Biochemical Tests
-provide most objective and quantitative data on nutritional status
-can often detect nutrient deficiencies before anthropometric meaurements and clinical symptoms
2 general categories of biochemical test
Static
Functional
Static Tests
-direct tests
-measurement of nutrient of metabolite in (BLOOD,URINE,BODY TISSUE)
-may not reflect overall nutrient status vs. levels in specific tissue tested
Functional Tests
-indirect tests
-measures physiological processes for optimum performance
-tend to be non-specific may indicate general nutritional status but not specific nutrient deficiency
Biochemical can be used to
-examine validity of other methods of measuring dietary intake
-to determine if respondents are accurately reporting intake
Non-nutritional factors may influence test results
examples
Biochemical test must be used in conjunction with
anthropometric, clinical, and dietary methods
Roles of protein in body:
-Structural: muscles, connective, tissue, bone matrix
-regulatory: hormones, enzymes
-fluid acid base balance
-immune function
2 compartment model (Protein Status)
-Somatic protein
-Visceral protein
Somatic Protein
protein found within skeletal muscle
Visceral Protein
protein within organs, in RBCs & WBCs, and serum proteins
Protein-energy malnutrition (PEM)
-also called protein-calorie malnutrition (PCM)
____ more common in developing countries
protein status
Assessment of ______ _______ essential to the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of PEM
protein status
Causes of PEM:
Primary: inadequate food intake
Secondary: other diseases leading (insufficient food intake, inadequate nutrient absorption or utilization, increased nutritional requirement, increased nutrient)
Test of Protein Synthesis
-Creatine
-Nitrogen Balance
-Serum Proteins
-Immunocompetence
Creatinine
-a product of skeletal muscle that is excreted in a relatively constant proportion to the mass of muscle in the body
-Extimates body muscle mass
Creatinine Excretion
-24 hour creatinine excretion
-Lean body mass extimated by comparing 24 hour creatinine excretion with
M: 23mg/kg F:18mg/kg
____ expressed as percent of expected value
CHI
CHI formula
CHI= 24hr. urine creatinine (mg)/ expected 24 hr creatinine x100
Creatinine-Heaight Index (CHI)
Ratio of pt's measured 24 hour creatinine excretion and the expected exretion of a reference adult of same ht. and gender
60-80% CHI
Mild protein depletion
40-60% CHI
Moderate protein depletion
< 40% CHI
Severe protein depeletion
_____ is a state in which the amount of nitrogen in (consumed as protein) equals the amount of nitrogen excreted by body
Nitrogen Balance
______ is expected state in healthy adults
Nitrogen balance
Occurs when nitrogen intake exceeds nitrogen loss
Positive Nitrogen Balance
Positive Nitrogen Balance ex..
-anaboloic state
-growth during childhood and adolescence
-recovery from trauma, surgery, or illness
Negative Nitrogen Balance
when losses exceed nitrogen intake
Negative Nitrogen Balance ex.
-catabolic state
-insufficient protein intake
-infection, trauma, surgery, illness
-periods of excessive protein loss (burns, GI or renal disease)
1g Nitrogen =
6.25 g protein
Nitrogen balance equations =
(protein intake/6.25)- UNN - 4
Useful in
-assessing protein status
-pt. is at risk of medical complication
-pt. response to nutritional support
Serum Proteins
Measuring serum proteins is usually _____ and _____
simple and accurate
Use of serum proteins based on
assumption that decreases concentrations are due to decreased liver production (primary site of synthesis)
Limited supply of amino acids or decrease in liver's ability to synthesize _____
Serum Proteins
Cannot always determine extent to which nutritional status or liver functions affects _____
serum protein concentrations
Factos other than inadequate protein intake affect _____
serum protein concentrations
Most abundant serum protein & synthesized in liver
Albumin
Maintains fluid/electrolyte balance & transport of substances
Albumin
indicates depleted protein status and decreased dietary intake
Albumin
Low concentrations associated with increased morbidity/mortality in hospital pt's.
