A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK® Guide)–Sixth Edition: PMBOK MC Questions Flashcards

You are brought into a planning meeting with senior management at your company where you are being informed that you have been selected to be the Project Manager for a project that will help the company create a new product line, The new product line will set the tone of where the company sees itself at the time of the product line introduction. This project is the result of what type of planning

(A) Strategic planning
(B) Product life cycle
(C) Program planning
(D) Portfolio planning

What is a management structure that standardises the project-related governance
processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools and techniques called?

(A) Project Management Office
(B) Functional organizational structure
(C) Projectized organizational structure
(D) Standardized management structure

The Functional Manager is planning the billing system replacement project with the newest Project Manager at the company. In discussing this project, the Functional Manager focuses on the cost associated with running the system after it is created and the number of years the system will last before it must be replaced. What best describes what the Functional Manager is focusing on?

(A) Program life cycle
(B) Product life cycle
(C) Project life cycle
(D) Portfolio life cycle

Which of the following is an advantage for a project team member in a functional organizational structure?

(A) Not retaining a position within the organization once a project is completed.
(B) Having more than one boss.
(C) Retaining a position within the organization once a project is completed.
(D) Having more than one project to work on.

The introduction of Agile in project management mostly impacted the application of the
results from the activity described in..

(A) Project team members often assemble to review the impact of the application of knowledge. They undertake this discussion for the sake of future phases or projects so that they can repeat good practices and eliminate bad practices. This activity is known as what?
(B) Actions and activities that are necessary to satisfy completion or exit criteria for the project,
and to confirm that the project has met all sponsor, customer, and other stakeholder's
requirements are addressed...
(C) The project is nearing completion. The team is involved in a lot of different activities to close
the project. They are grouping together project documents, operational and support
documents, project and phase closure documents, and lessons learned repository. What are they creating?
(D) You are the Project Manager for the design and development of a significant mechanical
component of a highway construction project. You have just finished putting together all the
various plans into a complete document. What step will you perform next?

Which of the following is the most important component of the triple constraint:

A) The three components are of equal importance unless stated otherwise

(B) Quality then time then cost
(C) Time then scope then cost
(D) Scope

What is the main activity of the Monitoring and Controlling process group?

(A) Verifying project deliverables
(B) Controlling stakeholders
(C) Carrying out corrective or preventative actions

(D) Developing a project charter

What is the main role of the Functional Manager?

(A) To manage resources
(B) To define business processes
(C) To manage the Project Managers

(D) To manage the project when the Project Manager is not available

A new project has just completed the initiation process. Planning is getting ready to begin. Which of the following have just been accomplished, and which are getting ready to start?

(A) The project management plan and project execution

(B) The project execution and monitoring and controlling

(C) The project charter and project execution
(D) The project charter and project planning

What is the main output of the closing process group? [Hint: Use Table 1-4 to identify the corresponding process(es) and then consult the flow diagram(s) of the identified process(es).]

(A) Final product, service, or result transition, and documentation updates.
(B) Verification that the project deliverables perform according to specifications

(C) Customer specifications signoff on project deliverables.

(D) Verification that the product life cycle is completed.

The most important skill needed by a Project Manager?

(A) The knowledge of, and expertise in, the industry and organization that enhance
performance and better delivers business outcomes.
(B) The knowledge, skills and behaviors related to specific domains of the project.

(C) The knowledge, skills and behaviors related to guide, motivate and direct a team.
(D) Anyone of the (a), (b) or (c), depending on the nature of the project.

Within the context of the project management lexicon established by the PMI, the person(s) who may affect or be affected by a project outcome is referred to as a...

(A) project stakeholder
(B) project customer
(C) product stockholder
(D) product life cycle manager

Which process group(s) has the highest number of processes associated with it?

(A) Executing
(B) Initiating and Closing
(C) Planning
(D) Monitoring and Controlling

The Project Life Cycle...

(A) framework assists in managing the project and applies regardless of the specific project work involved.
(B) can be divided into four generic phases.
(C) phases may be sequential, iterative or overlapping.
(D) All of the above.

Given the exercise outlined in "A project manager is working with the project sponsor on a design upgrade contract. The project sponsor needs a modification to the baselined project deliverable specification due to some new functionality requirement. This modification also requires that a baselined statement of work (SOW) of a contract with supplier needs to be modified. Who/what can modify the contract?", in what process is the project manager involved?

(A) Plan Procurement Management
(B) Conduct Procurements
(C) Control Procurements
(D) None of the above.

A business analyst has a career path that has been very important to her throughout the
10 years of her career. She is put on a high-priority project with a projectized organizational structure. Which of the following is likely viewed as a negative of being on the project?

