration), memory

Frontal lobe

18

Scoring the Mini-Cog:

1. What's the highest point value?

2. How's it scored?

1. 5 points

2. Each recalled word = 1 point (3 words = 3 points)

The clock is worth 2 points if done correctly, but = 0 points if done incorrectly

19

If, while administering the Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) tool, and the client shows inattentiveness (feature #2), how might you engage this finding?

Assess whether or not this behavior fluctuated during the interview

20

What section in your assessment will give you an early indication of a patient's mental status?

General survey

21

Mnemonic to remember names of the 12 CN's

card image

On Old Olympus Towering Tops A Fin And German Viewed Some Hops (OOOTTAFAGVSH)

22

Mnemonic to remember function (i.e. motor, sensory, or both) of the 12 CN's

card image

Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Bad Business Marry Money (SSMMBMBSBBMM)

23

Loss of smell:

1. Termed this

2. Result of damage to this CN

1. Anosmia

2. CN I - Olfactory

24

1. Decreased vision or blindness is termed this

2. Decreased vision or blindness in half the visual field of one or both eyes is termed this

3. Result of damage to this CN

1. Anopsia

2. Hemianopsia

3. CN II - Optic

25

A couple of causative agents r/t anopsia/hemianopsia (decreased vision/blindness/half of field of vision) due to increased pressure on optic nerve

-Stroke

-Tumor

26

How do you assess CN I?

Have patient smell something common (not nasty)

27

How do you assess CN II?

Snellen vision screening

28

How do you assess CN III?

-Pupil assessment

-EOM tests

*Both a motor & sensory nerve

29

Drooping eyelid:

1. Termed this

2. Result of CN _____ damage

1. Ptosis

2. CN III

30

Constricted pupil:

1. Termed this

2. Result of CN _____ damage

1. Miosis

2. CN III

31

Uneven pupils:

1. Termed this

2. Result of CN _____ damage

1. Anisocoria

2. CN III

32

These 3 CN's control motor functions r/t eye muscles

CN"s III, IV, VI

33

1. What tests can we perform to check the eye muscles?

2. What nerve or nerves are we checking?

1. Corneal light reflex

Cardinal fields of gaze

Cover test

2. CN's III, IV, VI

34

What abnormalities may be present when checking EOM's?

-Eyes don't move together

-Pronounced nystagmus

35

What are the 3 branches of the trigeminal nerve?

-Opthalmic

-Maxillary

-Mandibular

36

How do you assess CN V?

Sensory: Touch 3 branches bilaterally

Corneal reflex

Motor: Jaw strength

37

How do you assess CN VII?

Sensory: Taste (front 2/3 of tongue)

Motor: Smile/show teeth

Close eyes & keep closed vs. resistance

Puff out cheeks

Frown/raise eyebrows

38

How do you assess CN VIII?

card image

*Sensory nerve

Hearing: Whisper test

Balance: Romberg test (picture)

39

How do you assess CN IX?

Motor: Gag & swallow

Have patient say "Ahhh" - uvula rises with phonation (normal)

Sensory: Taste (back of tongue)

40

What is a potential complication r/t damage to CN IX?

Aspiration

*Loss of gag reflex & weak cough

41

CN X is usually tested in conjunction with CN IX. Is it motor, sensory, or both? What does it control?

Sensory: Baroreceptors & chemoreceptors (regulate BP & respiration)

Motor: Swallowing/talking

42

How do you assess CN XI?

Have patient shrug shoulders & turn head, both against resistance

43

How do you assess CN XII?

-Have patient stick out tongue & wiggle side-to-side

-Have patient say, "light, tight, dynamite"

44

Your patient is on choking precautions & requires thickened food. What CN may be involved?

