AST Review Flashcards


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1

Which of the following structures is located in the alveolar processes?

A. Teeth

B. Villi

C. Sinuses

D. Tonsils

A. Teeth

2

Which of the following is the wound classification for a bronchoscopy?

A. Clean

B. Contaminated

C. Dirty and infected

D. Clean-contaminated

D. Clean-contaminated

3

The enzyme used to soften the zonules of the lens before cataract surgery is:

A. Atropine sulfate

B. Alpha-chymotrypsin

C. Acetylcholine chloride

D. Pilocarpine hydrochloride

B. Alpha-chymotrypsin

4

How should the stretcher be oriented when necessary to use an elevator to transport a patient to the OR?

A. Place stretcher sideways in elevator

B. Enter head first, exit feet first

C. Position in elevator is irrelevant

D. Enter feet first, exit head first

B. Enter head first, exit feet first

5

Which of the following is a curved, transverse incision across the lower abdomen frequently used in gynecological surgery?

A. Midline

B. Paramedian

C. McBurney's

D. Pfannenstiel

D. Pfannenstiel

6

When perforated metal trays are placed on the shelves of the steam sterilizing cart, they should be positioned:

A. Flat

B. Upside down

C. Vertical

D. Angled

A. Flat

7

Hyperkalemia is a high concentration of:

A. Calcium

B. Nitrogen

C. Potassium

D. Albumin

C. Potassium

8

Which of the following tissues are cut using curved Mayo scissors?

A. Fascia

B. Periosteum

C. Dura mater

D. Arterial wall

A. Fascia

9

Which laser beam can travel through clear tissues without heating them?

A. Argon

B. Excimer

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Neodymium: YAG

A. Argon

10

Permission for treatment given with full knowledge of the risks is a/an:

A. Tort

B. Malpractice

C. Personal liability

D. Informed consent

D. Informed consent

11

Which portion of the stomach surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter?

A. Cardia

B. Fundus

C. Pylorus

D. Antrum

A. Cardia

12

Low level disinfectants kill most microbes, but do not destroy:

A. Viruses

B. Bacteria

C. Fungi

D. Spores

D. Spores

13

Syndactyly refers to:

A. Cleft palate

B. Webbed fingers

C. Fused tarsals

D. Torn ligaments

B. Webbed fingers

14

The surgical pack utilized to create the sterile field should be opened on the:

A. Stretcher

B. OR table

C. Backtable

D. Mayo stand

C. Backtable

15

The islets of Langerhans secrete:

A. Bile

B. Insulin

C. Intrinsic factor

D. Inhibiting hormones

B. Insulin

16

What type of procedure would involve the removal of teeth?

A. Cleft palate repair

B. Arch bar application

C. Extractions

D. Implants

C. Extractions

17

Which organism is a normal resident flora of the intestinal tract?

A. Escherichia coli

B. Staphylococcus aureus

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Clostridium tetani

A. Escherichia coli

18

Where should the first scrub surgical technologist stand when handing towels to the surgeon to square off an incision site?

A. Opposite side from the surgeon

B. Same side as surgeon

C. Foot of OR table

D. Head of OR table

B. Same side as surgeon

19

A properly performed surgical scrub renders the skin:

A. Sterile

B. Disinfected

C. Surgically clean

D. Moistened and dehydrated

C. Surgically clean

20

Through which of the following do the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty?

A. Ampulla of Vater

B. Duct of Santorini

C. Wirsung's duct

D. Sphincter of Oddi

A. Ampulla of Vater

21

Which of the following identifiers must be verified by the patient or their ID bracelet prior to transporting a patient to the OR?

A. Name, social security #, physician

B. Name, medical record #, allergies

C. Name, date of birth, diagnosis

D. Name, date of birth, physician

D. Name, date of birth, physician

22

What are spiral-shaped bacteria called?

A. Cocci

B. Bacilli

C. Spirilli

D. Diplococci

C. Spirilli

23

The primary function of the gallbladder is to:

A. Store bile

B. Produce bile

C. Emulsify fats

D. Metabolize fats

A. Store bile

24

Which of the following is a non-sterile member of the surgical team?

A. Surgeon

B. Circulator

C. Surgical assistant

D. Surgical technologist

B. Circulator

25

Which of the following is not a benefit of using surface-mounted sliding doors for access to the operating room?