(A) Running the risk of being laid off after the project is completed
(B) Working with people who have similar skills
(C) Working on a project that is of high priority
(D) None of the above

Which knowledge area(s) has at least one process in each process group?

(A) Project Resource Management
(B) Project Integration Management
(C) Project Scope Management
(D) All of the above

Who is responsible for executing the result of the Planning process group?

(A) The functional manager
(B) The project sponsor
(C) The project customer
(D) The Project Manager and the project team

Which of the following is an advantage of a projectized organization?

(A) Having to get approval from a functional manager.
(B) Enjoying an opportunity of progressive promotion through a well-defined career path.

(C) Optimizing a single focus on the project.
(D) Getting an opportunity to contribute towards a business unit's competency.

Project management processes are...

(A) performed continuously throughout the project.
(B) used once or at predefined points in the project.
(C) performed periodically as needed.
(D) All of the above

Project team members often assemble to review the impact of the application of knowledge.
They undertake this discussion for the sake of future phases or projects so that they can repeat good practices and eliminate bad practices. This activity is known as what?

(A) Lessons Learned
(B) Project Closure
(C) Project Audit
(D) Contract Closure

Different from PMBOK Ed.5, in Ed. 6 the activity described in Question 1 occurs..

(A) at the end of the project.

(B) when requested by the sponsor.
(C) at the end of every sprint.
(D) immediately before executing the Contract Closure process.

A Change Control Board (CCB) is..

(A) a formally constituted group of stakeholders with the responsibility to review, evaluate, approve, delay or reject changes to the project, with all decisions and recommendations being recorded.
(B) the project manager and several key team members working to ensure cost and
schedule control during the life of the project.
(C) a formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for ensuring that only a
minimal amount of changes occur on the project.
(D) an informal group that has oversight of project implementation.

When creating a project management plan, which of the following is recommended to be
involved?

(A) Sponsor
(B) Project Manager
(C) Team
(D) Project Manager and team

Actions and activities that are necessary to satisfy completion or exit criteria for the project, and to confirm that the project has met all sponsor, customer, and other stakeholder's requirements are addressed...

(A) as requested by upper management.
(B) as the last step of project management.
(C) as part of the Close Project process.
(D) following the plan as outlined in the Quality Management process.

The project is nearing completion. The team is involved in a lot of different activities to close
the project. They are grouping together project documents, operational and support documents, project and phase closure documents, and lessons learned repository. What are they creating?

(A) Project closure
(B) Archives
{C) Organization process asset updates
(D) Final report

The project sponsor has requested a change that will have no effect on the project deliverable, but will result in a change to the project management plan baseline. The change is controlled through..

(A) Work breakdown structure (WBS)
(B) An process requiring the approval of all technical experts on the project.
(C) A configuration management system
(D) An integrated change control process

The project is nearing completion. The team is involved in a lot of different activities to close
the project. They are grouping together various documents that include the scope objectives, quality objectives and cost objectives. What are they creating?

(A) Project closure
(B) Archives
(C) Organization process asset updates
(D) Final report

Which is not a characteristics of the project charter?

(A) It is issued by a project sponsor at a level that is appropriate to the funding of the
project.

(B) It is used primarily to request bids for different phases of a project
(C) It provides the Project Manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
(D) It is the document that formally authorises the project

Which of the following is not an input to Process 4.6 Perform Integrated Change Control?

(A) Change requests
(B) Enterprise environmental factors
(C) Organizational process assets
(D) Approved changes

..does not address one of the triple constrains of a project.

(A) Scope management plan
(B) Schedule management plan
(C) Risk management plan
(D) Cost management plan

You are the Project Manager for the design and development of a significant mechanical
component of a highway construction project. You have just finished putting together all the
various plans into a complete document. What step will you perform next?

(A) Direct and manage project work
(B) Project charter signoff
(C) Develop project management plan
(D) Integrated change control

The configuration management system is a collection of procedures used to...

(A) track, and monitor and control, changes to documents that describe project objectives
and deliverables.

(B) test new project procedures.
(C) estimate and control risk.
(D) identify and correct problems arising in functional areas of project implementation.

Your company project review committee asked you to present your project's purpose, high- 14 level requirements, and key deliverables. You need to consult which one of the following
documents?

(A) Assumption log
(B) Project charter
(C) Project scope
(D) Project description

The team has completed project planning and received approval from the sponsor and senior
management to move to execution. To which of the following will they compare their future
project work?

(A) The order of magnitude estimate
B) The variance
(C) The actuals
(D) The baseline

Your company project review committee asked you to present your activity and task assumptions associated with technical specifications, estimates, the schedule, and risks.
You need to consult which one of the following documents?
(A) Assumption log
(B) Project charter
(C) Project scope
(D) Project description

The introduction of Agile in project management mostly impacted the application of the
results from the activity described in..