CN IX

45

Motor pathways:

-Starts in motor cortex (frontal lobe)

-Controls voluntary movement

Corticospinal/Pyramidal tract

46

Motor pathways:

-From brainstem, basal ganglia, & spinal cord

-Muscle tone & coordination

Extrapyramidal

47

The extrapyramidal motor pathway, which originates from the brainstem, basal ganglia, & spinal cord, contributes to muscle tone & coordination, can be affected by this disease process

Parkinson's disease

48

Motor pathways:

Deals with coordination & equilibrium

Cerebellum

49

The cerebellar motor pathway (cerebellum), which contributes to coordination & equilibrium, can be affected by what substance?

ETOH (alcohol)

50

Upper motor neurons (UMN) travel this direction

Brain to spinal cord

51

Lower motor neurons (LMN) travel this direction

Spinal cord to muscle

52

Problems with upper motor neurons (UMN) will result in these 3 findings

1. Hypertonicity

2. Hyperreflexia

3. Spasticity

*Opposite of LMN

53

Problems with lower motor neurons (LMN) will result in these 3 findings

1. Hypotonicity

2. Hyporeflexia

3. Flaccidity

*Opposite of UMN

54

What qualities should you observe r/t muscles during your MSK exam?

-Size

-Strength

-Tone

55

1. This term describes a patient having lack of coordination

2. What test can evaluate this?

1. Ataxia

2. Shallow knee bend

56

Romberg test:

1. Tests these structures

2. Normal result is this

1. Cerebellum, CN VIII

2. "Negative" test, or no difficulty maintaining balance

57

How does a patient perform the Finger to Nose test?

Eyes closed, touch nose with other arm out

Then switch arms - do this a few times

58

1. What area/s does the Finger to Finger test evaluate function of?

2. How is it performed?

card image

1. Precentral gyrus, cerebellum

2. Patient points to own nose, then provider's finger, & back and forth while provider moves finger around

59

How do you assess whether the patient's rapid alternating movements are intact?

-Pat legs (i.e. palms, back, palms, back, etc.)

-Touch fingers to thumb

60

What is the heel to shin test, and what does it evaluate?

-In supine or seated position, patient touches heel to upper shin & smoothly slides it down shin

-Evaluates cerebellum & coordination

61

While evaluating motor movement, you notice your patient has a resting tremor. What disease process is likely in place?

Parkinson's disease

62

Type of tremor occurring with movement of a body part

Intention tremor

63

Sudden, involuntary jerking of a muscle or group of muscles

Myoclonus

64

The __1__ tract, located in the lateral & anterior aspect of the spinal cord, is an __2__ system that transmits 3) information r/t _____, _____, & _____

1. Spinothalamic tract

2. Afferent

3. Pain, Temperature, Light touch

65

The _____ 1 _____ are part of an __2__ system that transmits 3) information r/t _____, _____, & _____

1. Dorsal columns

2. Afferent

3. Position (proprioception), vibration, finely localized touch (stereognosis)

66

The concept of one knowing their position r/t their surroundings

Proprioception

67

This term refers to finely localized touch

Stereognosis

68

R/t sensory processing, this structure is the relay; shuts off sensory input during sleep

Thalamus

69

The sensory cortex is located here

card image

Parietal lobe

70

These dermatomes innervate the neck & arms

Cervical

71

These dermatomes innervate the arms & trunk

Thoracic

72

These dermatomes innervate the pelvis & anterior legs

Lumbar

73

These dermatomes innervate the sacrum & posterior legs

Sacral

74

When assessing level of epidural anesthesia using "light touch" to evaluate dermatome level, what nervous structure are you assessing?

Spinothalamic tract

*Relay information r/t light touch

75

When assessing sharp vs. dull discrimination with your patient using a broken tongue blade, what nervous structure are you evaluating?

