Campbell Biology: Exam 4-Chopra Flashcards


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Campbell Biology
Chapters 13, 14, 16-18
Exam 4 Chopra
updated 9 years ago by leahd1077
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1

Why did the F₁ offspring of Mendel's classic pea cross always look like one of the two parental varieties?
A) No genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
B) Each allele affected phenotypic expression.
C) The traits blended together during fertilization.
D) One phenotype was completely dominant over another.
E) Different genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.

D) One phenotype was completely dominant over another.

2

How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
E) 64

B) 8

3

The individual with genotype AaBbCCDdEE can make many kinds of gametes. Which of the following is the major reason?
A) segregation of maternal and paternal alleles
B) recurrent mutations forming new alleles
C) crossing over during prophase I
D) different possible alignments of chromosomes
E) the tendency for dominant alleles to segregate together

D) different possible alignments of chromosomes

4

When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

C) 50%

5

Which of the following describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects?
A) incomplete dominance
B) multiple alleles
C) pleiotropy
D) epistasis

C) pleiotropy

6

Most genes have many more than two alleles. However, which of the following is also true?

A) At least one allele for a gene always produces a dominant phenotype.
B) Most of the alleles will never be found in a live-born organism.
C) All of the alleles but one will produce harmful effects if homozygous.
D) There may still be only two phenotypes for the trait.
E) More than two alleles in a genotype is considered lethal.

D) There may still be only two phenotypes for the trait.

7

How could you best predict the maximum number of alleles for a single gene whose polypeptide product is known?
A) Search the population for all phenotypic variants of this polypeptide.
B) Count the number of amino acids in the polypeptide.
C) Mate all known genotypes and collect all possible offspring different from the parents.
D) Measure the rate of new mutations in the species and estimate the number since it first evolved.
E) Count the number of DNA nucleotides that are in the code for the polypeptides

E) Count the number of DNA nucleotides that are in the code for the polypeptides.

8

An ideal procedure for fetal testing in humans would have which of the following features?
A) the procedure that can be performed at the earliest time in the pregnancy
B) lowest risk procedure that would provide the most reliable information
C) the procedure that can test for the greatest number of traits at once
D) a procedure that provides a three-dimensional image of the fetus
E) a procedure that could test for the carrier status of the fetus

A) the procedure that can be performed at the earliest time in the pregnancy

9

A scientist discovers a DNA-based test for one allele of a particular gene. This and only this allele, if homozygous, produces an effect that results in death at or about the time of birth. Of the following, which is the best use of this discovery?
A) Screen all newborns of an at-risk population.
B) Design a test for identifying heterozygous carriers of the allele.
C) Introduce a normal allele into deficient newborns.
D) Follow the segregation of the allele during meiosis.
E) Test school-age children for the disorder.

B) Design a test for identifying heterozygous carriers of the allele.

10

An obstetrician knows that one of her patients is a pregnant woman whose fetus is at risk for a serious disorder that is detectable biochemically in fetal cells. The obstetrician would most reasonably offer which of the following procedures to her patient?
A) CVS
B) ultrasound imaging
C) amniocentesis
D) blood transfusion
E) X-ray

C) amniocentesis

11

The frequency of heterozygosity for the sickle-cell anemia allele is unusually high, presumably because this reduces the frequency of malaria. Such a relationship is related to which of the following?
A) Mendel's law of independent assortment
B) Mendel's law of segregation
C) Darwin's explanation of natural selection
D) Darwin's observations of competition
E) the malarial parasite changing the allele

C) Darwin's explanation of natural selection

12

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a recessive human disorder in which an individual cannot appropriately metabolize a particular amino acid. The amino acid is not otherwise produced by humans. Therefore, the most efficient and effective treatment is which of the following?
A) Feed them the substrate that can be metabolized into this amino acid.
B) Transfuse the patients with blood from unaffected donors.
C) Regulate the diet of the affected persons to severely limit the uptake of the amino acid.
D) Feed the patients the missing enzymes in a regular cycle, such as twice per week.
E) Feed the patients an excess of the missing product.

C) Regulate the diet of the affected persons to severely limit the uptake of the amino acid.

13

Which of the following defines a genome?
A) representation of a complete set of a cell's polypeptides
B) the complete set of an organism's polypeptides
C) the complete set of a species' polypeptides
D) a karyotype
E) the complete set of an organism's genes

E) the complete set of an organism's genes

14

At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes usually photographed in the preparation of a karyotype?
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) interphase

B) Metaphase

15

The human X and Y chromosomes
A) are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike.
B) are of approximately equal size and number of genes.
C) are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names.
D) include genes that determine an individual's sex.
E) include only genes that govern sex determination.

D) Include genes that determine the individuals sex

16

Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?

A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.
B) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
C) Each cell has eight homologous pairs.
D) During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
E) A gamete from this species has four chromosomes.