Albumin
Limitations for albumin:
-long halflife (18-20 days)
-large body pool causes serum levels to repsond slowly to food change
-POOR INDICATE EARLY PROTEIN DEPLETION/REPLETION
DECREASED albumin
liver disease, kidney disease, infection, surgery, cancer, burns
Fluid status affects Albumin levels
decreases when blood volume increases (heart failure, renal failure)
increases with dehydration
Synthesized in liver & bind/transports iron in plasma
Transferrin
Better indicator than albumin bc smaller body pool/shorter half-life (8-9 days)
Transferrin
Transferrin levels decreased by
liver disease, kidney disease, infections, surgery, trauma, burns
Transferrin levels increased by
pregnancy, blood loss
______ levels inversely related to iron stores (levels are high in iron deficiency/ low when too much iron)
transferrin
Also called transthyretin or thyroxine-binding ________
Prealbumin
-Synthesized in liver
-trasport protein for thyroxine/carrier for retinol-binding protein
-more sensitive indicator of protein status due to short half/life (2-3 days)
-small body pool
Prealbumin
Factors that affect levels of Prealbumin
-decreased in liver disease
-infection, state, trauma
-increased in chronic renal failure pt's on dialysis
A liver protein that acts as a carrier for retinol (Vit A). Responds quickly to depletion/repletion of protein and energy
Retinol-Binding Protein
Responds to adequate energy in absence of sufficient protein. Half-life (12hrs) much shorter than prealbumin and body pool very small (complicates measurement)
Retinol-Binding Protein
Levels increased in renal disease
Levels decreased in Vit. A deficiency, surgery, trauma
Retinol-Binding Protein
What is the normal (reference) values for Albumin?
3.5-5.0g/dl
What is the normal (reference) values for Transferrin?
200-400mg/dl
What is the normal (reference) values for Prealbumin?
19-43 mg/dl
What is the normal (reference) values for Retinol-Binding protein?
2.1-6.4 mg/dl
Degree of malnutrition for Albumin? (mild, moderate, severe)
Mild: 2.8-3.4
Moderate: 2.1-2.7
Severe: < 2.1
Degree of malnutrition for Prealbumin? (mild, moderate, severe)
Mild: 10-18
Moderate: 5-9
Severe: <5
Close and complex relationship exists between nutrition and ______
immunity
Nutritional deficiencies can lead to impaired ________, infection, and ________.
-immunocompetence
-inflammation
Immune responses sensitive to impaired nutritional status but often lack ______
specificity
Varity of factors other than nutritional status can also affect _______
immunocompetence
Immune system's defense mechanisms can be divided into 2 broad categories?
-non-specific
-specific
Non-specific:
1st line of defense against infectious agents and are not influenced by prior contact with infectious agents (skin, mucous membranes, phagocytes)
Specific:
act in response to exposure to specific infectious agents and antigens- involves T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes (specific immunity more affected by malnutrion
Total number of lymphocytes reduced as protein ______ occurs
depletion
Complete blood counts routinely measured in hospitals.... Is total lymphocyte count easily determind?
yes.
Factors affecting TLC besides nutritional status inculde?
-Cancer, inflammation, infection, stress, and certain drugs
TLC Interpretation (mild, moderate, severe)
Mild: 1200-1800
Moderate: 800-1199
Severe: <800
_______ is most common single nutrient deficiency in US
Iron deficiency
Groups at risk for deficiency include:
-infants and young children
-adolescent
-females during child-bearing
-pregnant women
_______ results when consumption or absorption of dietary iron is inadequate to meet iron losses or requirement
Iron deficiency
Heme vs. Non-Heme
Heme: contains nonprotein portion of the HBG: Animal sources (liver, seafood, lean meat, poultry) absorbed well
Non Heme: Plant sources (dried beans/veggies) milk has no iron. corn poor
Nutrients that promote iron absorption:
Vit C, MFP factor (Meat, fish, poultry)
Nutrients that inhibit iron absorption:
phytates, fiber, calcium, phosphorus, tannins in tea and coffee
A deficiency in the :
-size of RBCs
-# of RBCs
-the amount of hemoglobin
Anemia
Anemia may result from:
-iron
-folate
-vit B12
Other causes of Iron deficiency:
-blood loss
-infection
-hereditary blood disorders
-chronic liver/kidney disease
Types of anemia that are characterized as RBCs:
microcytic, macrocytic, hypochromic
Microcytic
RBCs smaller than normal
Macrocytic
RBCs larger than normal
Hypochormic
RBCs paler than normal
Iron-deficiency anemia leads to decrease in _________ production.
HGB
Stages of Iron Depletion
1: depleted iron stores (no physiologic effects, represents vulnerability)
2: iron deficiency without anemia (mild physiologic effects)
3. iron-deficiency anemia
Effects or iron deficiency:
-decreased work -apathy
-fatigue -pale skin
-weakness -poor temp reg
-headaches
What test at what stage of iron deficiency?
1: serum ferritin level
2. transferrin saturation/erythrocyte protoporphyrin
3. hemoglobin/mean corpuscular volume
Proteins needed in Iron Absorption?