Dorsal columns

*Relay information r/t finely localized touch

76

1. What can you use to assess vibration sense on a patient?

2. What nervous structure is this evaluating?

1. Tuning fork - start distal & move up on bony prominences

2. Dorsal columns (relay info r/t vibration)

77

1. Test of fine touch; can place object patient hasn't seen in patient's hand & have them ID it

2. What nervous structure does this test evaluate?

1. Stereognosis

2. Dorsal columns (relay info r/t fine touch - stereognosis)

78

1. Test measuring fine touch by using a pointed object to draw a simple letter or number on patient's palm while their eyes are closed

2. What nervous structure does this test evaluate?

1. Graphethesia

2. Dorsal columns (relay info r/t fine touch)

79

This test is done with the patient's eyes closed. You touch patient and have them point to the area of the body that is touched

Topognosis

80

1. This test measures position sense by moving patient's finger up & down with patient's eyes closed - client states whether you moved digit up or down

2. What nervous structure does this test evaluate?

1. Kinesthesia

2. Dorsal columns (position)

81

How do you assess Two Point Discrimination?

Use 2 wood tips of cotton swabs & move closer until patient ID's both as one point (fine touch - dorsal columns)

82

Sensory problems can arise due to injuries to 3 umbrella systems:

1. Peripheral nerves (Diabetes, PAD)

2. Spinal cord

3. Brain (parietal lesion)

83

Cervical DTR's

-Biceps

-Triceps

-Brachioradialis

84

Lumbar DTR's

-Patellar

-Achilles (lumbar/sacral)

85

These 2 reflexes comprise the superficial reflexes

-Abdominal (thoracic)

-Plantar (lumbar/sacral)

86

How do you assess brachioradialis DTR?

Gently press tendon with thumb and strike your thumb

87

How do you position the foot to assess the Achilles DTR?

Gentle dorsiflexion

88

Another name for the heel-to-toe test used to assess gait

Tandem walking

89

1. This technique is used to relax muscles & enhance reflex (i.e. DTR's) response

2. How would you enhance patellar reflex response?

1. Reinforcement

2. Have patient grasp hands together & pull outwards

90

How do you assess abdominal reflex

Stroke lateral towards umbilicus - should contract toward stimulus

91

When assessing the plantar reflex, what is considered abnormal in adults & children >2 years old?

Dorsiflexion (+ Babinski)

92

4 main headings r/t a full mental status examination (may not always perform a full assessment, but you must know the headings)

-Appearance

-Behavior

-Cognition

-Thought processes

93

Select the finding that most appropriately describes the appearance of a patient:

a. Tense posture & restless activity

b. Oriented x3. Affect appropriate for circumstances.

c. Alert & responds to verbal stimuli. Tearful when diagnosis discussed.

d. Laughing inappropriately, oriented x3.

a. Tense posture & restless activity

94

The ability to lay down new memories is part of the assessment of cognitive functions. One way to accomplish this is by:

Using the Four Unrelated Words Test

95

For D/C planning r/t patient with aphasia, you would most likely assess their word comprehension by

Naming articles in the room or on body as you point to them

96

A patient newly diagnosed with seizures claims to want to be a pilot. If, after performing teaching r/t seizures, the patient still plans to become a pilot, you would most likely question their

Judgement

97

On a patient's second day in the acute care hospital, they c/o "bugs" on the bed, even though it is clean. This is an example of altered:

Perception

98

A way to assess cognitive function & detect dementia

Mini-Cog

99

The "Behavioral Checklist" by Jellinek, Evans, & Knight, which is to be completed by a parent, is used to assess the mental status of:

Children 7-11 years of age

100

Major characteristic of dementia

Impairment of short- and long-term memory

101

Difficulty saying words because of problems with the muscles that help you talk

Dysarthria

102

If you ask a patient with dysarthria a question, how will the response manifest itself?