C). Each cell has 8 homologous pairs

17

Referring to a plant's sexual life cycle, which of the following terms describes the process that leads directly to the formation of gametes?
A) sporophyte meiosis
B) gametophyte mitosis
C) gametophyte meiosis
D) sporophyte mitosis
E) alternation of generations

B) Gametophyte Mitosis

18

The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following?
A) mitosis in her ovary
B) metaphase I of one meiotic event
C) telophase II of one meiotic event
D) telophase I of one meiotic event
E) either anaphase I or II

E. Either Anaphase 1 or 2

19

A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. We can therefore conclude which of the following?
A) It must be human.
B) It must be a primate.
C) It must be an animal.
D) It must be sexually reproducing.
E) Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes.

E. Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes

20

19) Which of the following can utilize both mitosis and meiosis in the correct circumstances?
A) a haploid animal cell
B) a diploid cell from a plant stem
C) any diploid animal cell
D) a plantlike protist
E) an archaebacterium

D. Plantlike protist

21

Which of the following might result in a human zygote with 45 chromosomes?
A) an error in either egg or sperm meiotic anaphase
B) failure of the egg nucleus to be fertilized by the sperm
C) fertilization of a 23 chromosome human egg by a 22 chromosome sperm of a closely related species
D) an error in the alignment of chromosomes on the metaphase plate
E) lack of chiasmata in prophase I

A. An error in either egg or sperm meiotic anaphase

22

After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is
A) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
B) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
C) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
D) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
E) tetraploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.

D. Haploid, and then the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids

23

How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their DNA and are just about to begin meiosis?
A) They have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B) They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C) They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
D) They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.
E) They have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA.

D) They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.

24

A cell divides to produce two daughter cells that are genetically different.
A) The statement is true for mitosis only.
B) The statement is true for meiosis I only.
C) The statement is true for meiosis II only.
D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

B) The statement is true for meiosis I only.

25

Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs.
A) The statement is true for mitosis only.
B) The statement is true for meiosis I only.
C) The statement is true for meiosis II only.
D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

B) The statement is true for meiosis I only.

26

Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
A) chromosome replication
B) synapsis of chromosomes
C) production of daughter cells
D) alignment of chromosomes at the equator
E) condensation of chromatin

B) synapsis of chromosomes

27

If an organism is diploid and a certain gene found in the organism has 18 known alleles (variants), then any given organism of that species can/must have which of the following?
A) at most, 2 alleles for that gene
B) up to 18 chromosomes with that gene
C) up to 18 genes for that trait
D) a haploid number of 9 chromosomes
E) up to, but not more than, 18 different traits

A) at most, 2 alleles for that gene

28

Whether during mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins referred to as cohesins. Such molecules must have which of the following properties?
A) They must persist throughout the cell cycle.
B) They must be removed before meiosis can begin.
C) They must be removed before anaphase can occur.
D) They must reattach to chromosomes during G₁.
E) They must be intact for nuclear envelope reformation.

C) They must be removed before anaphase can occur.

29

A tetrad includes which of the following sets of DNA strands?
A) two single-stranded chromosomes that have synapsed
B) two sets of sister chromatids that have synapsed
C) four sets of sister chromatids
D) four sets of unique chromosomes
E) eight sets of sister chromatids

B) two sets of sister chromatids that have synapsed

30

To visualize and identify meiotic cells at metaphase with a microscope, what would you look for?
A) sister chromatids grouped at the poles
B) individual chromosomes all at the cell's center
C) an uninterrupted spindle array
D) the synaptonemal complex
E) tetrads all aligned at the cell's center

E) tetrads all aligned at the cell's center

31

How does the sexual life cycle increase the genetic variation in a species?
A) by allowing crossing over
B) by allowing fertilization
C) by increasing gene stability
D) by conserving chromosomal gene order
E) by decreasing mutation frequency

A) by allowing crossing over

32

For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes?
A) 23
B) 46
C) 460
D) 920
E) about 8 million

E) about 8 million

33

Which of the following best describes the frequency of crossing over in mammals?
A) ~50 per chromosome pair
B) ~2 per meiotic cell
C) at least 1-2 per chromosome pair
D) ~1 per pair of sister chromatids
E) a very rare event among hundreds of cells

C) at least 1-2 per chromosome pair

34

When homologous chromosomes crossover, what occurs?
A) Two chromatids get tangled, resulting in one re-sequencing its DNA.
B) Two sister chromatids exchange identical pieces of DNA.
C) Specific proteins break the two strands and re-join them with their homologs.
D) Each of the four DNA strands of a tetrad is broken and the pieces are mixed.
E) Maternal alleles are "corrected" to be like paternal alleles and vice versa.