A. Uses less space for opening

B. Aid in controlling temperature

C. Eliminate air turbulence

D. Provides for thorough cleaning

B. Aid in controlling temperature

26

What are the three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure?

A. Type of procedure, equipment, radiation dose

B. Exposure, frequency, concentration

C. Time, shielding, distance

D. Site, age, gender

C. Time, shielding, distance

27

Which is the first part of the small intestine?

A. Duodenum

B. Jejunum

C. Ileum

D. Cecum

A. Duodenum

28

What is the surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery?

A. Prone

B. Lateral

C. Supine

D. Lithotomy

B. Lateral

29

How are rickettsiae transmitted?

A. Arthropod bites

B. Physical contact

C. Blood exposure

D. Airborne organisms

A. Arthropod bites

30

Which of the following is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope?

A. Colposcopy

B. Laparoscopy

C. Urethroscopy

D. Hysteroscopy

D. Hysteroscopy

31

Compression of the heart from excessive fluid or blood buildup is called?

A. Tamponade

B. Pericarditis

C. Infarction

D. Cardiomyopathy

A. Tamponade

32

Which surgical team member determines when the patient can be transported from the OR to the PACU?

A. Anesthesia provider

B. Circulator

C. Surgeon

D. Surgical technologist

A. Anesthesia provider

33

Which suffix means surgical puncture to remove fluid?

A. -dynia

B. -tomy

C. -lysis

D. -centesis

D. -centesis

34

To which portion of the colon is the appendix attached?

A. Ascending

B. Descending

C. Cecum

D. Sigmoid

C. Cecum

35

Which laboratory test determines bacterial identification?

A. Gram stain

B. Manual count

C. Prothrombin time

D. Gel electrophoresis

A. Gram stain

36

Medication used to dilate the pupil is called?

A. Miotics

B. Myopics

C. Mydriatics

D. Muscarinics

C. Mydriatics

37

Which of the following drapes is non-fenestrated?

A. Laparotomy

B. U-drape

C. Transverse

D. Craniotomy

B. U-drape

38

Under what circumstances would it be appropriate to remove a patient's identification bracelet?

A. During insertion of an IV catheter

B. Never until patient is discharged from facility

C. Postoperatively when taken to the nursing unit

D. When patient is awake and alert and can verbally identify self

B. Never until patient is discharged from facility

39

What is the position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement?

A. Prone

B. Sims

C. Supine

D. Kraske

C. Supine

40

Which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Nd: YAG

C. Excimer

D. Argon

D. Argon

41

Which of the following monitors provides positive assurance of sterility?

A. Clerical

B. Mechanical

C. Biological

D. Chemical

C. Biological

42

The apron-like structure attached to the greater curvature of the stomach is the:

A. Omentum

B. Mesentery

C. Ligamentum

D. Peritoneum

A. Omentum

43

Which microbes live without oxygen?

A. Aerobes

B. Anaerobes

C. Capnophiles

D. Microaerophiles

B. Anaerobes

44

Which of the following is an abnormal tract between two epithelium-lined surfaces that is open at both ends?

A. Epithelialization

B. Fistula

C. Herniation

D. Sinus

B. Fistula

45

What is the action of antagonist drugs?

A. Inhibit the clotting process

B. Achieve neuroleptanesthesia

C. Increase the effects of opiates

D. Counteract the action of another drug

D. Counteract the action of another drug

46

Which of the following directional terms describes the type of skin prep of an entire extremity?

A. Spiral

B. Horizontal

C. Longitudinal

D. Circumferential

D. Circumferential

47

What organs are excised if an ovarian tumor is malignant?

A. Bilateral ovaries only

B. Bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus

C. Unilateral involved ovary and fallopian tube

D. Unilateral involved ovary and fallopian tube, uterus

B. Bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus

48

Which term refers to an abnormal thoracic curve of the spine referred to as "hunchback"?

A. Lordosis

B. Scoliosis

C.Kyphosis

D. Alkalosis

C. Kyphosis

49

What is the medical term for a bunion?

A. Talipes valgus

B. Hallux valgus

C. Hallux varus

D. Talipes varus

B. Hallux valgus

50

What incision is also known as lower oblique?

A. Inguinal

B. Paramedian

C. Infraumbilical

D. Thoracoabdominal

A. Inguinal

51

The small intestine attaches to the posterior abdominal wall by the:

A. Mesentery

B. Peritoneum

C. Falciform ligament

D. Lesser omentum

A. Mesentery

52

What is the term for a relationship in which two organisms occupy the same area and one organism benefits while the other is unharmed?