(A) Project team members often assemble to review the impact of the application of knowledge. They undertake this discussion for the sake of future phases or projects so that they can repeat good practices and eliminate bad practices. This activity is known as what?
(B) Actions and activities that are necessary to satisfy completion or exit criteria for the project,
and to confirm that the project has met all sponsor, customer, and other stakeholder's
requirements are addressed...
(C) The project is nearing completion. The team is involved in a lot of different activities to close
the project. They are grouping together project documents, operational and support
documents, project and phase closure documents, and lessons learned repository. What are they creating?
(D) You are the Project Manager for the design and development of a significant mechanical
component of a highway construction project. You have just finished putting together all the
various plans into a complete document. What step will you perform next?

The project team members are evaluating the impact of introducing Process 4.4 Manage
Project Knowledge in a project and documents the benefits as part of updating Organization
Process Asset Which one of the four generic project phases of the project life cycle are they
in?

(A) Starting the project
(B) Organizing and preparing
(C) Carrying out the work
(D) Closing the project

Which of the following roles enables resources for the project and could own the work of the
project when it is complete?

(A) Senior management

(B) Sponsor
(C) Functional management
(D) Project management

From an organizational perspective, knowledge management covered by Process 4.4...

(A) is about making sure the skills experience and expertise of the project team and other stakeholders are used before, during and after the project.

(B) includes knowledge that can be readily codified using words, pictures and numbers,
known as "explicit" knowledge

(C) includes knowledge that is personal and difficult to express, such as beliefs, insights,
experience and know-how, known as "tacit" knowledge

(D) All of the above.

All the following are true about a Work Breakdown Structure, except...

(A) It shows a deliverable-orientated hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team.
(B) It is the output of the Create WBS process.
(C) Changes to it must be controlled by the Configuration Management System
(D) It breaks work down into realistic levels where work packages are the lowest level.

The Work Breakdown Structure..

(A) together with the project Scope Statement and the Work Breakdown Structure Dictionary, forms the Scope Baseline for the project.
(B) is used to identify the logical person to sponsor the project.
(C) acts as a record of work elements assigned to individuals.
(D) is used to create an input for the Define Scope process.

An approved scope change request is required for.

(A) any change in the detailed product specification in the Work Breakdown Structure.
(B) any change in the detailed product specification in the Work Breakdown Structure
Dictionary.
(C) any change in the detailed product specification in the Project Scope Statement.
(D) None of the above.

A scope change request is processed by..

(A) Process 5.6 Control Scope
(B) Process 4.4 Manage Project Knowledge
(C) Process 4.6 Perform Integrated Change Control
(D) None of the above

A Project Manager is involved in the Define Scope process. As part of this process, his/her
responsibility is mainly to...

(A) develop a detailed description of the project and the product.
(B) create the Work Breakdown Structure.
(C) validate the scope.
(D) verify that all key stakeholders have been consulted on their requirements.

When is the best time to schedule Validate Scope in the project management plan?

(A) When the Scope Management Plan is awaiting signoff.
(B) When the project sponsor calls for it.
(C) Periodically as needed, e.g. at the end of every project phase.
(D) Immediately before acceptance of a project deliverable.

Variance analysis compares scope performance parameters to baseline values and is a useful tool to...

(A) define the project scope.
(B) plan the project scope.
(C) control the project scope.
(D) validate the project scope.

All of the following statements are true about the Project Scope Statement except..

(A) It is an output of the Define Scope process.
(B) It describes the project's deliverables in detail and helps to identify the work required to
create those deliverables.
(C) It is an output of the Validate Scope process.
(D) It describes the project's major objectives and provides a common understanding of the
project scope among all project stakeholders.

Validate Scope will be very important to the success of the project. Why is this?

(A) Validate Scope is done during the initial phases of the project life cycle in order to
collect requirements.
(B) Validate Scope verifies that the sponsor signed the Project Scope Statement at the
beginning of Planning.
(C) Validate Scope is the process of validating what the project created against the Project
Scope Statement, which includes the product technical specification.
(D) Validate Scope is used to confirm that the project team understands the scope of the
project

Which of the following statements is true of the project scope management plan?

(A) It provides guidance on how the project scope will be validated.

(B) It provides guidance on how the project scope will be controlled.

(C) It provides guidance on how the project scope will be defined.
(D) All of the above.

All of the following are good reason for creating a Work Breakdown Structure, except..

(A) It helps attain buy-in from the team doing the work.
(B) It allows the project completion date to be determined
(C) It provides authority for the Project Manager
(D) It allows the project budget to be determined.