C) Specific proteins break the two strands and re-join them with their homologs

35

64) A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is
A) a sperm.
B) an egg.
C) a zygote.
D) a somatic cell of a male.
E) a somatic cell of a female.

A. Sperm

36

65) Which life cycle stage is found in plants but not animals?
A) gamete
B) zygote
C) multicellular diploid
D) multicellular haploid
E) unicellular diploid

D. muliticellular haploid

37

66) Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during
A) mitosis.
B) meiosis I.
C) meiosis II.
D) fertilization.
E) binary fission.

B) meiosis I.

38

67) Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that
A) sister chromatids separate during anaphase.
B) DNA replicates before the division.
C) the daughter cells are diploid.
D) homologous chromosomes synapse.
E) the chromosome number is reduced.

A) sister chromatids separate during anaphase.

39

70) How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be packaged in gametes made by an organism with a diploid number of 8(2n = 8)?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32

D) 16

40

How do we describe transformation in bacteria?
A) the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule
B) the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule
C) the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule
D) the type of semiconservative replication shown by DNA

E) assimilation of external DNA into a cell

41

n trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts?
A) DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not.
B) DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not.
C) DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not.
D) DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines.
E) RNA includes ribose, whereas DNA includes deoxyribose sugars.

B) DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not.

42

It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in which of the following?
A) sequence of bases
B) phosphate-sugar backbones
C) complementary pairing of bases
D) side groups of nitrogenous bases
E) different five-carbon sugars

A) sequence of bases

43

Replication in prokaryotes differs from replication in eukaryotes for which of the following reasons?
A) Prokaryotic chromosomes have histones, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes do not.
B) Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many.
C) The rate of elongation during DNA replication is slower in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.
D) Prokaryotes produce Okazaki fragments during DNA replication, but eukaryotes do not.
E) Prokaryotes have telomeres, and eukaryotes do not.

B) Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many.

44

What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?
A) The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands.
B) The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand.
C) Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands.
D) One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
E) One strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines.

B) The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand.

45

An Okazaki fragment has which of the following arrangements?
A) primase, polymerase, ligase
B) 3' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 5'
C) 5' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 3'
D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III
E) 5' DNA to 3'

C) 5' RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 3'

46

Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5' → 3' direction?
A) primase
B) DNA ligase
C) DNA polymerase III
D) topoisomerase
E) helicase

C) DNA polymerase III

47

Eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the chromosome. This is a consequence of which of the following?
A) the evolution of telomerase enzyme
B) DNA polymerase that cannot replicate the leading strand template to its 5' end
C) gaps left at the 5' end of the lagging strand
D) gaps left at the 3' end of the lagging strand because of the need for a primer
E) the "no ends" of a circular chromosome

C) gaps left at the 5' end of the lagging strand

48

The enzyme telomerase solves the problem of replication at the ends of linear chromosomes by which method?
A) adding a single 5' cap structure that resists degradation by nucleases
B) causing specific double-strand DNA breaks that result in blunt ends on both strands
C) causing linear ends of the newly replicated DNA to circularize
D) adding numerous short DNA sequences such as TTAGGG, which form a hairpin turn
E) adding numerous GC pairs which resist hydrolysis and maintain chromosome integrity

D) adding numerous short DNA sequences such as TTAGGG, which form a hairpin turn

49

The DNA of telomeres has been found to be highly conserved throughout the evolution of eukaryotes. What does this most probably reflect?
A) the inactivity of this DNA
B) the low frequency of mutations occurring in this DNA
C) that new evolution of telomeres continues
D) that mutations in telomeres are relatively advantageous
E) that the critical function of telomeres must be maintained

E) that the critical function of telomeres must be maintained

50

Polytene chromosomes of Drosophila salivary glands each consist of multiple identical DNA strands that are aligned in parallel arrays. How could these arise?
A) replication followed by mitosis
B) replication without separation
C) meiosis followed by mitosis
D) fertilization by multiple sperm
E) special association with histone proteins

B) replication without separation

51

To repair a thymine dimer by nucleotide excision repair, in which order do the necessary enzymes act?
A) exonuclease, DNA polymerase III, RNA primase
B) helicase, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase
C) DNA ligase, nuclease, helicase
D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III, DNA ligase
E) endonuclease, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase

E) endonuclease, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase

52

What is the function of DNA polymerase III?
A) to unwind the DNA helix during replication
B) to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands
C) to add nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand
D) to degrade damaged DNA molecules
E) to rejoin the two DNA strands (one new and one old) after replication

C) to add nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand

53

The difference between ATP and the nucleoside triphosphates used during DNA synthesis is that
A) the nucleoside triphosphates have the sugar deoxyribose; ATP has the sugar ribose.
B) the nucleoside triphosphates have two phosphate groups; ATP has three phosphate groups.
C) ATP contains three high-energy bonds; the nucleoside triphosphates have two.
D) ATP is found only in human cells; the nucleoside triphosphates are found in all animal and plant cells.
E) triphosphate monomers are active in the nucleoside triphosphates, but not in ATP.