A. Commensalism

B. Neutralism

C. Mutualism

D. Parasitism

A. Commensalism

53

A topical steroid used to reduce inflammation after eye surgery is:

A. Depo-Medrol

B. Miochol

C. Healon

D. Wydase

A. Depo-Medrol

54

How is the surgical informed consent signed if an adult patient is illiterate?

A. Authorized individual signs patient's name

B. Patient marks with an "X" and witness verifies

C. RN and surgeon sign that patient gave consent

D. Surgeon and Risk Manager sign consent

B. Patient marks with an "X" and witness verifies

55

What direction should the stretcher be oriented when transporting a patient to the OR department?

A. Feet first, side rails up

B. Feet first, side rails down

C. Head first, side rails up

D. Head first, side rails down

A. Feet first, side rails up

56

Which of the following routine preoperative laboratory studies would be ordered for premenopausal women with no history of hysterectomy?

A. HCG

B. HBV

C. HIV

D. HDL

A. HCG

57

Which portion of the surgical gown is considered non-sterile?

A. Outside closure ties

B. Two inches below neckline to table level

C. Upper arms, neckline and axillary region

D. Sleeves, two inches above the elbows to the cuffs

C. Upper arms, neckline and axillary region

58

What is the name of the urinary catheter with a small, curved tapered tip used on patients with urethral strictures?

A. Iglesias

B. Coude

C. Pigtail

D. Bonanno

B. Coude

59

What is the surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery?

A. Supine

B. Fowler's

C. Reverse Trendelenburg

D. Lateral Kidney

C. Reverse Trendelenburg

60

A congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close is:

A. Coarctation of the aorta

B. Patent ductus arteriosus

C. Tetraolgy of Fallot

D. Ventricular septal defect

B. Patent ductus arteriosus

61

Which of the following is commonly used preservative for tissue specimens?

A. Saline

B. Formalin

C. Ethyl alcohol

D. Lugol's solution

B. Formalin

62

What is the first step taken for an initial incorrect closing sponge count?

A. Notify surgeon and repeat count

B. X-ray patient

C. Check body cavity

D. Complete incident report

A. Notify surgeon and repeat count

63

The mumps may be diagnosed by finding inflammation in which of the following glands?

A. Sublingual

B. Thyroid

C. Parotid

D. Submandibular

C. Parotid

64

What institutional document is completed when an adverse or unusual event takes place in the OR that may have legal consequences for the staff or patient?

A. Incident report

B. Operative record

C. Deposition report

D. Advance directive

A. Incident report

65

For which procedure would Trendelenburg position provide optimal visualization?

A. Cholecystectomy

B. Hysterectomy

C. Thyroidectomy

D. Acromioplasty

B. Hysterectomy

66

Which of the following is a nonadherent dressing?

A. Kling

B. Adaptic

C. Collodian

D. Elastoplast

B. Adaptic

67

Which of the following is a fenestrated drape?

A. Incise

B. U-drape

C. Aperture

D. Half-sheet

C. Aperture

68

Which of the following terms describes a hernia that occurs within Hesselbach's triangle?

A. Direct

B. Indirect

C. Femoral

D. Hiatal

A. Direct

69

Which of the following incisions is oblique?

A. Epigastric

B. Kocher

C. Paramedian

D. Pfannenstiel

B. Kocher

70

Which of following dilators are used in the common duct?

A. Pratt

B. Van Buren

C. Bakes

D. Hegar

C. Bakes

71

Which of the following is a mechanical method of hemostasis?

A. Laser

B. Ligature

C. Thrombin

D. Electrosurgery

B. Ligature

72

The organ that is connected by a duct to the duodenum is the:

A. Pancreas

B. Gallbladder

C. Stomach

D. Liver

A. Pancreas

73

A brain tumor causing alteration of muscle tone, voluntary muscle coordination, gait and balance would likely be located in the:

A. Diencephalon

B. Cerebellum

C. Medulla

D. Pons

B. Cerebellum

74

What is the term for a relationship that benefits one organism at the expense of another?

A. Commensalism

B. Neutralism

C. Mutualism

D. Parasitism

D. Parasitism

75

What type of disease is characterized by rapid onset and a rapid recovery?