The Project Manager is working with the customer to get a sign-off on the project
deliverables. The customer is saying that three of the deliverables do not meet project goals and are unusable in their present form. Upon reviewing documentation, the customer tells
the Project Manager that the requirements are not accurate to meet the needs for which the
project was undertaken. In which process(es) did this problem occur?

(A) Control Scope
(B) Create WBS
(C) Collect Requirements and Define Scope
(D) Validate Scope

The Project Manager is working with the customer to get a sign-off on the project
deliverables. The customer is saying that three of the deliverables do not meet project goals and are unusable in their present form. Upon reviewing documentation, the customer tells
the Project Manager that the requirements are not accurate to meet the needs for which the
project was undertaken. Given the issue described, which of the following should be used to correct the problem?

(A) Control Scope
(B) Team-building
(C) Scope analysis
(D) Validate Scope

All of the following statements are true about the Scope Control process, except..

(A) it allows the Work Breakdown Structure to be maintained throughout the project
(B) It is used to review and approve or reject scope change requests to the project.
(C) it generates change requests and updates project documentation
(D) It allows the Project Scope Statement to be maintained throughout the project.

The Project Manager and team are involved in project planning. They are breaking the work down to the lowest level of the work breakdown structure. What are they creating?

(A) Work packages
(B) Requirements documentation
(C) Requirements traceability matrix
(D) Scope baseline

Which of the following is true about a Work Breakdown Structure?

A) Each descending level represents an increasingly detailed definition of the technical specifications of the project deliverables.

(B) It breaks work down until it is done by a single individual.

(C) Changes to the work breakdown structure must be controlled by the Change Control System.

(D) It creates a baseline of the technical specification of the project deliverables.

Which process creates a Scope Baseline?

A) Create WBS
(B) Define Scope and Create WBS

(C) Define Scope
(D) Validate Scope

... is an input of the Collect Requirements process.

(A) Change request

(B) Project Charter
(C) Work Breakdown Structure
(D) Requirements assumptions.

Which of the following is true about the Plan Scope Management process?

(A) It documents how the scope will be defined, validated, and controlled.
(B) It forms part of the Project Management Plan.
(C) It references the Project Charter.
(D) All of the above.

All of the following statements are true about a Requirement Traceability Matrix, except..

(A) It provides a means to track requirements through the project life cycle.
(B) It is not linked to the Work Breakdown Structure
(C) It helps to ensure that the requirements are validated at the end of a project.
(D) It links product requirements from their origins to the deliverables that satisfy them.

All the following are true about the Process 6.1 Plan Schedule Management process 1.
except...

(A) It provides guidance and direction of how the project schedule will be managed
throughout the project.
(B) It uses the Scope Statement as an input.

(C) The output forms part of the Project Management Plan.
(D) All of the above are true.

The Project Manager is creating an estimate for building HVAC system. The system has very similar challenges to another recently installed system that he was project manager on. The project manager decided to ignore the rule of thumb of S85 per square foot to calculate the estimate, instead relying parameters specific to his experience from the previous project, that ended up more expensive. What type of estimate is this?

(A) Parametric
(B) Three-Point Estimates
(C) Delphi technique
(D) Analogous

The flow chart for Process 6.2 Define Activities does not show the Work Breakdown Structure as an input to the process. The reason for that is because...

(A) it is not required for this process.
(B) it is part of the other input documents shown on the flow chart.
(C) only the Work Breakdown Structure Dictionary is required.
(D) the Work Breakdown Structure is typically not completed at this point in time.

As one of the tools and techniques of Process 6 3 Sequence Activities, a lag

(A) means that the successor activity cannot start until after the predecessor is completed.
(B) allows a successor activity to finish before the predecessor is completed
(C) directs a delay in the start of a successor activity, from the start of the predecessor
(D) could be accomplished by a finish-to-start relationship with a delay time

A schedule change request is initiated by

(A) Process 4.6 Perform Integrated Change Control
(B) Process 6.6 Control Schedule
(C) Process 4.5 Monitor and Control Project Work (D) None of the above

The schedule of the construction of a robotic crane use to test software with access to the
hard drive of the system, followed by the water-tight sealing of the electronics compartment,
followed by a water-tight test. This procedure is typically followed in industry. However, experience has shown that the testing of software with access to the hard drive needs to be repeated after the water-tight sealing of the electronics compartment. This is an example of
what?

(A) Discretionary dependencies
(B) Crashing
(C) Mandatory dependencies
(D) Leads and Lags

In defining a milestone, which of the following is most correct?

(A) It can represent the beginning of a deliverable, work package, phase, or project.
(B) It has a duration of zero (0).
(C) It has value in the Project Charter but not in the Project Scope Statement.
(D) It is used to define the phase of a project.

