a&p final

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chapter 16-?
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1

Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through
intracellular ________.

A) ions
B) deactivators
C) nucleotides
D) second messengers

D

2

Which of the following is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus?

A) enzyme
B) humoral
C) neural
D) hormonal

A

3

ADH ________.

A) increases urine production
B) promotes dehydration
C) is produced in the adenohypophysis
D) is inhibited by alcohol

D

4

The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent
on ________.

A) the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path
B) the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ
C) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ
D) nothingall hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types
because hormones are powerful and nonspecific

C

5

Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior
pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary
gland is through the ________.

A) hepatic portal system
B) general circulatory system
C) hypophyseal portal system
D) feedback loop

C

6

Hormones often cause a cell to elicit multiple responses; this is because ________.

A) there are thousands of receptors on the cell membrane
B) the receptors bind to several hormones at the same time
C) the protein kinases are rapidly metabolized
D) during protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes

D

7

Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to ________.

A) insulin, because insulin is a small peptide
B) steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells
C) growth hormone, because the thyroid works synergistically with thyroid hormone
D) glucagon, because the structure of glucagon is similar to that of thyroid hormone

B

8

The major targets of growth hormone are ________.

A) the blood vessels
B) the adrenal glands
C) the liver
D) bones and skeletal muscles

D

9

The parathyroid glands maintain adequate levels of blood calcium. This is accomplished
through ________.

A) blocking the action of growth hormone
B) targeting the bone and activating osteoclasts so that calcium will be released
C) antagonizing the synthesis of calcitonin
D) slowing the activity of tissues that require calcium for activity

B

10

Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?

A) the heart
B) the kidney
C) the skin
D) the spleen

A

11

Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to ________.

A) testosterone
B) estrogen
C) cortisol
D) epinephrine

C

12

Which of the following would be associated with the action of steroids on cells?

A) extracellular receptors with a specificity for only a single amino acid sequence on the
hormone
B) an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP
C) second-messenger systems
D) a hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cellʹs DNA

D

13

In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the
DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the
target organ. This is known as ________.

A) the cellʹs sensitivity reaction
B) cellular affinity
C) up-regulation
D) a reaction to a stressor

C

14

The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is ________.

A) hemoglobin A
B) hemoglobin B
C) hemoglobin F
D) hemoglobin S

C

15

Glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress. They accomplish this by ___________________.

a. decreasing the heart rate, thus decreasing blood pressure Incorrect
b. stimulating the pancreas to release insulin Incorrect
c. increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure Correct
d. blocking the neurotransmitters that prepare the body for the stress response

C

16

Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?

A) megakaryocyte
B) NK cell
C) hemocytoblast
D) polymorphonuclear cell

C

17

Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

hypoxia of EPO-producing cells

18

As red blood cells age ________.

membranes "wear out" and the cells become damaged

19

An individual who is blood type AB negative can ________.

receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen

20

When neither anti-A sera nor anti-B sera clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type ________.

o

21

Select the correct statement regarding blood cell formation

marrow is the main site of blood cell formation throughout adult life.

22

All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except ________.

low blood viscosity

23

Place the following in correct developmental sequence:
1. reticulocyte
2. proerythroblast
3. normoblast
4. late erythroblast

2, 4, 3, 1

24

Thromboembolic disorders ________.

include embolus formation, a clot moving within the circulatory system

25

Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?

They are nucleated.

26

Which sequence is correct for the following events?
1. fibrinogen → fibrin
2. clot retraction
3. formation of thromboplastin
4. prothrombin → thrombin

3, 4, 1, 2

27

When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the child of an Rh negative mother?

if the father is Rh-

28

What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?