Distorted - speech unintelligible due to problems with the muscles that help them speak

103

Automatic repetition of vocalizations made by another person (i.e. patient copying what you say by saying it twice after you)

Echolalia

104

Mood & affect:

Depersonalization means

Loss of identity

105

Mood & affect:

Euphoria means

Excessive well-being

106

Mood & affect:

Lability means

Rapid shift of emotions

107

Mood & affect:

1. Apprehensive from anticipation of a danger whose source is unknown

2. Worried about known external danger

1. Anxiety

2. Fear

108

The medical record indicates your patient has an injury to Broca's area. When meeting this person, you expect:

a. difficulty speaking

b. receptive aphasia

c. visual disturbances

d. emotional lability

a. difficulty speaking

109

Controls body temperature

Hypothalamus

110

To test for stereognosis, you would:

a. raise person's arm w/eyes closed & ask them where it is

b. touch person with tuning fork

c. place coin in patient's hand & ask them to ID it

d. touch person with cold object

c. place coin in patient's hand & ask them to ID it

111

While examining an infant, you use a cotton tip applicator to stimulate the anal sphincter. The absence of a response suggests a lesion of:

a. L2

b. T12

c. S2

d. C5

c. S2

112

During a neuro exam, the tendon reflex fails to appear. Before striking the tendon again, you may elect to use what technique?

Reinforcement

113

Cerebellar function is assessed by which of the following tests?

a. muscle size & strength

b. cranial nerve examination

c. coordination - hop on one foot

d. spinothalamic test

c. coordination - hop on one foot

114

How do you elicit a Babinski reflex?

Stroke lateral aspect of the sole of the foot from heel to the ball

115

What is a positive Babinski sign?

Dorsiflexion of the big toe & fanning of all toes

116

The cremasteric response:

a. is positive when disease of the pyramidal tract is present

b. is positive when the ipsilateral testicle elevates upon stroking of the inner aspect of the thigh

c. is a reflex of the receptors in the muscles of the abdomen

d. is not a valid neurological examination

b. is positive when the ipsilateral testicle elevates upon stroking of the inner aspect of the thigh

117

To examine for function of the trigeminal nerve in an infant, you would:

a. startle the baby

b. hold an object within the child's line of sight

c. pinch the nose of the child

d. offer the baby a bottle

d. offer the baby a bottle

118

Senile tremors may resemble Parkinsonism, but senile tremors don't include:

a. nodding the head as if responding yes or no

b. rigidity and weakness of voluntary movement

c. tremor of the hands

d. tongue protrusion

b. rigidity and weakness of voluntary movement

119

People who have Parkinson disease usually have which of the following characteristic styles of speech?

a. a garbled manner

b. loud, urgent

c. slow, monotonous

d. word confusion

c. slow, monotonous

120

Reflex where an infant raises head & arches the back, as in a swan dive

Landau reflex

121

What body system do the spermatic cord, ovaries, and urethras belong to?

Genitourinary system

122

What body system does the spleen belong to?

Immune system

123

1. Region above umbilical region

2. Below umbilicus

1. Epigastric

2. Hypogastric or suprapubic

124

Chart that can assist patient in describing BM

Bristol Stool Chart (7 types of stool)

125

What are a patient's anthropometric measures?

HT/WT

126

What BMI value equates to being overweight?

26.5 or greater

127

Formula for BMI

kg/m2 (weight in kilometers divided by height in meters squared)

128

BMI equating to obesity

30

129

Pulsations in the abdomen may be r/t

Abdominal aorta

130

What's a flat vs. scaphoid abdominal appearance?

card image

See picture

131

What's a rounded vs. protuberant abdominal appearance?

card image

See picture

132

How long should you listen in each ABD quadrant?

30 seconds

133

How long must you listen for before determining bowel sounds are absent?

5 minutes

134

What's the term describing stomach growls, such as when you're hungry

Borborygmus

135

Why would you use the bell to listen to the abdomen?

Bruits - turbulent blood flow

136

Why percuss over the RUQ?

Check for liver dullness

137

Percussion:

Dullness means

Over fluid, bone, solid tissue

138

Percussion:

Tympany means

Over air (abdomen)

139

Percussion:

Resonance means

Over air (lungs - lower pitch than tympany)

140

What's the difference between tympany & resonance when performing percussion?

Tympany is higher pitched

141

Percussion:

Hyperresonance means

Gastric bubble

142

Percussion:

Flat means

Over bone

143

When should you palpate painful ABD quadrant?