-transferrin (transfers iron)
-ferritin (primary storage form of iron)
-hemosiderin (iron storage form made in times of iron overload)
Mucosal transferrin to
blood transferrin
If cells do not need iron where does it go?
It is excreted in the feces
Biochemical Tests
-serum ferriitin -transferrin saturation -erythrocyte protoporpyrin
-hemoglobin -hematocrit -mean corpuscular volume
____ is primary storage form for iron in body
Ferritin
___ of all iron in body is in the storage form, most as ______
30% , ferritin
______ occurs before changes are seen in RBCs, other indicators, or before anemia occurs
Decrease
Once serum stores depleted, _______ levels no longer reflect severity of iron deficiency.
serum ferritin
Serum Ferritin levels _____ indicative of iron deficiency
< 12 ug/L
Iron transported in the blood bound to ___
transferrin
Only ___ of avaible iron-binding sites are occupied
30%
___________ measures amount of iron capable of being bound to serum proteins and provides indirect estimate of serum transferrin
Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
________ is ratio of serum iron to TIBC and is calculated like (TS=Serum Iron/TIBC x 100
Transferrin saturation
____ is percent of transferrin that is saturated with iron
Transferrin saturation
Serum iron levels decrease and TIBC increases, resulting in a decreased TS
Iron-deficiency
TS of _____ is in indicative of iron deficiency
<16%
directly proportional to the body's requirement for iron (erythrocyte-producing cells of bone marrow)
Serum Concentration of sTfR
begins to increase in early iron deficiency before anemia develops (2nd stage of depletion)
Serum sTfR
valuble for iron deficiency diagnosis/monitoring erythropoiesis, especially before anemia develops
Serum sTfR concentrations
Not affected by inflammation or infection
Serum sTfR
_____ began measuring sTfR in 2003
NHANES
key model used by NHANES to assess iron status in children 1 to 5/ women of childbearing age.
Serum sTfR concentration
_____ is precursor of heme
protoporphyrin
_______ accumulates in RBCs when amount of heme that can be produced is limited by iron deficiency
protoporphyrin
__________ > 1.24 umol/l RBC indicative of iron deficiency
erythrocyte protoporphyrin
_______ is iron-containing molecule found in RBCs that carries oxygen
hemoglobin
grams of hemoglobin per deciliter of blood is an ___ of the bloods oxygen-carrying capacity
Index
measurement of hemoglobin in whole blood is ______ __ _____ _____ ___ for iron-deficiency anemia
most widely used screening test
amount of hemoglobin in blood depends on number of _____ and ______ of hemoglobin in each RBC
RBC , amount
Hemoglobin (normal) values:
M 14-18g/dl (<14 iron-deficient) W 12-16 g/dl (< 12 iron-deficient)
Hemoglobin considerations:
african americans, pregnancy, gender
Hematocrit (Hct) also known as
packed cell volume
Percentage of RBCs making up the entire volume of whole blood
Hematocrit (Hct)
depends larely on the number of RBCs and to a lesser extent on their average size:
hematocrit
Hematocrit (normal) reference range:
M: 40-54% W: 37-47%
(<40 iron-deficient) (<37% iron-deficient)
What is MCV?
Mean Corpuscular Volume
____ is a measure of the size (volume) of the average RBC
MCV
How is MCV calculated?
dividing the hematocrit by the RBC count
Normal values for MCV
80-100
-Iron-deficiency anemia (<80fl)
RBCs smaller than average
microcytic
In folate or vit B12 deficiency, RBCs are larger than averager
macrocytic: >100fl
Amount of Hbg in RBCs
influenced by the size of RBCs
How to determine if cells are hypochromic? values
Values : 26-34 pg/dl
Include a variety of test performed on plasme or serum that are useful in diagnosis and management of disease
blood chemistry test
What do blood chemistry tests test?
electrolytes, enzymes, metabolities,
When several tests are run at once
chemistry profile, chemistry panel, chem profile
Example of blood chemistry test (cororany risk profile)
includes triglyceride, total cholesterol, HDL-C, LDL-C
Increased BUN (blood urea nitrogen) usually indicates
Renal failure
BUN (blood urea nitrogen) is usually _______ with dehydration, gastrointestinal bleeding, congestive heart failure, high protein intake, insufficient renal blood supply, blocked urinary tract
elevated
_____ BUN (blood urea nitrogen) results from liver disease, overhydration, malnutrition, or anabolic steriod use
decreased
Serum levels of LDH rise 12-24 hours following a _________
myocardial infection (MI)
Lactate Dehydrogenase is often measure to determine if a ___ has occured
MI
LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) is _______ with hepatitis, cancer, kidney disease, burns, trauma
increased
____ leading cause of death of American males/females. 13 million Americans alive today have CHD
CHD (coronary heart disease)
Coronary heart disease is also referred to as
-Coronary artery disease (CAD)
-Cardiovascular disease (CVD)