Kidney

29

Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?

closure of the heart valves

30

The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates ________.

atrial depolarization

31

The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the ________.

coronary arteries

32

The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it ________.

pumps blood against a greater resistance

33

If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from ________.

decreased delivery of oxygen

34

Norepinephrine acts on the heart by ______

causing threshold to be reached more quickly

35

If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________.

the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute

36

Foramen ovale ________.

connects the two atria in the fetal heart

37

The tricuspid valve is closed ________.

when the ventricle is in systole

38

When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by ________.

noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls

39

Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________.

has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium

40

If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, ________.

threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase

41

Isovolumetric contraction ________.

refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers

42

Which of the following chemicals does not help regulate blood pressure?

nitric acid

43

Which statement best describes arteries?

All carry blood away from the heart

44

Which tunic of an artery contains endothelium?

tunica intima

45

Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of ________.

capillaries

46

Aldosterone will ________.

promote an increase in blood pressure

47

The pulse pressure is ________.

systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure

48

Which of the following is true about veins?

Veins are called capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs

49

Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure?

renal regulation

50

Peripheral resistance ________.

increases as blood viscosity increases

51

Blood flow to the skin

increases when environmental temp rises

52

Which of the choices below reflects the balance (or imbalance) between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across capillary walls?

hydrostatic and osmotic pressure

53

The influence of blood vessel diameter on peripheral resistance is

significant because resistance is inversely proportional to the fourth power if the vessel radius.

54

The form of circulatory shock known as hypovolemic shock is

shock that results from large-scale loss of blood volume, or ater sever vomiting or diarrhea

55

Factors that aid venous return include all except

urinary output

56

The velocity of blood flow is

slowest in capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest

57

Select the correct statement about blood flow

Blood flow through the entire vascular system is equivalent to cardiac output

58

Where in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high levels causing vasodilation?

lungs

59

The baroreceptors in the cartoid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following?

changes in arterial pressure

60

The distal portion of the small intestine contains clumps of lymph follicles called ________.

Peyer's patches

61

Both lymph and venous blood flow are heavily dependent on ________.

skeletal muscle contractions and differences in thoracic pressures due to respiratory movement

62

What effect does age have on the size of the thymus?

The thymus initially increases in size and then decreases in size from adolescence through old age.

63

The lymphatic capillaries are ________.

more permeable than blood capillaries

64

Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ________.

plasma cells

65

Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________.

efferent lymphatic vessels

66

Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones?

lymphocytes

67

When the lymphatic structures are blocked due to tumors, the result is ________.

severe localized edema distal to the blockage

68

Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue

Lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue.

69

Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) ________.

tonsil

70

Lymph capillaries are absent in all but which of the following?

digestive organs

71

The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not

directly fight antigens

72

Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the ________.

lower extremities

73

Digestive tract-associated lymphatic tissue includes all of the following except ________.

islets of Langerhans

74

The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________.

lingual tonsils

75

Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph?

red blood cells

76

Which of the following are functions of lymphoid tissue

A and C

77

Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies?

composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains

78

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

79

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.

bone marrow

80

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________.

vasodilation:

81

The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called ________.

chemotaxis

82

Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called ________.

haptens

83

The only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells are the ________.

cytotoxic cells

84

Regulatory T cells ________.

may function in preventing autoimmune reactions

85

Select the correct definition about tissue grafts

Isografts are between identical twins

86

Which of the following does not describe antigens

antigens only come from microbes

87

Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?
A) keratin
B) cilia
C) gastric juice
D) phagocytes

d

88

Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens?
A) small molecules
B) reactivity with an antibody
C) contain many repeating chemical units
D) inhibit production of antibodies

b

89

B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by ________.
A) reducing its size
B) immediately producing antigen-specific antibodies
C) forming of a large number of cells that are unlike the original B cell
D) producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells

D

90

Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by ________.
A) natural killer cells
B) T lymphocytes
C) B lymphocytes
D) pinocytosis

A

91

Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed ________.
A) diapedesis
B) agglutination
C) opsonization
D) chemotaxis

C

92

Which of the following would be classified as a delayed hypersensitivity reaction?
A) immune complex hypersensitivity
B) anaphylaxis
C) cytotoxic hypersensitivity
D) allergic contact dermatitis