The Project Manager is creating an estimate for the development of a small fuel processing
plant She is familiar with the latest algorithms that is used in industry to calculate activity
durations Which of the following types of estimates is she likely to provide?

(A) Parametric
(B) Three-Point Estimates
(C) Delphi technique
(D) Analogous

All the following are false about contingency and management time reserves of a project
except

(A) Both time reserves are included in the project's schedule baseline
(B) Both time reserves are excluded in the project's schedule baseline.
(C) Changes to both time reserves are controlled by the procedures defined in Process 4.6
Perform Integrated Change Control.
(D) Only changes to the contingency time reserve is controlled by the procedures defined
in Process 4.6 Perform Integrated Change Control

The construction of the aluminum frame of a remotely-operated underwater vehicle has been
delayed by two weeks. The Project Manager evaluates the schedule and determines that
the electrical and hydraulic installation work could occur simultaneously instead of
Consecutively, as laid out in the schedule. This is an example of what?

(A) Fast tracking
(B) Crashing
(C) Mandatory dependencies
(D) Lag

The method of calculating the Estimate at Completion (EAC) by dividing the Budget at Completion (BAC) by a current performance factor is used most often when the...

(A) Original estimating assumptions are considered to be fundamentally flawed
(B) Current variances are viewed as typical of expected future variances
(C) Current variances are viewed as atypical of expected future variances
(D) Original estimating assumptions are no longer reliable because conditions have changed

If the Cost Variance (CV) is the same as the Schedule Variance (SV) and both numbers are greater than zero, then...

(A) the Schedule Variance (SV) needs to, and can easily be, corrected.
(B) drastic action on limiting expenses is required.
(C) the Cost Variance (CV) is due to the Schedule Variance (SV)
(D) work is done at a higher efficiency than planned

Which one of the following statements is true about the management reserves of a project?

(A) A change in the management reserves is controlled by the procedures defined in the Perform Integrated Change Control process
(B) Transfer of management reserves to the cost baseline triggers a change request.
(C) A change in the management reserves is controlled by the procedures defined in the Control Costs process
(D) It is included from the project's cost baseline

Which of the following parameters identifies a project that is ahead of schedule?

(A) Schedule Performance Index (SPI) < 1.
(B) Schedule Performance Index (SPI) >1.

(C) Cost Performance Index (CPI) <1

(D) Cost Performance Index (CPI)> 1

The Earned Value Management (EVM) can best be defined as...

(A) a method of analysing how to improve project performance.

(B) a method of measuring the performance of a project.

(C) a method of measuring costs incurred on the project.

(D) a method of analysing the efficiency of work done on the project

The Planned Value (PV) represents the cost baseline, which has the following
characteristic ...

(A) It is developed by summing estimated activity duration by period.
(B) It shows the actual cost expenditures throughout the life of the project.
(C) it is a time-phased value that will be used to monitor cost performance on the project.
(D It typically takes on a "bell curve shape.

A project has a high likelihood of experiencing a schedule overrun. This is because the Earned Value (EV) is much...

(A) higher than the Actual cost (AC).
(B) lower than the Actual cost (AC).
(C) lower than the Planned Value (PV).
(D) higher than the Planned Value (PV).

An output of the Process 8.3 Control Quality addresses improvements to ...

(A) the project deliverables primarily, but may also include the quality management plan.
(B) the project quality management plan only.

(C) the project deliverables only.

(D) None of the above.

Based on quality control measurements on a manufacturing project, management realize that immediate corrective action is required to the testing and inspection procedure identify quality issues more effectively. To initiate the necessary changes the project manager must...

(A) generate a change request in Process 4.6 Perform Integrated Change Control.
(B) generate a change request in Process 8.2 Manage Quality.
(C) generate a change request in Process 8.3 Control Quality
(D) None of the above.

Following the action identified in Question 2 or 3, the project manager must implement the necessary changes according to the procedure outlined in...

(A) generate a change request in Process 4.6 Perform Integrated Change Control.
(B) generate a change request in Process 8.2 Manage Quality.
(C) generate a change request in Process 8.3 Control Quality.
(D) None of the above.

A manufacturing process has been experiencing variance that is causing concern among the team. Some results have been above the specification limits, and some within the control tolerances. To learn more about the output of the process over the last month, the most useful view of information can be obtained from a...

(A) control chart.
(B) check sheet.
(C) Pareto diagram.
(D) cause-and-effect diagram.

Process 8.3 Control Quality is being executed on a project. Which of the following is a key tool that will be utilized in this process?

(A) Acceptance decisions
(B) Rework
(C) Quality management plan (D) Inspection and testing

The Plan Quality process provides input to ____ in which quality management and quality control for the project are addressed.