A. Acute

B. Chronic

C. Primary

D. Asymptomatic

A. Acute

76

Which organelle is responsible for the production of energy?

A. Lysosomes

B. Mitochondria

C. Golgi complex

D. Endoplasmic reticulum

B. Mitochondria

77

What type of anesthesia is a combination of inhalation and intravenous drugs?

A. Spinal

B. Sedation

C. Regional

D. Balanced

D. Balanced

78

Who is ultimately responsible for obtaining the surgical informed consent?

A. Guardian

B. Patient

C. Surgeon

D. Nurse

C. Surgeon

79

What position is most commonly used for neurosurgical procedures?

A. Supine

B. Semi-Fowler's

C. Trendelenburg

D. Lithotomy

A. Supine

80

The outer layer of the intestine is the:

A. Mucosa

B. Serosa

C. Muscularis

D. Submucosa

B. Serosa

81

Which of the following solutions should be used to prep the donor site for a split-thickness skin graft?

A. Iodophor

B. Avagard

C. Chlorhexidine

D. Merthiolate

C. Chlorhexidine

82

What type of drape would be used for a flank procedure?

A. Transverse

B. Extremity

C. Aperture

D. Perineal

A. Transverse

83

Where should the safety strap be placed on a patient who is in the supine position?

A. Below the knee

B. Across the waist

C. Over the thighs

D. Across the abdomen

C. Over the thighs

84

Which surgical procedure is performed to correct an abnormality in which the urethral meatus is situated on the superior aspect of the penis?

A. Hypospadias repair

B. Epispadias repair

C. Meatotomy

D. Ureteroneocystostomy

B. Epispadias repair

85

Which thermal method of hemostasis utilizes intense, focused light?

A. Laser

B. Bipolar

C. Harmonic

D. Monopolar

A. Laser

86

What is the most common of intracerebral hemorrhage?

A. Hypotension

B. Hypertension

C. Meningioma

D. Meningitis

B. Hypertension

87

The larynx is located between the:

A. Pharynx and trachea

B. Nasal cavity and pharynx

C. Trachea and bronchi

D. Nasal and oral cavities

A. Pharynx and trachea

88

The most common cause of retinal detachment is:

A. Aging

B. Trauma

C. Glaucoma

D. Inflammation

B. Trauma

89

What postoperative complication is associated with total hip arthroplasty?

A. Compartment syndrome

B. Upper extremity weakness

C. Urinary incontinence

D. Pulmonary embolism

D. Pulmonary embolism

90

Which of the following is a type of passive drain?

A. Penrose

B. Hemovac

C. Pleur-evac

D. Jackson-Pratt

A. Penrose

91

The vocal cords are located in the:

A. Pharynx

B. Larynx

C. Trachea

D. Bronchus

B. Larynx

92

What type of acquired immunity is a vaccination?

A. Artificial passive

B. Artificial active

C. Natural passive

D. Natural active

B. Artificial active

93

When would the anesthesia provider request cricoid pressure?

A. Bier block

B. Epidural injection

C. Endotracheal intubation

D. Endotracheal extubation

C. Endotracheal intubation

94

Which instrument would be used during a keratoplasty to remove the cornea?

A. Trephine

B. Westcott

C. Oculotome

D. Phacoemulsifier

A. Trephine

95

What is the required minimum number of individuals to transfer an incapacitated patient from the OR table to the stretcher?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

B. 4

96

Which of the following regulations states that blood and body fluids should be considered infectious?

A. Body Substance Isolation Rules

B. Medical Device Safety Act

C. Postexposure Prophylaxis

D. Standard Precautions

D. Standard Precautions

97

Which of the following is a major source of distress for toddler and preschool age patients being transported to the operating room?

A. Room temperature change

B. Lack of communication

C. Fear of anesthesia

D. Separation anxiety

D. Separation anxiety

98

Which structure has oral, nasal, and laryngeal divisions?

A. Esophagus

B. Trachea

C. Pharynx

D. Glottis

C. Pharynx

99

Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of which structure?

A. Mouth

B. Nose

C. Ear

D. Eye

C. Ear

100

An injury a patient sustains as a result of the care given by a healthcare professional is called:

A. Iatrogenic

B. Liability

C. Battery

D. Tort

A. Iatrogenic

101

The highly vascular layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and nourishes the retina is the:

A. Sclera

B. Iris

C. Choroid

D. Macula

C. Choroid

102

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following is the patient satisfying when he/she trusts the surgical team's abilities?