A) the nucleoside triphosphates have the sugar deoxyribose; ATP has the sugar ribose

54

The leading and the lagging strands differ in that
A) the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.
B) the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5' end.
C) the lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together.
D) the leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand.

A) the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.

55

A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5' to 3' direction because
A) DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides at the 5' end of the template.
B) Okazaki fragments prevent elongation in the 3' to 5' direction.
C) the polarity of the DNA molecule prevents addition of nucleotides at the 3' end.
D) replication must progress toward the replication fork.
E) DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3' end.

E) DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3' end.

56

What is the function of topoisomerase?
A) relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork
B) elongating new DNA at a replication fork by adding nucleotides to the existing chain
C) adding methyl groups to bases of DNA
D) unwinding of the double helix
E) stabilizing single-stranded DNA at the replication fork

A) relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork

57

What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication?
A) It synthesizes RNA nucleotides to make a primer.
B) It catalyzes the lengthening of telomeres.
C) It joins Okazaki fragments together.
D) It unwinds the parental double helix.
E) It stabilizes the unwound parental DNA.

C) It joins Okazaki fragments together.

58

Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated?
A) primase
B) ligase
C) DNA polymerase
D) single-strand binding proteins
E) exonuclease

D) single-strand binding proteins

59

Which of the following would you expect of a eukaryote lacking telomerase?
A) a high probability of somatic cells becoming cancerous
B) production of Okazaki fragments
C) inability to repair thymine dimers
D) a reduction in chromosome length in gametes
E) high sensitivity to sunlight

D) a reduction in chromosome length in gametes

60

Which of the following sets of materials are required by both eukaryotes and prokaryotes for replication?
A) double-stranded DNA, four kinds of dNTPs, primers, origins
B) topoisomerases, telomerases, polymerases
C) G-C rich regions, polymerases, chromosome nicks
D) nucleosome loosening, four dNTPs, four rNTPs
E) ligase, primers, nucleases

A) double-stranded DNA, four kinds of dNTPs, primers, origins

61

Which of the following statements describes the eukaryotic chromosome?
A) It is composed of DNA alone.
B) The nucleosome is its most basic functional subunit.
C) The number of genes on each chromosome is different in different cell types of an organism.
D) It consists of a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA plus proteins.
E) Active transcription occurs on heterochromatin but not euchromatin.

D) It consists of a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA plus proteins.

62

Why do histones bind tightly to DNA?
A) Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged.
B) Histones are negatively charged, and DNA is positively charged.
C) Both histones and DNA are strongly hydrophobic.
D) Histones are covalently linked to the DNA.
E) Histones are highly hydrophobic, and DNA is hydrophilic.

A) Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged.

63

Which of the following statements describes chromatin?
A) Heterochromatin is composed of DNA, whereas euchromatin is made of DNA and RNA.
B) Both heterochromatin and euchromatin are found in the cytoplasm.
C) Heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas euchromatin is less compact.
D) Euchromatin is not transcribed, whereas heterochromatin is transcribed.
E) Only euchromatin is visible under the light microscope.

C) Heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas euchromatin is less compact.

64

You briefly expose bacteria undergoing DNA replication to radioactively labeled nucleotides. When you centrifuge the DNA isolated from the bacteria, the DNA separates into two classes. One class of labeled DNA includes very large molecules (thousands or even millions of nucleotides long), and the other includes short stretches of DNA (several hundred to a few thousand nucleotides in length). These two classes of DNA probably represent
A) leading strands and Okazaki fragments.
B) lagging strands and Okazaki fragments.
C) Okazaki fragments and RNA primers.
D) leading strands and RNA primers.
E) RNA primers and mitochondrial DNA.

A) leading strands and Okazaki fragments.

65

In his work with pneumonia-causing bacteria and mice, Griffith found that
A) the protein coat from pathogenic cells was able to transform nonpathogenic cells.
B) heat-killed pathogenic cells caused pneumonia.
C) some substance from pathogenic cells was transferred to nonpathogenic cells, making them pathogenic.
D) the polysaccharide coat of bacteria caused pneumonia.
E) bacteriophages injected DNA into bacteria.

C) some substance from pathogenic cells was transferred to nonpathogenic cells, making them pathogenic.

66

What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized?
A) The origins of replication occur only at the 5' end.
B) Helicases and single-strand binding proteins work at the 5' end.
C) DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only to the 3' end of a growing strand.
D) DNA ligase works only in the 3' → 5' direction.
E) Polymerase can work on only one strand at a time.

C) DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only to the 3' end of a growing strand.