(A) the configuration management system

(B) the configuration management system and the project scope

(C) external stakeholders
(D) the overall project management plan

As part of Process 8.2 Manage Quality, a quality audit aims at...

(A) measuring the output of the project.
(B) defining the quality rules as they relate to the project.
(C) verifying that the quality plan will achieve the desired results.
(D)keeping the customer happy.

The project management team is analyzing defects and trying to isolate the cause of a problem on the project. They have isolated two variables via the data that is available. They suspect the problem is compounded by the impact of one variable on another. They want to confirm that there is a relationship between these two variables and identify what the relationship is. Which of the following will help them verify this relationship?

A) Control chart
(B) Scatter diagram
(C) Histogram
(D) Cause-and-effect diagram

One of the fundamental principles of modern Total Quality Management is:

(A) Quality requires constant inspection.
(B) Quality is planned, designed, built in, and inspected in.
(C) Quality does not cost.
(D) Quality is planned and inspected in.

A quality audit is a structured independent process that may include.

(A) identifying all good and best practices being implemented.
(B) identifying all nonconformities, gaps, and shortcomings.
(C) sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects.
(D) All of the above.

Inspection and testing in the key tool used to asses the effectiveness of..

(A) Quality Planning
(B) Quality Management

(C) Quality Control
(D) None of the above.

All of the following are noticeable milestone in the introduction of quality as an important parameter of consumer products, except..

(A) American managers soon caught onto the idea of total quality management and thereby ensured that Japan's quality initiatives did not mean a loss of market share for American products.
(B) The ISO 9000 series of quality-management standards were published in 1987
(C) Joseph Juran was a key figure and used eastern philosophies learnt in Japan, to advocate the idea that quality related to "fitness for use"
(D) Japan's strategies represented the new "total quality" approach that focused on improving all organizational processes through the people who used them.

The Plan Quality process addresses...

(A) Quality management

(B) Quality control

(C) Quality management and quality control
(D) Neither quality management nor quality control

After they considered using an independent third party, the project team decided to validate an implemented quality plan for the project themselves. The validation will determine if the plan measures sufficiently the product of the project. What are the team members doing?

(A) Quality audit
(B) Quality management
(C) Quality planning
(D) Quality control

The ISO 9000 standard provides...

(A) a description of how products should be produced

(B) specifics for the implementation of quality systems

(C) a framework for quality systems
(D) the maximum process requirements necessary to ensure that customers receive a good product

The Project Manager is assessing the availability of people she will need on a major CAD management project. To assist her with the estimation, she would like to visualise the organisation's existing department and units with the project's work packages listed under each department. What will she likely use to visually represent this information?

(A) Resource breakdown structure
(B) Organisational breakdown structure
(C) Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
(D) Resource calendar

The Project Manager is assessing the availability of people she will need on a major CAD management project and would like to review the hours of each skill set that will be needed each week on the project. What will she likely use to visually represent this data?

(A) Resource breakdown structure
(B) Organisational breakdown structure
(C) Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
(D) Resource calendar

The Project Manager is assessing the availability of people she will need on a major CAD management project and would like to visualise the resource requirement as a hierarchical representation of the resources by category and type, required on the project. What will she likely use to visually represent this data?

(A) Resource breakdown structure
(B) Organisational breakdown structure
(C) Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
(D) Resource calendar

The Project Manager is assessing the availability of people she will need on a major CAD management project and is reviewing names of team members associated with work packages identified in the work breakdown. She is designating roles and levels of
authority to each name. What is she likely creating?

(A) Resource breakdown structure
(B) Organisational breakdown structure
(C) Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
(D) Resource calendar

The Resource breakdown structure is an output from which of the following processes?

(A) Acquire resources
(B) Estimate activity resources
(C) Manage team
(D) Develop team

Resources associated with the Plan Resource Management process include:

(A) Project team
(B) Materials, equipment, facilities, and supplies
(C) All of the above
(D) None of the above.

Resources associated with the Management Team process include:

(A) Project team
(B) Materials, equipment, facilities, and supplies
(C) All of the above
(D) None of the above.

Resources associated with the Control Resources process include.

(A Project team
(B) Materials, equipment, facilities, and supplies

(C) All of the above.
(D) None of the above.

A resource calendar for different 3D printing capabilities within your organization has the
following characteristic..

(A) it is considered an output of the Estimate Resource Activity process.
(B) it will show cost of each specific 3D printing capability.

(C) it identifies working days and shifts upon each specific 3D printing capability is
available.
(D) it identifies the individual risks that can impact the availability of each specific 3D
printing capability.