A. Physiological

B. Belonging

C. Esteem

D. Safety

D. Safety

103

Which aneurysm usually develops between the renal and iliac arteries?

A. Ascending thoracic

B. Aortic arch

C. Descending thoracic

D. Abdominal aortic

D. Descending aortic

104

The agent used to flush an artery to prevent clotting is:

A. Heparin

B. Thrombin

C. Protamine sulfate

D. Ringer's lactate

A. Heparin

105

What is the next step for reattachment of a severed digit after debridement?

A. Vessel reanastomosis

B. Nerve reanastomosis

C. Bone-to-bone fixation

D. Tendon-to-tendon fixation

C. Bone-to-bone fixation

106

What type of skin graft includes the epidermis and all of the dermis?

A. Composite

B. Split-thickness

C. Pedicle

D. Full-thickness

D. Full thickness

107

Which muscle type is striated and voluntary?

A. Visceral

B. Heart

C. Skeletal

D. Cardiac

C. Skeletal

108

Which of the following terms refers to absence of the external ear?

A. Microtia

B. Anophthalmia

C. Cheiloschisis

D. Ectrosyndactyly

A. Microtia

109

What is the recommended maximum time limit for a tourniquet to remain inflated on an adult lower extremity?

A. 30 minutes

B. 60 minutes

C. 1 1/2 hours

D. 2 1/2 hours

C. 1 1/2 hours

110

Which organism causes gas gangrene?

A. Clostridium perfringens

B. Clostridium Botulinum

C. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

A. Clostridium perfringens

111

Chest rolls should span the distance bilaterally between which two anatomical structures?

A. Nipple to umbilicus

B. lliac crest to lliac crest

C. Scapula to gluteus maximus

D. Acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest

D. Acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest

112

Which ossicle of the middle ear covers the oval window?

A. Malleus

B. Incus

C. Stapes

D. Utricle

C. Stapes

113

What is another name for the kraske position?

A. Dorsal recumbent

B. Jackknife

C. Trendelenburg

D. Beach chair

B. Jackknife

114

What type of sponge is tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection?

A. Raytec

B. Kittner

C. Weck-Cel

D. Cottonoid

B. Kittner

115

Which of these instruments would be used during a keratoplasty?

A. Kilner hook

B. Bowman probe

C. Kerrison rongeur

D. Cottingham punch

D. Cottingham punch

116

A partially dislocated joint is called:

A. Subluxation

B. Malrotation

C. Avulsion

D. Malunion

A. Subluxation

117

What condition is characterized by build-up of fatty deposits such as cholesterol?

A. Embolism

B. Thrombosis

C. Arteriospasm

D. Arteriosclerosis

D. Arteriosclerosis

118

Plaster rolls for casting should be submerged in which of the following?

A. Lukewarm saline

B. Lukewarm water

C. Cold saline

D. Cold water

B. Lukewarm water

119

The avascular, clear portion of the eye covering the iris is the:

A. Cornea

B. Sclera

C. Pupil

D. Conjunctiva

D. Conjunctiva

120

How often should surgical masks be changed?

A. After lunch

B. Twice a day

C. After each case

D. Every two hours

C. After each case

121

Which term describes a rod-shaped microorganism?

A. Coccus

B. Bacillus

C. Spirillum

D. Helical

B. Bacillus

122

When using the warm cycle of the EtO sterilizer, what is the minimum sterilization temperature in Fahrenheit?

A. 55

B. 65

C. 75

D. 85

D. 85

123

Which of the following actions would be a violation of aseptic technique?

A. Cuffing the hands within the drape

B. Sterile person reaching over sterile surface

C. Repositioning penetrating towel clip

D. Sterile surgical members passing face-to-face

C. Repositioning penetrating towel clip

124

Which legal principle applies when the patient is given the wrong dose of the local anesthetic?

A. Res ipsa loquitor

B. Respondeat superior

C. Bona fide

D. Assault

A. Res ipsa loquitor

125

The space between the vocal cords is called the:

A. Epiglottis

B. Glottis

C. Vocal

D. Cricoid cartilage

B. Glottis

126

Which bacteria could be found in a penetrating wound caused by a rusty nail?

A. Treponema pallidum

B. Bacillus Anthracis

C. Clostridium tetani

D. Helicobacter pylori

C. Clostridium tetani

127

Which of the following retractors is used for spinal nerve roots?