67

The elongation of the leading strand during DNA synthesis
A) progresses away from the replication fork.
B) occurs in the 3' → 5' direction.
C) produces Okazaki fragments.
D) depends on the action of DNA polymerase.
E) does not require a template strand.

D) depends on the action of DNA polymerase.

68

In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around
A) polymerase molecules.
B) ribosomes.
C) histones.
D) a thymine dimer.
E) satellite DNA.

C) histones

69

The spontaneous loss of amino groups from adenine in DNA results in hypoxanthine, an uncommon base, opposite thymine. What combination of proteins could repair such damage?
A) nuclease, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase
B) telomerase, primase, DNA polymerase
C) telomerase, helicase, single-strand binding protein
D) DNA ligase, replication fork proteins, adenylyl cyclase
E) nuclease, telomerase, primase

A) nuclease, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase

70

The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of which group?
A) proteins, triglycerides, and testosterone
B) proteins, ATP, and DNA
C) ATP, RNA, and DNA
D) α glucose, ATP, and DNA
E) proteins, carbohydrates, and ATP

C) ATP, RNA, and DNA

71

A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5' AGT 3'. The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is
A) 3' UCA 5'.
B) 3' UGA 5'.
C) 5' TCA 3'.
D) 3' ACU 5'.
E) either UCA or TCA, depending on wobble in the first base.

A) 3' UCA 5'

72

The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume which of the following?
A) A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism.
B) All organisms have experienced convergent evolution.
C) DNA was the first genetic material.
D) The same codons in different organisms translate into the different amino acids.
E) Different organisms have different numbers of different types of amino acids.

A) A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism.

73

The "universal" genetic code is now known to have exceptions. Evidence for this can be found if which of the following is true?
A) If UGA, usually a stop codon, is found to code for an amino acid such as tryptophan (usually coded for by UGG only).
B) If one stop codon, such as UGA, is found to have a different effect on translation than another stop codon, such as UAA.
C) If prokaryotic organisms are able to translate a eukaryotic mRNA and produce the same polypeptide.
D) If several codons are found to translate to the same amino acid, such as serine.
E) If a single mRNA molecule is found to translate to more than one polypeptide when there are two or more AUG sites.

A) If UGA, usually a stop codon, is found to code for an amino acid such as tryptophan (usually coded for by UGG only).

74

Which of the following nucleotide triplets best represents a codon?
A) a triplet separated spatially from other triplets
B) a triplet that has no corresponding amino acid
C) a triplet at the opposite end of tRNA from the attachment site of the amino acid
D) a triplet in the same reading frame as an upstream AUG
E) a sequence in tRNA at the 3' end

D) a triplet in the same reading frame as an upstream AUG

75

Which of the following provides some evidence that RNA probably evolved before DNA?
A) RNA polymerase uses DNA as a template.
B) RNA polymerase makes a single-stranded molecule.
C) RNA polymerase does not require localized unwinding of the DNA.
D) DNA polymerase uses primer, usually made of RNA.
E) DNA polymerase has proofreading function.

D) DNA polymerase uses primer, usually made of RNA.

76

Which of the following statements best describes the termination of transcription in prokaryotes?
A) RNA polymerase transcribes through the polyadenylation signal, causing proteins to associate with the transcript and cut it free from the polymerase.
B) RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to separate from the DNA and release the transcript.
C) RNA polymerase transcribes through an intron, and the snRNPs cause the polymerase to let go of the transcript.
D) Once transcription has initiated, RNA polymerase transcribes until it reaches the end of the chromosome.
E) RNA polymerase transcribes through a stop codon, causing the polymerase to stop advancing through the gene and release the mRNA.

B) RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to separate from the DNA and release the transcript.

77

Which of the following does not occur in prokaryotic eukaryotic gene expression, but does in eukaryotic gene expression?
A) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed.
B) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter.
C) A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA and a cap is added to the 5' end.
D) Transcription can begin as soon as translation has begun even a little.
E) RNA polymerase requires a primer to elongate the molecule.

C) A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA and a cap is added to the 5' end

78

In eukaryotes there are several different types of RNA polymerase. Which type is involved in transcription of mRNA for a globin protein?
A) ligase
B) RNA polymerase I
C) RNA polymerase II
D) RNA polymerase III
E) primase

C) RNA polymerase II

79

Transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following in addition to RNA polymerase?
A) the protein product of the promoter
B) start and stop codons
C) ribosomes and tRNA
D) several transcription factors (TFs)
E) aminoacyl synthetase

D) several transcription factors (TFs)

80

A part of the promoter, called the TATA box, is said to be highly conserved in evolution. Which of the following might this illustrate?
A) The sequence evolves very rapidly.
B) The sequence does not mutate.
C) Any mutation in the sequence is selected against.
D) The sequence is found in many but not all promoters.
E) The sequence is transcribed at the start of every gene.

C) Any mutation in the sequence is selected against.