Last

144

If, while preparing to touch the abdomen, the client states they're ticklish, what can you do?

Have client put their hands either over or under your hands as you palpate

145

What positioning technique helps relax the ABD muscles?

Bending knees (i.e. pillow under knees)

146

What will peritonitis feel like when palpating the ABD?

Board-like hardness

147

What 2 tests may reveal appendicitis?

-Rebound tenderness

-Psoas test

148

What test can evaluate for cholecystitis?

Murphy's test

149

What color of stool indicates liver failure?

White

150

Infant's stool color in first 24 hours

Sticky - greenish-black

151

Infant's stool color on 4th day (breast-fed)

Yellow

152

Infant's stool color on 4th day (formula-fed)

Brown-yellow

153

Blood lipid; increase in this increases risk of CV disease

Triglycerides

154

This measures the body's iron binding capacity & (indirectly) reflects body's protein

Transferrin

155

Reflects body's protein

Serum albumin

156

3-month average of blood glucose

Hemoglobin A1C

157

What developmental consideration do you want to make r/t childhood obesity & rewards/punishment?

Never use food as a reward or punishment

158

Need this nutrient to prevent neural tube defect during pregnancy

Folic acid

159

Why do older adults have difficulty eating?

-Dental problems

-Reduced saliva

160

__1__ sounds will be above bowel obstruction; __2__ sounds will be below it

1. Hyperactive

2. Hypoactive

161

-Diffuse periumbilical pain/anorexia early

-RLQ pain (inflamed peritoneum)

-Low grade fever

Appendicitis

162

Can be a sign of portal HTN, cancer, or cirrhosis

Ascites

163

A nurse is assessing a young man with a tentative diagnosis of appendicitis. The nursing assessment is most likely to reveal what characteristics concerning pain?

a. Gnawing pain, radiating through to the lower back, with severe abdominal distension

b. Pain in the right lower quadrant when raising the leg against resistance associated with decreased bowel sounds and vomiting.

c. Sharp pain with severe gastric distension, frequently associated with mildly bloody vomit

d. Pain on light palpation in mid-epigastric area, chronic low-grade fever, and diarrhea.

b. Pain in the RLQ with lifting of the leg against pressure is the iliopsoas test for appendicitis. Decreased bowel sounds and vomiting are also signs associated with appendicitis. This question was adapted from an actual NCLEX study question.

164

Tenderness on light palpation in the RUQ could indicate a disorder of which of the following structures?

a. spleen

b. gallbladder

c. appendix

d. sigmoid colon

b. gallbladder

165

Change in this lab value may indicate iron deficiency

Hematocrit

166

Proper sequence of techniques to assess ABD

Inspect, auscultate, percuss, palpate

167

RUQ tenderness may indicate pathology in the:

a. liver, pancreas, or ascending colon

b. liver & stomach

c. sigmoid colon, spleen, or rectum

d. appendix or ileocecal valve

a. liver, pancreas, or ascending colon

168

3 characteristics of hyperactive bowel sounds

-High pitched

-Rushing

-Tinkling

169

Auscultation of the ABD may reveal bruits of what arteries?

-Femoral

-Aortic

-Iliac

-Renal

*FAIR

170

The range of normal liver span in the right midclavicular line in the adults is:

6-12 cm

171

1. Occur when elastic fibers in reticular layer of skin are broken after rapid or prolonged stretching

2. Have this distinct color when cause is prolonged stretching

1. Striae

2. Silvery white

172

A dull percussion note forward of the left midaxillary line is:

Indicative of splenic enlargement

173

Shifting dullness tests for this

Ascites

174

Tenderness during ABD palpation is expected when palpating what part?