Evidence suggests that CHD begins in ________ - progresses slowly into adulthood
childhood
Leading causes of death
1. heart disease
2. cancer
3. stroke
4.diabetes
4 Modifiable risks!
1. smoking
2. hypertension
3. High blood cholesterol
4. sedentary lifestyle
Strong causual relationship between elevated _____ and _____
LDL-C and CHD
Risk of CHD increases proportionally with ______
LDL-C
____ rare in those with low LDL-C, even in the presence of other factors
CHD
____ is prime target in attempts to lower blood cholesterol levels
LDL
High ____ levels protective against CHD
HDL
high _____ levels, risk of CHD is relatively low,
HDL-C
___ HDL-C levels increased CHD risk.
low
Most clinical labs do not measure ____ directly
LDL-C
Calculations are usually based on ______, _______, _____.
total cholesterol, HDL-C, triglyceride
Formula for calculating LDL-C
LDL-C=TC-HDLC - (TG/5)
CHD risk ___ with total cholesterol.
Increases
Increase risk is greatest when level rise above
200mg/dl
For every __% decrease in TC, CHD risk decreases ____%
1, 2
Classification of TC
Desirable?
Borderline High?
High?
1. < 200
2. 200-239
3. > 240
Classification of LDL Cholesterol
Optimal?
Near or above optimal?
Borderline High?
High?
1. < 100
2. 100-129
3. 130-159
4. > 160
Classification of HDL Cholesterol
Low HDL?
Protective HDL?
1. < 40
2. > 60
Lipoprotein ratios indicate _______ risk
vascular
predictive value of CHD greater than TC, LCL, HDL alone
Lipoprotein ratios
Ratio TC/HDL primary prevention targets
men <4.5, women <4.0
At risk ratio for TC/HDL
men >5.0, women >3.0
As ___ increases with HDL-C, risk increases to
TC
At risk level LDL/HDL
men > 3.5, women >3.0
The ____ ratio is as useful as the TC/HDL ratio
LDL/HDL
___ is similar to TC/HDL because 2/3 of plasma cholesterol are found in LDL.
LDL/HDL
Studies of relationship between TG (triglyceride) levels and CHD risk have _____ results
conflicting
NCEP recognizes elevated ___ as independent risk factor for CHD
TG
Classification for TG
normal
borderline high
high
very high
Normal: <150
Borderline high: 150-199
High: 200-499
Very High: >500
CHD RISK assessment. Complete lipid profile?
TC, LDL-C, HDL-C, TG
all adults ____ should have a fasting lipoprotein profile performed at least once every 5 yrs.
>20 years
_______ is required for the accurate measurement of trigylcerides, which is required for calculation of LDL-C
fasting
_______ and ________ can be accurately measured in non-fasting state
Total Cholesterol, HDL-C
____ one of most common risk factors for CHD and Renal disease
High Blood Pressure
Blood pressure expressed in millimeters of _____ (mm Hg)
mercury
________ = "top number"
systolic blood pressure
-BP following cardiac contraction
___________= "bottom number"
Diastolic blood pressure
-BP following cardiac relaxation
BP Classifications
normal
prehypertension
stage 1 hypertension
stage 2 hypertension
Systolic BP / Diastolic BP
<120 / <80
120-139/ 80-89
140-159/ 90-99
>160 / >100
Hypertension (HTN) if often _______.
undiagnosed
____% of persons with HTN are aware of condition
<70%
_____ of people with HTN are treated
half
________ have adequate control of BP
< 30%
What are some risk factors for HTN?
alcohol, stress, tabacoo, diabetes, obesity
group of metabolic diseases characterized by hyperglycemia resulting from defects in insulin secretion, insulin action, or both
Diabetes Mellitus (DM)
_________ __________ associated with DM is associated with long-term damage, dysfunction, and failure of various organs, especially the eyes, kidneys, nerves, heart and blood vessels
Chronic Hyperglycemia
Symptoms of DM
Extreme thirst, frequent urination, dry skin, hunger, blurred vision, drowsiness, nausea
-abnormal carb/lipid metabolism
-retinopaty w/ potential loss of vision
-nephropathy leading to renal failure
-peripheral neuropathy with risk of foot ulcers and amputation
Complications of DM
3 Types of Diabetes
Type 1, Type 2, Gestational
Type 1 diabetes
-insulin dependent
-juvenile onset
Type 2 diabetes
-non insulin dependent
-adult onset
Gestational
-pregnant women
10-20% of all cases of diabetes
Type 1 DM
Insulin producing cells in pancreas destroyed >>>>>> no insuiln
type 1 DM
possible viral or auto-immune cause
type 1 DM
How is type 1 diabetes treated?