81

The TATA sequence is found only several nucleotides away from the start site of transcription. This most probably relates to which of the following?
A) the number of hydrogen bonds between A and T in DNA
B) the triplet nature of the codon
C) the ability of this sequence to bind to the start site
D) the supercoiling of the DNA near the start site
E) the 3-D shape of a DNA molecule

A) the number of hydrogen bonds between A and T in DNA

82

What is a ribozyme?
A) an enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate
B) an RNA with enzymatic activity
C) an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits
D) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process
E) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers during DNA replication

A) an enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate

83

A transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids. This is best explained by the fact that
A) many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in mRNA.
B) there is redundancy and ambiguity in the genetic code.
C) many nucleotides are needed to code for each amino acid.
D) nucleotides break off and are lost during the transcription process.
E) there are termination exons near the beginning of mRNA.

A) many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in mRNA.

84

20) During splicing, which molecular component of the spliceosome catalyzes the excision reaction?
A) protein
B) DNA
C) RNA
D) lipid
E) sugar

C) RNA

85

Alternative RNA splicing
A) is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription.
B) can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA.
C) can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs.
D) increases the rate of transcription.
E) is due to the presence or absence of particular snRNPs.

B) can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA

86

Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the
A) binding of ribosomes to mRNA.
B) shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes.
C) bonding of the anticodon to the codon.
D) attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
E) bonding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.

E) bonding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.

87

Which of the following is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes?
A) elongation of the polypeptide
B) base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA
C) binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits
D) covalent bonding between the first two amino acids
E) the small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attaches to the 5' cap of mRNA

E) the small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attaches to the 5' cap of mRNA

88

When translating secretory or membrane proteins, ribosomes are directed to the ER membrane by
A) a specific characteristic of the ribosome itself, which distinguishes free ribosomes from bound ribosomes.
B) a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane.
C) moving through a specialized channel of the nucleus.
D) a chemical signal given off by the ER.
E) a signal sequence of RNA that precedes the start codon of the message.

B) a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane.

89

An experimenter has altered the 3' end of the tRNA corresponding to the amino acid methionine in such a way as to remove the 3' AC. Which of the following hypotheses describes the most likely result?
A) tRNA will not form a cloverleaf.
B) The nearby stem end will pair improperly.
C) The amino acid methionine will not bind.
D) The anticodon will not bind with the mRNA codon.
E) The aminoacylsynthetase will not be formed.

C) The amino acid methionine will not bind.

90

The process of translation, whether in prokaryotes or eukaryotes, requires tRNAs, amino acids, ribosomal subunits, and which of the following?
A) polypeptide factors plus ATP
B) polypeptide factors plus GTP
C) polymerases plus GTP
D) SRP plus chaperones
E) signal peptides plus release factor

B) polypeptide factors plus GTP

91

What is the function of the release factor (RF)?
A) It separates tRNA in the A site from the growing polypeptide.
B) It binds to the stop codon in the A site in place of a tRNA.
C) It releases the amino acid from its tRNA to allow the amino acid to form a peptide bond.
D) It supplies a source of energy for termination of translation.
E) It releases the ribosome from the ER to allow polypeptides into the cytosol.

B) It binds to the stop codon in the A site in place of a tRNA.

92

Suppose that a mutation alters the formation of a tRNA such that it still attaches to the same amino acid (phe) but its anticodon loop has the sequence AAU that binds to the mRNA codon UUA (that usually specifies leucine leu).
A) The modified tRNA will cause this mRNA to make only nonfunctioning product.
B) The tRNA-leu will not be able to enter the site of the ribosome to bind to the UUA.
C) One mutated tRNA molecule will be relatively inconsequential because it will compete with many "normal" ones.
D) The tRNA will be so unstable that it will not participate in translation.
E) The mutated tRNA will result in an amino acid variant in all copies of the protein.

C) One mutated tRNA molecule will be relatively inconsequential because it will compete with many "normal" ones.

93

Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of protein's activity?
A) It might result in a chromosomal translocation.
B) It might exchange one stop codon for another stop codon.
C) It might exchange one serine codon for a different serine codon.
D) It might substitute an amino acid in the active site.
E) It might substitute the N-terminus of the polypeptide for the C-terminus.

D) It might substitute an amino acid in the active site.

94

Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation, is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product?
A) a deletion of a codon
B) a deletion of two nucleotides
C) a substitution of the third nucleotide in an ACC codon
D) a substitution of the first nucleotide of a GGG codon
E) an insertion of a codon

B) a deletion of two nucleotides

95

What is the effect of a nonsense mutation in a gene?
A) It changes an amino acid in the encoded protein.
B) It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein.
C) It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA.
D) It alters the reading frame of the mRNA.
E) It prevents introns from being excised.

C) It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA.