Developing the project team is an important activity directly related to project success. According to the PMBOK, when does this occur in a project? (Hint Associate the process with a process group and consult a very important table in the textbook)

(A) Throughout the project
(B) During execution
(C) During planning
(D) During off-hour events

Plan Resource Management occurs during the planning of a project. Which of the following
is not expected to be created during this process?

(A) Resource management plan
(B) Project organizational chart
(C) Team development results
(D) Role and responsibility assignments

Unrealistic assumptions regarding competence of resources were recorded in the Assumption Log. This problem occurred in the _____ process.

(A) Plan Resource Management

(B) Estimate Resources
(C) Develop Team
(D) Manage Team

The mistake described in "Unrealistic assumptions regarding competence of resources were recorded in the Assumption Log." will be corrected in the ______ process.

(A) Plan Resource Management
(B) Estimate Resources
(C) Develop Team
(D) Manage Team

With mistake described in "Unrealistic assumptions regarding competence of resources were recorded in the Assumption Log." baselined, the correction needs to be initiated by the process.

(A) Plan Resource Management
(B) Acquire Resources
(C) Manage Team
(D) Control Resources

The initiated correction to the mistake described in "With mistake described in "Unrealistic assumptions regarding competence of resources were recorded in the Assumption Log." baselined," needs to follow....

(A) established operational definitions.
(B) the procedures specified in Process 4.6 Perform Integrated Change Control.
(C) the organization's resource policy.
(D) the resource management plan.

Project Manager is consulting with the Human Recourse department of his company to plan how human recourses will be contracted in from external sources. What process is the Project Manager involved in?

(A) Plan Resource Management
(B) Acquire Resources
(C) Manage Team
(D) Control Resources

Misunderstanding can be reduced but not eliminated through using the 5 Cs of written communication include all of the following, except...

(A) connective message structuring.
(B) coherent logical flow of ideas.
(C) collaborative message meaning.
(D) concise excess words and elimination of expression.

Attributes of a communications management plan can include the following:

(A) Which information will be distributed to stakeholders
(B) How often information will be distributed.
(C) The layout of the information and the method of transmission.
(D) All of the above.

As part of the basic communications model, the receiver is responsible for:

(A) Specifying that the message is not understood, unless it is reduced to writing.
(B) Making sure that the information is received in its entirety and understood correctly.
(C) Pretending that the message is received only partially, to encourage further discussions.
(D) Agreeing with the sender's message.

As part of the basic communications model, the sender is responsible for...

(A) Interpreting the message correctly.
(B) Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message.
(C) Confirming that the message is correctly interpreted.
(D) Presenting the information favorable to a certain argument.

The work breakdown structure of a project is viewed as what type of communication?

(A) External hierarchical
(B) Verbal hierarchical
(C) Unofficial hierarchical
(D) Formal hierarchical

The Project Manager is meeting with project stakeholders in order to promote engagement through appropriate communication channels He is finding out the information to be communicated, the reasons for distributing that information, and the time frame and frequency for the distribution of the required information What will he create as a result of this work?

(A) Stakeholder communications list
(B) Stakeholder expectation matrix
(C) Stakeholder engagement plan
(D) Stakeholder register

One of the many purposes of the Plan Communications Management process is to provide information about the...

(A) methods or technologies that will be used to minimise communications

(B) methods or technologies that will be used to convey information.
(C) methods or technologies that will be used to manage stakeholder responsibility relationships and interdependencies
(D) All of the above

Information typically needed to determine project communications requirements includes the following

(A) disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the project.
(B) logistics of how many persons will be involved with the project and at which locations
(C) project organization and stakeholder responsibility, relationships and interdependencies
(D) All of the above

Which of the following is an input to the Manage Communications process?

(A) Formal Communication

(B) Stakeholder analysis

(C) Communication Management Plan
(D) Communications infrastructure

Roberts Rules of Order is based on the following idea:

A) More than one topic may be discussed at a times
(B) Everyone has the right to speak once if they wish, before anyone may speak a second time
(C) The speaker is never interrupted.
(D) All of the above

A company has just completed a make-or-buy decision process regarding a service related to a new area of development. The company has decided to buy decision, it is concerned the service. As a result of this about risk exposure in the contract type. Which Would the type of contract company prefer to use if it wants to control cost and minimize risk.

(A) Fixed-price
(B) Purchase order
(C) Unilateral order
(D) Cost plus fixed fee contracts

A contract is expected cost to cost $560K. Actual cost is $510K. There is a 50/50 share for any savings. What is the eventual total value of the contract?

(A) $610K
(B) $560K
(C) $510K
(D) $535K

Which of the following is true about the procurement statement of work (SOW)?