-insulin shots
-balance, timing, and amounts of food/insulin/exercise
80-90% of DM cases
type 2
Produces insulin, but not effective
-body resists/ignores it
Type 2 DM
Rate increases with age/ correlated with obesisty
Type 2 DM
How is Type 2 DM treated?
-oral medication
-weight loss may correct insulin resistance
-balance, timing, and amounts of: medication, food,exercise
Defined as any degree of glucose intolerance with one=set or first recognition during pregnancy
Gestational DM (GDM)
____ weeks post pregnancy, woman should be reclassified
>6
in majority of cases of GDM, glucose regulation will return to normal after _______
delivery
GDM complicates _____ of pregnancies
7%
risk assessment for GDM should occur at first ________ visit
prenatal
High risk characteristics for GDM:
-obesity
-personal history of GDM
-glucose in urine
-strong family history
if not found to GDM at initial testing, should be retested at _____ weeks gestation
24-28
Women of average risk should have testing at ___ weeks gestaton
24-28
Involves having patient drink a beverage containing a known amount of glucose (usually 75 grams for adults)
Oral Glucose Tolerance (OGTT)
Blood drawn immediately before the glucose load and then at set intervals. Plasma glucose measured at 1 hr intervals for 2 or 3 hrs.
Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)
Diagnosis criteria for OGTT
2 hr plasma glucose >200 mg/dl during an oral glucose tolerance test
Diagnosis Criteria for DM
symptoms plus glucose concentration >200mg/dl "casual"=no meal timing
fasting plasma glucose >126 mg/dl "fasting"=no meal w/in 8 hrs.
Diagnosis for pre-Dm
1. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT)
2. Impaired fasting glucose (IFG)
both refer to metabolic stage between normal glucose homeo/diabetes
IGT=2hr plasma glucose >140mg/dl, <200 mg/dl in an OGTT
IFG= fasting plasma glucose leves >110mg/dl, but <126 mg/dl
-109mg/dl=upper limit of normal
As many as ____ of people with DM are undiagnosed
50%
_______ recommended screening method
Fasting plasma glucose (vs. OGTT)
Criteria for testing DM
-45 yrs
-BMI >25
Testing should be done early is the pt. has a number of risk factors such as
->25
-relative with DM
-physically inactive
-member of high risk pop (black, hispanic, native american, asain)
Additional Risk factors for DM
-had a baby with over 9lbs/diagnosised with GDM
-hypertensive
-HDL-C <35, TG >250
-history of vascular disease
Best screening for DM is the _________
fasting plasma glucose test (FPG)
FPG and OGTT are both suitable, but FPG is preferred in a _____ setting.
clinic
-easier/faster
-more convenient/acceptable for pt.
-less expensive
_____ glycemic status is cornerstone for diabetes care
monitoring
Results of monitoring used to assess efficacy of therapy and to guide adjustments in _________ ________ _______
medical therapy (MNT), exercise, and medications to achieve the best possible blood glucose control
Blood glucose monitoring by patients
-self-monitoring
-critical to mainting glycemic control
-typically dont by strips
-allows people to keep track
Recommendations for monitering type 1
-SMGB 3x per day
-before meal and bedtime
Recommendations for Type 2
-diet/exercise controlled -1/2x per week
-oral hypoglycemic agents
-insuin 2x per day
Data suggest that only a moniority of pts perform
SMBG
Barriers to increasing use of SMBG
-cost
-inadequate understanding
-psychological/physical discomfort
-inconvenience
Measurement of glycated proteins, primarily __________ , provide info on average glycemia over weeks and months
hemoglobin
Also referred to as glycated hemoglobin, glybohemoglobin, HbA or the AIC test
Glycosylated Hemoglobin Testing
________ (RBCs) freely permeable to glucose
erythrocytes
______ in blood sample provides glycemic history of previous 120 days.
-reflects previous 2-3 months of glycemic control
Level of HbA1c
_____ is preferred standard for assessing glycemic control
HbA1c
Risk factors for Metabolic syndrom
-central obesity
-high blood pressure
-high TG
-Low HDL-C
-insulin resistance
-