96

A frameshift mutation could result from
A) a base insertion only.
B) a base deletion only.
C) a base substitution only.
D) deletion of three consecutive bases.
E) either an insertion or a deletion of a base.

E) either an insertion or a deletion of a base.

97

Which of the following DNA mutations is the most likely to be damaging to the protein it specifies?
A) a base-pair deletion
B) a codon substitution
C) a substitution in the last base of a codon
D) a codon deletion
E) a point mutation

A) a base-pair deletion

98

If a protein is coded for by a single gene and this protein has six clearly defined domains, which number of exons below is the gene likely to have?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 8
D) 12
E) 14

C) 8

99

Which of the following statements is true about protein synthesis in prokaryotes?
A) Extensive RNA processing is required before prokaryotic transcripts can be translated.
B) Translation can begin while transcription is still in progress.
C) Prokaryotic cells have complicated mechanisms for targeting proteins to the appropriate cellular organelles.
D) Translation requires antibiotic activity.
E) Unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotes require no initiation or elongation factors.

B) Translation can begin while transcription is still in progress.

100

Of the following, which is the most current description of a gene?
A) a unit of heredity that causes formation of a phenotypic characteristic
B) a DNA subunit that codes for a single complete protein
C) a DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either RNA or polypeptide
D) a DNA—RNA sequence combination that results in an enzymatic product
E) a discrete unit of hereditary information that consists of a sequence of amino acids

C) a DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either RNA or polypeptide

101

Gene expression in the domain Archaea in part resembles that of bacteria and in part that of the domain Eukarya. In which way is it most like the domain Eukarya?
A) Domain Archaea have numerous transcription factors.
B) Initiation of translation is like that of domain Eukarya.
C) There is only one RNA polymerase.
D) Transcription termination often involves attenuation.
E) Post-transcriptional splicing is like that of Eukarya.

A) Domain Archaea have numerous transcription factors.

102

Which of the following is true of transcription in domain Archaea?
A) It is regulated in the same way as in domain Bacteria.
B) There is only one kind of RNA polymerase.
C) It is roughly simultaneous with translation.
D) Promoters are identical to those in domain Eukarya.
E) It terminates in a manner similar to bacteria.

A) It is regulated in the same way as in domain Bacteria.

103

In comparing DNA replication with RNA transcription in the same cell, which of the following is true only of replication?
A) It uses RNA polymerase.
B) It makes a new molecule from its 5' end to its 3' end.
C) The process is extremely fast once it is initiated.
D) The process occurs in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell.
E) The entire template molecule is represented in the product.

E) The entire template molecule is represented in the product.

104

In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until
A) the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter.
B) several transcription factors have bound to the promoter.
C) the 5' caps are removed from the mRNA.
D) the DNA introns are removed from the template.
E) DNA nucleases have isolated the transcription unit.

B) several transcription factors have bound to the promoter.

105

Which of the following is not true of a codon?
A) It consists of three nucleotides.
B) It may code for the same amino acid as another codon.
C) It never codes for more than one amino acid.
D) It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule.
E) It is the basic unit of the genetic code.

D) It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule.

106

The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is
A) complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon.
B) complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA.
C) the part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid.
D) changeable, depending on the amino acid that attaches to the tRNA.
E) catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme.

A) complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon.

107

A lack of which molecule would result in the cell's inability to "turn off" genes?
A) operon
B) inducer
C) promoter
D) ubiquitin
E) corepressor

E) corepressor

108

Which of the following, when taken up by the cell, binds to the repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator?
A) ubiquitin
B) inducer
C) promoter
D) repressor
E) corepressor

B) inducer

109

Most repressor proteins are allosteric. Which of the following binds with the repressor to alter its conformation?
A) inducer
B) promoter
C) RNA polymerase
D) transcription factor
E) cAMP

A) inducer

110

The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when
A) there is more glucose in the cell than lactose.
B) the cyclic AMP levels are low.
C) there is glucose but no lactose in the cell.
D) the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.
E) the cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low.

D) the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.

111

Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon
A) occurs continuously in the cell.
B) starts when the pathway's substrate is present.
C) starts when the pathway's product is present.
D) stops when the pathway's product is present.
E) does not result in the production of enzymes.

B) starts when the pathway's substrate is present.

112

For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must occur?
A) A corepressor must be present.
B) RNA polymerase and the active repressor must be present.
C) RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
D) RNA polymerase cannot be present, and the repressor must be inactive.
E) RNA polymerase must not occupy the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.

C) RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.

113

Allolactose, an isomer of lactose, is formed in small amounts from lactose. An E. coli cell is presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing allolactose) as a potential food source. Which of the following occurs when the lactose enters the cell?
A) The repressor protein attaches to the regulator.
B) Allolactose binds to the repressor protein.
C) Allolactose binds to the regulator gene.
D) The repressor protein and allolactose bind to RNA polymerase.
E) RNA polymerase attaches to the regulator.