D

93

Innate immune system defenses include ________.
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) plasma cells
D) phagocytosis

D

94

Fever ________.
A) is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous
B) decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy
C) production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting
D) causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication

C

95

Helper T cells ________.
A) bind tightly to target cells and release a lymphotoxin called perforin
B) often function to decrease the immune response
C) release B7 proteins
D) function in the adaptive immune system activation

D

96

Which of the following is true of immediate hypersensitivities?
A) They are also called type IV hypersensitivities.
B) They are are adaptive immune responses to disease organisms.
C) They include allergic contact dermatitis.
D) They involve IgE antibodies and the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils.

D

97

Natural killer (NK) cells ________.
A) are also called cytotoxic T cells
B) are a type of phagocyte
C) are cells of the adaptive immune system
D) can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated

D

98

Select the correct statement about antigens.
A) "Self-antigens" is another name for incomplete antigens.
B) The largest type of antigen is called a hapten.
C) Only small antigens exhibit reactivity.
D) One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

D

99

Which of the following cells is the most critical cell in immunity?
A) B cell
B) helper T cell
C) cytotoxic T cell
D) APC

B

100

Toll-like receptors (TLRs) trigger the release of ________ to attract white blood cells to the scene.
A) cytokines
B) histamine
C) prostaglandins
D) complement

A

101

What is the role of interferon in defense against disease?
A) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses
B) protects cells that have not yet been infected by bacteria
C) activates the complement mechanism
D) activates the inflammatory process

A

102

The loudness of a person's voice depends on the ________.

force with which air rushes across the vocal folds

103

The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The function of type II is to ________.

secrete surfactant

104

Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is

greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.

105

Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea?

cartilage rings

106

Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________.

pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

107

The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases ________.

Dalton's law

108

For gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be ________.

0.5 to 1 micrometer thick

109

With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because a(n) ________.

decrease in pH (acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

110

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ________.

increase of carbon dioxide

111

Nerve impulses from ________ will result in inspiration.

the ventral respiratory group

112

In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is ________.

only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved form

113

Which of the following is not true of the respiratory tract from the medium bronchi to the aveoli?

Resistance to air flow increases due to the increase in cross-sectional diameter.

114

Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?

partial pressure gradient

115

Possible causes of hypoxia include ________.

too little oxygen in the atmosphere

116

Because the lungs are filled with fluid during fetal life, which of the following statements is true regarding respiratory exchange?

Respiratory exchanges are made through the placenta.

117

Respiratory control centers are located in the ________.

medulla and pons

118

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ________.

diffusion

119

The respiratory membrane is a combination of ________.

alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes

120

Which center is located in the pons?

pontine respirator group (PRG)

121

Select the correct statement about the neural mechanisms of respiratory control.
A) The pons is thought to be instrumental in the smooth transition from inspiration to expiration.
B) The ventral respiratory group (expiratory center) neurons depolarize in a rhythmic way to establish the
pattern of breathing.
C) The pontine respirator group (PRG) continuously stimulates the medulla to provide inspiratory drive.
D) The dorsal respiratory group (inspiratory center) is contained within the pons.

A

122

The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are ________.
A) the smooth muscles of the lung
B) the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles alone
C) the visceral pleurae and the changing volume of the lungs
D) surface tension from pleural fluid, negative pressure, and atmospheric pressure on the thorax

D

123

The erythrocyte count increases after a while when an individual goes from a low to a high altitude because ________.
A) the temperature is lower at higher altitudes
B) the basal metabolic rate is higher at high altitudes
C) the concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is higher at higher altitudes
D) the concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes

D

124

Which of the disorders is characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing abnormally large air spaces that remain filled with air during exhalation?

emphysema

125

When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. These reactions are called?

Chemical digestion

126

From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basi layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen.

Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

127

the capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the what

lamina propria

128

which hormone causes an increased output of enzyme rich panacreatic juice and stimulates gallbladder contraction to release bile

cholectokinin

129

The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task?

plicae circulares and intestinal villi

130

In addition to storage and mechanical breakdown of food, the stomach ________.

initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins

131

Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which of the secretory cells of the stomach?

parietal cells

132

There are three phases of gastric secretion. The cephalic phase occurs ________.

before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought

133

Peristaltic waves are ________.

waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

134

Pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the ________.

chief cells of the stomach

135

You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal?

amylase

136

Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?

B12

137

The function of the goblet cells is to ________.

produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion

138

Which of the following is an essential role played by large intestine bacteria?

A. produce gas
B. synthesize vitamin K and B-complex vitamins
C. synthesize vitamins C and D
D. absorb bilirubin

B. synthesize vitamin K and B-complex vitamins

139

Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by ______ .

D. the vagus nerve and enteric plexus

140

Which of the following enzymes is specific for proteins?
A) dextrinase
B) amylase
C) trypsin
D) lipase

c

141

A fluid secreted into the small intestine during digestion that contains cholesterol, emulsification agents, and phospholipids is ________.
A) bile
B) pancreatic juice
C) intestinal juice
D) gastric juice

A

142

How are most nutrients absorbed through the mucosa of the intestinal villa?

active transport driven directly or indirectly by metabolic energy

143

The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur?

Bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum.

144

The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is ______.

Glucose

145

Cholesterol, though it is not an energy molecule, has importance in the body because it _________.

Is a stabilizing component of the plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones.

146

When proteins undergo deamination, the waste substance found in the urine is mostly ________.

Urea

147

Anabolism includes reactions in which

larger molecules are built from smaller ones

148

The primary function of cellular respiration is to _________.

Break down food molecules and generate ATP.

149

Transamination is the process whereby the amine group of an amino acid is ___.

Transferred to a keto acid.

150

Gluconeogenisis is the process in which

glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate precursers

151

Which of the choices below happens during the absorptive state?

Anabolic processes exceed catabolic ones.

152

Loss of heat in the form of infrared waves:

Radiation

153

Which hormone directs essentially all the events of the absorptive state.

Insulin

154

As the body progresses from the absorptive state to the postabsorptive state, only the ___=

Brain

155

The amount of ___ produced is probably the most important hormonal factor in determining BMR.

Thryoxine.

156

Which of the following nutrients yield the highest amount of energy per gram?

Fats

157

Conditions that promote the oxidative deamination and energy use of amino acids include:

Excessive amounts of protein in the diet.

158

The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability
properties of the ________.
A) loop of Henle
B) glomerular filtration membrane
C) collecting duct
D) distal convoluted tubule.

A

159

An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to ________.
A) a decrease in the production of ADH
B) an increase in the production of ADH
C) an increase in the production of aldosterone
D) a decrease in the concentration of the blood plasma

B

160

The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin ________.
A) when the peritubular capillaries are dilated
B) when the pH of the urine decreases
C) by a decrease in the blood pressure
D) when the specific gravity of urine rises above 1.10

C

161

The juxtaglomerular apparatus is responsible for ________.
A) the secretion of drugs
B) the secretion of acids and ammonia
C) reabsorption of organic molecules, vitamins, and water
D) regulating the rate of filtrate formation and controlling systemic blood pressure

D

162

The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is ________.
A) the design and size of the podocytes
B) the thickness of the capillary endothelium
C) glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)
D) the size of the pores in the basement membrane of the capillaries

C

163

The filtration membrane includes all except ________.
A) glomerular endothelium
B) podocytes
C) renal fascia
D) basement membrane

C

164

The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________.
A) active transport
B) osmosis
C) solvent drag
D) cotransport with sodium ions

B

165

The macula densa cells respond to ________.
A) aldosterone
B) antidiuretic hormone
C) changes in pressure in the tubule
D) changes in solute content of the filtrate

D

166

The fluid in the glomerular (Bowmanʹs) capsule is similar to plasma except that it does not contain a
significant amount of ________.
A) glucose
B) hormones
C) electrolytes
D) plasma protein