A. Tayor

B. Love

C. Cushing

D. Meyerding

B. Love

128

What is another name for the electrosurgical unit's patient return electrode?

A. Cautery

B. Generator

C. Foot pedal

D. Grounding pad

D. Grounding pad

129

What size of Foley catheter is commonly used for adults?

A. 8 Fr

B. 12 Fr

C. 16 Fr

D. 24 Fr

C. 16 Fr

130

Which of the following tumors is typically benign, encapsulated, and arises from tissue covering the central nervous system structures?

A. Meningioma

B. Astrocytoma

C. Schwannoma

D. Oligodendroglioma

A. Meningioma

131

The fibrous white layer that gives the eye its shape is the:

A. Iris

B. Cornea

C. Sclera

D. Choroid

C. Sclera

132

What is the term for thread-like appendages that provide bacteria with motion?

A. Flagella

B. Fimbriae

C. Mesosomes

D. Mitochondria

A. Flagella

133

What surgical position provides optimal visualization of the lower abdomen or pelvis?

A. Fowler's

B. Reverse trendelenburg

C. Trendelenburg

D. Kraske

C. Trendelenburg

134

How many hours must an item submerse in glutaraldehyde to sterilize?

A. 7

B. 8

C. 9

D. 10

D. 10

135

When a patient's blood pressure is 135/81, 135 refers to:

A. Diastolic

B. Systolic

C. Pedal pulse

D. Apical pressure

B. Systolic

136

A term referring to a waxy secretion in the external ear canal is:

A. Mucous

B. Sputum

C. Cerumen

D. Perilymph

C. Cerumen

137

Which of the following is an ossicle of the middle ear?

A. Pinna

B. Incus

C. Labyrinth

D. Vestibule

B. Incus

138

What is the term for the process of removing blood from an extremity prior to inflating the pneumatic tourniquet?

A. Exsanguination

B. Extravasation

C. Evisceration

D. Evacuation

A. Exsanguination

139

Which of the following may require probing and dilating in pediatric patients with upper respiratory infections?

A. Sinus cavities

B. Eustachian tube

C. Nasolacrimal duct

D. Tympanic membrane

C. Nasolacrimal duct

140

Which surgical team member is responsible for setting up the sterile field?

A. Surgical assistant

B. Surgical technologist

C. Circulating nurse

D. Surgeon

B. Surgical technologist

141

In what circumstances would cell-saver transfusion be contraindicated?

A. Anemic patients

B. Diabetic patients

C. Cancer procedures

D. Orthopedic procedures

C. Cancer procedures

142

Use of an intraluminal (circular) stapler (EEA) would be indicated for which of the following surgical procedures?

A. Pancreatectomy

B. Cholecystectomy

C. Polypectomy

D. Sigmoidectomy

D. Sigmoidectomy

143

Satinsky, Herrick, and Mayo clamps may be specifically used on which of the following structures?

A. Kidney pedicle

B. Seminal vesicle

C. Bladder neck

D. Prostate gland

A. Kidney pedicle

144

The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the:

A. Ethmoid

B. Septum

C. Vomer

D. Sphenoid

B. Septum

145

Which of the following is used by the surgeon to intermittently remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP?

A. Randall forceps

B. Wire snare

C. Ellik evacuator

D. Poole suction

C. Ellik evacuator

146

Which type of hematoma is a result of torn bridging meningeal veins?

A. Subdural

B. Epidural

C. Intracerebral

D. Intraventricular

A. Subdural

147

In addition to temperature, time and moisture, what is the fourth factor that determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process?

A. Concentration

B. Aeration

C. Weight

D. Pressure

D. Pressure

148

The Bowie-Dick test is performed:

A. Hourly

B. Daily

C. Weekly

D. Montly

B. Daily

149

The spiral, conical structure of the inner ear is the:

A. Cochlea

B. Stapes

C. Vestibule

D. Labyrinth

A. Cochlea

150

What is the name of the condition in which a loop of bowel herniates into the Douglas's cul-de-sac?

A. Cystocele

B. Rectocele

C. Enterocele

D. Omphalocele

C. Enterocele

151

Which of these conditions is characterized by a fleshy encroachment of conjunctiva onto the cornea?

A. Chalazion

B. Pterygium

C. Strabismus

D. Ecchymosis

B. Pterygium

152

Which procedure would be listed in the OR schedule for a patient undergoing surgical treatment of uterine fibroids?