B) Allolactose binds to the repressor protein.

114

Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve the organism's survival in which of the following ways?
A) organizing gene expression so that genes are expressed in a given order
B) allowing each gene to be expressed an equal number of times
C) allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions
D) allowing young organisms to respond differently from more mature organisms
E) allowing environmental changes to alter the prokaryote's genome

C) allowing the organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions

115

There is a mutation in the repressor that results in a molecule known as a super-repressor because it represses the lac operon permanently. Which of these would characterize such a mutant?
A) It cannot bind to the operator.
B) It cannot make a functional repressor.
C) It cannot bind to the inducer.
D) It makes molecules that bind to one another.
E) It makes a repressor that binds CAP.

C) It cannot bind to the inducer.

116

Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are
A) DNA methylation and histone amplification.
B) DNA amplification and histone methylation.
C) DNA acetylation and methylation.
D) DNA methylation and histone modification.
E) histone amplification and DNA acetylation.

D) DNA methylation and histone modification.

117

During DNA replication,
A) all methylation of the DNA is lost at the first round of replication.
B) DNA polymerase is blocked by methyl groups, and methylated regions of the genome are therefore left uncopied.
C) methylation of the DNA is maintained because methylation enzymes act at DNA sites where one strand is already methylated and thus correctly methylates daughter strands after replication.
D) methylation of the DNA is maintained because DNA polymerase directly incorporates methylated nucleotides into the new strand opposite any methylated nucleotides in the template.
E) methylated DNA is copied in the cytoplasm, and unmethylated DNA is copied in the nucleus.

C) methylation of the DNA is maintained because methylation enzymes act at DNA sites where one strand is already methylated and thus correctly methylates daughter strands after replication.

118

In eukaryotes, general transcription factors
A) are required for the expression of specific protein-encoding genes.
B) bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box.
C) inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter and begin transcribing.
D) usually lead to a high level of transcription even without additional specific transcription factors.
E) bind to sequences just after the start site of transcription.

B) bind to other proteins or to a sequence element within the promoter called the TATA box.

119

Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA binding domains as well as other domains that are also specific for binding. In general, which of the following would you expect many of them to be able to bind?
A) repressors
B) ATP
C) protein-based hormones
D) other transcription factors
E) tRNA

D) other transcription factors

120

Which of the following experimental procedures is most likely to hasten mRNA degradation in a eukaryotic cell?
A) enzymatic shortening of the poly-A tail
B) removal of the 5' cap
C) methylation of C nucleotides
D) methylation of histones
E) removal of one or more exons

B) removal of the 5' cap

121

The phenomenon in which RNA molecules in a cell are destroyed if they have a sequence complementary to an introduced double-stranded RNA is called
A) RNA interference.
B) RNA obstruction.
C) RNA blocking.
D) RNA targeting.
E) RNA disposal.

A) RNA interference.

122

Which of the following describes the function of an enzyme known as Dicer?
A) It degrades single-stranded DNA.
B) It degrades single-stranded mRNA.
C) It degrades mRNA with no poly-A tail.
D) It trims small double-stranded RNAs into molecules that can block translation.
E) It chops up single-stranded DNAs from infecting viruses.

D) It trims small double-stranded RNAs into molecules that can block translation.

123

Since Watson and Crick described DNA in 1953, which of the following might best explain why the function of small RNAs is still being explained?
A) As RNAs have evolved since that time, they have taken on new functions.
B) Watson and Crick described DNA but did not predict any function for RNA.
C) The functions of small RNAs could not be approached until the entire human genome was sequenced.
D) Ethical considerations prevented scientists from exploring this material until recently.
E) Changes in technology as well as our ability to determine how much of the DNA is expressed have now made this possible.

E) Changes in technology as well as our ability to determine how much of the DNA is expressed have now made this possible.

124

The fact that plants can be cloned from somatic cells demonstrates that
A) differentiated cells retain all the genes of the zygote.
B) genes are lost during differentiation.
C) the differentiated state is normally very unstable.
D) differentiated cells contain masked mRNA.
E) differentiation does not occur in plants.

A) differentiated cells retain all the genes of the zygote.

125

Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression?
A) the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA
B) the binding of transcription factors to a promoter
C) the removal of introns and alternative splicing of exons
D) gene amplification contributing to cancer
E) the folding of DNA to form heterochromatin

C) the removal of introns and alternative splicing of exons

126

Within a cell, the amount of protein made using a given mRNA molecule depends partly on
A) the degree of DNA methylation.
B) the rate at which the mRNA is degraded.
C) the presence of certain transcription factors.
D) the number of introns present in the mRNA.
E) the types of ribosomes present in the cytoplasm.

B) the rate at which the mRNA is degraded.