Sigmoid colon

175

The pain felt when taking a deep breath when examiner's fingers are on the approximate location of the gallbladder

Murphy's sign

176

1. A positive Blumberg sign indicates this

2. May be due to this

1. Peritoneal inflammation

2. Appendicitis (causes peritoneal inflammation)

177

AM stiffness is indicative of this type of arthritis

RA

178

Stiffness after being still is indicative of this type of arthritis

OA

179

What does the CDC recommend people do at least 2 days/week?

-Moderate intensity aerobic activity x 2.5 hours AND

-Muscle strengthening activities

180

Muscle strength:

1. 5/5 means

2. 4/5 means

3. 3/5 means

1. Full range vs. full resistance

2. vs. moderate resistance

3. vs. gravity

181

When assessing for TMJ strength, what CN are you evaluating?

CN V

182

This joint is problematic in older adults, especially due to kyphosis

Shoulder

183

These 2 form the body's only ball & socket joints

Shoulder & hip

184

Hinge joints limit movement in only one direction & provides for more strength and reinforcement from the bones, muscles, and ligaments that make up the joint. What are the 2 hinge joints?

Elbow & knee

185

When assessing the elbow, be sure to palpate this posterior projection

Olecranon process

186

Freely movable joints because they have bones that are separated from each other & are enclosed in a joint cavity

Synovial joints

187

In these joints, bones are united by fibrous tissue or cartilage & are immovable

Non-synovial joints

188

Turning the forearm so that the palm is down

Pronation

189

Turning the forearm so that the palm is up

Supination

190

Moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder

Circumduction

191

1. Moving a body part forward & parallel to ground

2. Backward & parallel to ground

1. Protraction

2. Retraction

192

Flexion of wrist so that thumb side bends towards inward toward wrist

Radial deviation

193

Circumduction is performed on what type of joints?

Ball & socket

194

When assessing hip flexion, what are the 2 positions you assess?

-With knee flexed

-With knee extended

195

Technical name for calf muscle

Gastrocnemius

196

Aside from examining spine alignment while patient bends over, what other assessment tool can you perform to assess for scoliosis?

Measure legs

197

Excessive curvature of lumbar spine; "sway back"; common in pregnancy

Lordosis

198

Non-curable joint degeneration associated with aging; common in knee, hip, hand joints

OA

199

Treatment for OA

-NSAIDS & Cox-2 inhibitors (Celebrex), APAP

-Joint replacement

200

Affects peripheral joints - not spine; inflammation affects other tissues (i.e. blood vessels); autoimmune

RA

201

RA is treated how?

-Immunosuppressant meds (DMARD's, modifiers, steroids)

-NSAID's & analgesics

202

Widespread musculoskeletal pain of unknown cause; accompanied by overwhelming fatigue; NOT INFLAMMATORY

Fibromyalgia

203

Fibromyalgia is often treated with what medications?

Antidepressants & antiseizure medications

204

Pronation & supination of the hand & forearm are the result of the articulation of these

Radius & ulna

205

What is a common age-related change in the curvature of the spine?

Kyphosis

206

The timing of joint pain may assist the examiner in determining the cause. The joint pain r/t rheumatic fever would occur when?

10-14 days after an untreated sore throat

207

While assessing the spine, you would ask the person to make these 4 movements

Flex, extend, abduct, rotate

208

While assessing the shoulder, you would ask the person to make these 4 movements

forward flexion, internal/external rotation, & abduction

209

The bulge sign is a test for inflammation here

Suprapatellar pouch

210

When measuring legs, what's the normal discrepancy value?

Within 1 cm of each other

211

A 2-year-old has been brought to the clinic for a health examination. A common finding would be:

a. kyphosis

b. lordosis

c. scoliosis

d. no deviation is normal

b. lordosis

212

Positive Phalen test & Tinel sign are seen in a patient with this

Carpal tunnel syndrome

213

Staging system for pubertal growth in males & females

Tanner stages (1-5)

214

1. Term for start of menstruation

2. When does it start?

1. Menarche

2. 11-14 yrs

215

Menstrual cycle:

Starts when?

First day of menstruation

216

Menstrual cycle:

Lasts how long?