D

167

Reabsorption of high levels of glucose and amino acids in the filtrate is accomplished by ________.
A) facilitated diffusion
B) passive transport
C) countertransport
D) secondary active transport

D

168

The factor favoring filtrate formation at the glomerulus is ________.
A) the colloid osmotic pressure of the blood
B) the glomerular hydrostatic pressure
C) the capsular hydrostatic pressure
D) the myogenic mechanism

B

169

If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, what does this mean?
A) The glucose molecule is too large to be filtered out of the blood.
B) Most of the glucose is filtered out of the blood and is not reabsorbed in the convoluted tubules.
C) Normally all the glucose is reabsorbed.
D) The clearance value of glucose is relatively high in a healthy adult

C

170

Excretion of dilute urine requires ________.
A) relative permeability of the distal tubule to water
B) impermeability of the collecting tubule to water
C) transport of sodium and chloride ions out of the descending loop of Henle
D) the presence of ADH

B

171

Which of the choices below is not a glomerular filtration rate control method?

electrolyte levels

172

The body's water volume is closely tied to the level of which of the following ions?
A) calcium ions
B) potassium ions
C) hydrogen ions
D) sodium ions

D

173

Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that is made in the atria of the heart. The influence of this hormone is to ________.
A) enhance atrial contractions
B) activate the renin-angiotensin mechanism
C) prevent pH changes caused by organic acids
D) reduce blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting sodium and water retention

D

174

Respiratory acidosis can occur when ________.
A) a person consumes excessive amounts of antacids
B) a person's breathing is shallow due to obstruction
C) a runner has completed a very long marathon
D) the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions

B

175

Which of the following two organs function as the most important physiological buffer systems?
A) the lungs and the kidneys
B) the adrenal glands and the testes
C) the thyroid gland and the heart
D) the stomach and the liver

A

176

The single most important factor influencing potassium ion secretion is ________.
A) the potassium ion content in the renal tubule cells
B) the pH of the ICF
C) intracellular sodium levels
D) potassium ion concentration in blood plasma

D

177

The term alkaline reserve is used to describe the ________ buffer system.
A) phosphate
B) hemoglobin
C) bicarbonate
D) protein

C

178

The movement of fluids between cellular compartments ________.
A) requires active transport
B) is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces
C) requires ATP for the transport to take place
D) involves filtration

B

179

Which of the following is not a chemical buffer system?
A) bicarbonate
B) phosphate
C) nucleic acid
D) protein

C

180

Which of the following statements is true regarding fluid shifts?
A) Nonelectrolytes are the controlling factor in directing fluid shifts.
B) Electrolytes are not as important as proteins in regulating fluid shifts in the body.
C) Electrolytes have greater osmotic power than nonelectrolytes and therefore have the greatest ability to cause fluid shifts.
D) There are always more positive electrolytes than negative in a solution; it is therefore impossible to follow fluid shifts.

C

181

Which of the following hormones is important in stimulating water conservation in the kidneys?
A) aldosterone
B) thymosin
C) antidiuretic hormone
D) atrial natriuretic peptide

C

182

The regulation of sodium ________.
A) is due to specific sodium receptors in the hypothalamus
B) is linked to blood pressure
C) involves aldosterone, a hormone that increases sodium excretion in the kidneys
D) involves hypothalamic osmoreceptor detection of ion concentration

B

183

Select the correct statement about renal mechanisms of acid-base balance.
A) The kidneys are not able to excrete phosphoric acid.
B) Excreted hydrogen ions are unbound in the filtrate.
C) Kidney tubule cells are able to synthesize bicarbonate ion.
D) The kidneys are the most important mechanism for eliminating all bicarbonate ions.

C

184

A patient is breathing slowly and blood pH analysis indicates an abnormally high value. What is the likely diagnosis?
A) respiratory acidosis
B) metabolic acidosis
C) metabolic alkalosis
D) respiratory alkalosiS

C