A. Pelvic exenteration

B. Cervical cerclage

C. Colporrhapy

D. Myomectomy

D. Myomectomy

153

Where is a Baker's cyst located?

A. Olecranon process

B. Greater tubercle

C. Popliteal fossa

D. Carpal tunnel

C. Popliteal fossa

154

Which of the following is a method of high-level disinfection?

A. Peracetic acid for 30 minutes

B. 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes

C. Steam under pressure for 10 minutes

D. Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma for 75 minutes

B. 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes

155

Another name for the tympanic membrane is the:

A. Ear tube

B. Ear canal

C. Earlobe

D. Eardrum

D. Eardrum

156

What is the burn degree classification that involves the epidermis and subcutaneous tissue?

A. First

B. Second

C. Third

D. Fourth

C. Third

157

Which portion of the ear is affected by Meniere's syndrome?

A. Inner

B. Middle

C. Eustachian tube

D. Auditory ossicles

A. Inner

158

The cartilaginous nasal septum is anterior to which bone?

A. Hyoid

B. Vomer

C. Mandible

D. Palatine

B. Vomer

159

The most reliable method of determining the efficiency of moist heat sterilizers is the controlled use of biological indicators containing the organism:

A. Bacillus stearothermophilus

B. Clostridium tetani

C. Bordetella pertussis

D. Corynebacterium diptheria

A. Bacillus stearothermophilus

160

Which neurosurgical pathology would a myelogram diagnose?

A. Subdural heamtoma

B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob

C. Spinal stenosis

D. Myelomeningocele

C. Spinal stenosis

161

Which of the following terms means a prolapsed bladder causing a bulge in the anterior vaginal wall?

A. Rectocele

B. Cystocele

C. Enterocele

D. Herniation

B. Cystocele

162

How many hours must the steam sterilization biological indicator incubate?

A. 6

B. 12

C. 18

D. 24

D. 24

163

The nasal sinus located between the nose and the orbits is the:

A. Frontal

B. Sphenoid

C. Ethmoid

D. Maxillary

C. Ethmoid

164

What is the definition of otosclerosis?

A. Earache

B. Tinnitus

C. Tearing of tympanic membrane

D. Bony overgrowth of stapes

D. Bony overgrowth of stapes

165

Which of the following terms describes a fracture in which the bone penetrates the skin?

A. Comminuted

B. Compound

C. Simple

D. Closed

B. Compound

166

For which of the following procedures would a McBurney incision be indicated?

A. Appendectomy

B. Cholecystectomy

C. Herniorrhaphy

D. Gastrectomy

A. Appendectomy

167

What degrees Celsius is the steam sterilization biological indicator incubated?

A. 43-48

B. 49-54

C. 55-60

D. 61-66

C. 55-60

168

What is the medical term for removal of the uterus?

A. Salpingectomy

B. Oophorectomy

C. Myomectomy

D. Hysterectomy

D. Hysterectomy

169

Which of the following methods removes small organic particles and soil from the box locks and ratchets of instruments?

A. Ultrasonic washer

B. Manual cleaning

C. Washer sterilizer

D. Enzymatic soak

A. Ultrasonic washer

170

What is the medical term for nosebleed?

A. Rhinitis

B. Sinusitis

C. Epistaxis

D. Hemoptysis

C. Epistaxis

171

What is the proper method for preparing a Frazier suction tip for steam sterilization?

A. Lumen is dry

B. Distilled water in lumen

C. Stylet is left inside lumen

D. Disinfectant solution in lumen

B. Distilled water in lumen

172

Which of the following is a telescoping of the intestines in neonates requiring immediate surgical intervention?

A. Intussusception

B. Pyloric stenosis

C. Tetralogy of Fallot

D. Omphalocele

A. Intussusception

173

The minimum Fahrenheit temperature for sterilization to occur in a prevacuum steam sterilizer is:

A. 249-255

B. 256-262

C. 263-269

D. 270-276

D. 270-276

174

What is the name of the procedure for the excision of the tunica vaginalis?

A. Spermatocelectomy

B. Orchiectomy

C. Hydrocelectomy

D. Vasectomy

C. Hydrocelectomy

175

What is the minimum number of minutes to sterilize unwrapped metal instruments with lumens in the gravity displacement sterilizer at 270 F?

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20

B. 10