(A) It describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the item.
(B) It should not be revised or refined as required as it moves through the procurement process.
(C) It excludes specifications and quantity desired
(D) It should include some ambiguity and should be worded to allow for future negotiations

A Project Manager at a maintenance-consulting firm plans to use a contracting firm to perform monthly maintenance on a privately-owned process plant. The Project Manager provides the prospective contracting firms with a greatly detailed description that does not leave any options of what it wants the contractor to do on the project. What type of document is being provided to the contractors?

A) Request for proposals (RFP)
(B) Invitation for bid (IFB)
(C) Request for quotation (RFQ)
(D) Request for information (RFI)

Three month after the procurement exercise outlined in Question 4, the same Project Manager plans to again use a contracting firm to perform maintenance on a privately-owned process plant. However, the Project Manager is unfamiliar with the technical details of the maintenance that needs to be performed, and therefore provides the prospective contracting firms only with details of the deliverables (outcomes). What type of document is being provided to the contractors this time?

(A) Request for proposals (RFP)
(B) Request for information (RFI)
(C) Request for quotation (RFQ)
(D) Invitation for bid (IFB)

Another two months passed after the procurement exercise outlined in Question 5, and the same Project Manager plans to again use a contracting firm to perform maintenance on a privately-Owned process plant. This time, the Project Manager is neither familiar with the technical details of the maintenance, not is he familiar with the objectives (outcomes) of the maintenance work. What type of document is being provided to the contractors this time?

(A) Request for proposals (RFP)
(B) Request for information (RFI)
(C) Request for quotation (RFQ)
(D) Invitation for bid (IFB)

Six month after the procurement exercise outlined in Question 6, the Project Manager plans to again use a contracting firm to perform monthly maintenance, this time on a publicly-owned (government) process plant. The Project Manager again provides the prospective contracting firms with a greatly detailed description that does not leave any options of what needs to be done on the project. What type of document is being provided to the contractors this time?

(A) Request for proposals (RFP)
(B) Request for information (RFI)
(C) Request for quotation (RFQ)
(D) Invitation for bid (IFB)

"A project manager is working with the project sponsor on a design upgrade contract. The project sponsor needs a modification to the baselined project deliverable specification due to some new functionality requirement. This modification also requires that a baselined statement of work (SOW) of a contract with supplier needs to be modified. Who/what can modify the contract?"

(A) The project manager for the seller
(B) The project manager for the buyer
(C) The project sponsor for the buyer
(D) The Integrated Change Control process

Given the exercise outlined in "A project manager is working with the project sponsor on a design upgrade contract. The project sponsor needs a modification to the baselined project deliverable specification due to some new functionality requirement. This modification also requires that a baselined statement of work (SOW) of a contract with supplier needs to be modified. Who/what can modify the contract?", in what process is the project manager involved?

(A) Plan Procurement Management
(B) Conduct Procurements
(C) Control Procurements
(D) None of the above.

The project team decided to use a vendor to provide expert judgment on an upgrade project and is specifying the criteria to select the vendor. In what process is the team involved?

(A) Plan Procurement Management
(B) Conduct Procurements

(C) Control Procurements
(D) None of the above

The project team is negotiating a contract with an external resource consulting firm that will help them select which vendor to use following the decision described in "The project team decided to use a vendor to provide expert judgment on an upgrade project and is specifying the criteria to select the vendor". In what process is the team involved?

(A) Plan Procurement Management
(B) Conduct Procurements

(C) Control Procurements
(D) None of the above

Significant differences between the seller's price and a Project Manager's independent estimate may indicate...

(A) the statement of work (SOW) was not adequate.
(B) the marketplace has drastically changed.
(C) the seller misunderstood the SOW.

(D) All of the above

Your project has just been fast tracked and you are looking at bringing in a subcontractor to complete networking quickly. There is no time to issue a request for proposal (RFP), so you choose to use a company you have used many times before for software development. In order for you to be able to provide detailed-enough information for the contractor to establish if they are capable of providing the service, you start by looking at the sequence of the procurement phases, what the performance indicators will be used for the subcontractor, and the criteria for moving from phase to phase. What information are you consulting?

(A) Procurement strategy.
(B) Procurement management plan.
(C) Procurement statement of work.
(D) Bid documentation.

After considering a number of quotes from various vendors, a Project Manager purchases 16 new CAD workstations, including software, from a selected vendor for an upcoming project. What type of contract will he likely use?

(A) Time and material contracts
(B) Cost plus percentage of cost
(C) Fixed-price
(D) Purchase order

Why is a cost plus fixed fee contract NOT preferred for a buyer?

(A) It provides no reason for the buyer to control cost.
(B) It provides no reason for the seller to control cost.
(C) t requires use of a more detailed request for proposal (FFP).
(D) It requires the seller to audit all costs incurred.