BCH Exam 3 Flashcards


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1

A palindrome is

A. A DNA sequence that contains only one kind of base
B. A DNA sequence that contains only two kinds of bases
C. A sequence that reads the same from left to right as from right to left
D. None of the above

C. A sequence that reads the same from left to right as from right to left

2

In the polymerase chain reaction, it is possible to:

A. It is possible to amplify small amounts of DNA without cloning
B. Conditions must be carefully controlled to prevent explosions
C. Reaction mixtures must be chilled at all times
D. All of the above

A. It is possible to amplify small amounts of DNA without cloning

3

Antibiotic resistance genes in vectors are often used as selectable markers in cloning

A. True
B. False

A. True

4

A bacteriophage is

A. A virus that attacks bacteria
B. A piece of DNA derived from two or more sources
C. A small, circular piece of DNA that is not part of the bacterial chromosome
D. An artificially created cytoplasm

A. A virus that attacks bacteria

5

Which of the following statements regarding restriction endoculeases is TRUE?

A. They attack RNA, not DNA
B. They can produce "sticky ends"
C. They can attack one single stranded DNA sequences only
D. They do not display sequence specificity in their site of attack

B. They can produce "sticky ends"

6

The following item was the most important scientific discovery for the development of PCR as a commercially successful and widely-used procedure

A. Taq polymerase
B. Heat-resistant DNA
C. Heat-resistant primers for DNA synthesis
D. Robotic machines to run the PCR procedure
E. Heat-resistant nucleoside triphosphate substrates

A. Taq polymerase

7

In recombinant DNA technology

A. Vectors are used as carriers for recombinant genes
B. It is possible to insert eukaryotic genes into prokaryotic DNA
C. Foreign DNA is frequently inserted into a bacterial plasmid
D. All of these

D. All of these

8

The natural function of restriction endonucleases is to

A. Protect bacterial cells from invasion by viruses (bacteriophages)
B. Help bacteriophages infect cells
C. Regulate gene expression from specific promoters
D. Remove chromatic from histones

A. Protect bacterial cells from invasion by viruses (bacteriophages)

9

Which is the dominant form of DNA found in the cell?

A. A
B. B
C. Z
D. H

B. B

10

Ethidium Bromide slips between the bases of DNA giving it fluorescent properties that differ from those observed when it is free in solution

A. True
B. False

A. True

11

The Z form of DNA

A. Does not exist in nature
B. Is right-handed
C. Tends to occur in purine-only sequences
D. Tends to occur in pyrimidine-only sequences
E. Tends to occur in alternating purine-pyrimidine sequences

E. Tends to occur in alternating purine-pyrimidine sequences

12

Histones are proteins that

A. Are frequently associated with eukaryotic DNA
B. Are frequently associated with prokaryotic DNA
C. Are never found in association with DNA
D. Contain a high percentage of residues with carboxylic acid side chains

A. Are frequently associated with eukaryotic DNA

13

Which of the following nucleobases is a purine?

A. Adenine
B. Cytosine
C. Thymine
D. Uracil

A. Adenine

14

Which of the following bases is NOT found in RNA?

A. A
B. C
C. G
D. T
E. All of these are found in RNA

D. T

15

The outside diameter of a piece of DNA is closest to

A. 2A
B. 20A
C. 200A
D. 2000A

B. 20A

16

What distinguishes nucleotides from nucleosides?

A. Nucleosides lack the phosphate group
B. Nucleosides lack the sugar group
C. Nucleosides lack a nitrogenous base
D. None of the above

A. Nucleosides lack the phosphate group

17

The double helix of DNA is which level of structure?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

B. Secondary

18

Which of the following groups is NOT present in a cerebroside?

A. Sphingosine
B. Fatty acid
C. Phosphate
D. Sugar

C. Phosphate

19

Unsaturated fatty acids usually have ____ double bonds?

A. Cis
B. Trans

A. Cis

20

How many hydroxyl groups does a molecule of glycerol have?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

C. 3

21

What characteristics is used most often to define lipids?

A. Ionic Charge
B. Melting Point
C. Solubility
D. Ability to bind metal ions

C. Solubility

22

Which of the following is a metabolic precursor of prostaglandins and leukotrienes?

A. Vitamin A
B. Arachidonic Acid
C. Sphingomyelin
D. Cholesterol

B. Arachidonic Acid

23

The myelin sheaths of neurons typically contain large amounts of

A. Waxes
B. Triacylglycerols
C. Cholesterol
D. Sphingolipids

D. Sphingolipids

24

Which of the following is NOT a product of saponification of a triglyceride?

A. Long chain fatty alcohols
B. The salt of the fatty acids
C. Soaps
D. Glycerol
E. All of these are products of saponification

A. Long chain fatty alcohols

25

What does amphiphatic mean?

A. Having both positive and negative charges
B. Having both acid and base properties
C. Having both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions
D. Having two stereoisomers

C. Having both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions

26

Which of the following groups is NOT present in sphingomyelin?

A. Sphingosine
B. Fatty acid
C. Phosphate
D. Sugar

D. Sugar

27

Biological waxes are composed of:

A. Glycerol and only one fatty acid
B. Glycerol and two fatty acids
C. A fatty acid and a long chain alcohol
D. Cholesterol and a fatty acid

C. A fatty acid and a long chain alcohol

28

Base pairs with a propeller twists

A. Are found only in Z DNA
B. Have optimum base stacking
C. Bind water in the minor groove
D. Have stronger hydrogen bonds than base pairs without a propeller twist

B. Have optimum base stacking

29

The structure below is that of

A. Adenine
B. Thymine
C. Cytosine
D. Guanine

A. Adenine

30

Enzymes that seal nicks in DNA are called

A. Restriction enzymes
B. Bacteriophages
C. Ligases
D. Exonucleases

C. Ligases