28 days

217

Menstrual cycle:

Bleeding lasts about _____ days

5 days

218

Menstrual cycle:

Ovulation occurs on day _____

14

219

Menstrual cycle:

1. Hormones levels drop around day _____

2. May be reason for this

1. 25

2. PMS

220

Involuntary urination; twice as common in women; NOT a normal part of aging

Urinary incontinence

221

Where will problems most likely occur r/t male genitalia?

-Testicles (cancer)

-Prostate (BPH, cancer)

222

Surgery for testicular cancer

Orchiectomy (with radiation/chemo)

223

Testicular cancer S/S

-Lump/enlargement in either testicle

-Pain

-Feeling of heaviness in scrotum

-Dull ache in back/lower ABD

224

Testicular Self-Exam (TSE) should follow these teaching points

Age 15-40 (teach @ 13-14)

Check for changes in size, shape, color

Feel for lumps

Cord is stringy - epididymis is soft

225

Risk factors r/t BPH

>60 yrs

Black or white

Family history

226

Complications r/t BPH

-UTI

-Bladder/kidney damage

227

Most common cancer in men; 2nd leading cause of cancer-related death in men

Prostate CA (S/S same as BPH)

228

Treatment for prostate cancer

-Hormone therapy (decrease effects of testosterone)

-Chemo/radiation

-Radical prostatectomy

229

During palpation of the testes, the normal finding would be:

Firm, rubbery, smooth

230

When assessing appearance of the testicles, a normal finding would be:

Left testicle hangs lower than right

231

Prostatic hypertrophy occurs frequently in older men. Symptoms may include:

a. polyuria & urgency

b. dysuria & oliguria

c. straining, loss of force, & sense of residual urine

d. foul-smelling urine & dysuria

c. straining, loss of force, & sense of residual urine

232

A normal age-related change in the scrotum

Pendulous (hanging more) scrotum

233

Testicular CA, though rare, does occur in men ages:

15-34

234

During transillumination of the scrotum, you note a nontender mass with a red glow. This is suggestive of:

Hydrocele

235

How sensitive to pressure are normal testes?

Somewhat

236

Congenital displacement of the urethral opening to the inferior portion of the surface of the penis is called:

Hypospadias

237

First physical sign r/t puberty in boys

Testes enlargement

238

Soft, moist, fleshy, painless perianal papules are suggestive of this condition

HPV

239

Vaginal lubrication during intercourse is provided by these

Bartholin's glands

240

Chadwick sign refers to this finding

Cyanotic cervix

241

How do you lubricate a vaginal speculum?

With warm water

242

Most common bacterial STI in the U.S.

Chlamydia

243

2 problems associated with smoking & using oral contraceptives

-Thrombophlebitis

-Pulmonary embolism

244

How often should a Clinical Breast Exam (CBE) be performed?

At least every 3 years for women in 20s and 30s, yearly after age 40

245

Women should get a mammogram how often?

Yearly

246

One serving of alcohol equals how much of the following drinks?

1. Beer or cooler

2. Table wine

3. Spirits

1. Beer or cooler = 12 oz

2. Wine = 5 oz

3. Spirits = 1.5 oz

247

Risk factors for breast CA

Age >= 50

Family history

Genes (BRCA1 and BRCA2 deficit)

Early menarche, late menopause

248

What's the recommended technique for doing a BSE?

Recommended: Up & down pattern

Okay: Circular, from areola outward

NOT OK: Angling towards areola

249

“The ability to think, feel and act in ways that acknowledge, respect and build upon ethnic, socio-cultural and linguistic diversity.”

Cultural competency

250

Diversity Training University International (DTUI) isolated four cognitive components:

›Awareness

›Attitude

›Knowledge

›Skills

251

Provide recommendations (4 are mandatory) r/t language differences & barriers and how healthcare organizations should work to accommodate these linguistic challenges

C ulturally and L inguistically A ppropriate S ervices (CLAS)