Pathophysiology: Pathophysiology Week 1 Quiz Flashcards


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Pathophysiology
Chapters 1, 2
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1

Which statement accurately describes the proliferation of cancer cells?

The number of developing cells exceeds the number of dying cells

2

A critical event in the death of a cell is caused by

Disruption of the plasma membranes permeability barrier

3

A client develops weakness in both lower extremities following a prolonged period of bed rest. This condition is most likely caused by

Atrophy

4

Which of these statements best describes the purpose of the TNM classification system?

It provides tumor data for the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

5

Which gene has been identified as specifically contributing to some types of breast cancer?

BRCA1

6

An increase in which of these characteristics would be present in cells that demonstrate hypertrophy?

Size of cells

7

Abnormal new cellular growth is referred to as

Neoplasia

8

Which condition explains the genetic basis for cancer development?

Loss of or defect in tumor suppressor genes

9

Necrosis is the result of cellular injury that does not allow for cellular adaptation because it is which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

Too severe

Too prolonged

10

Which term is used to describe the deficiency in circulating platelets?

Thrombocytopenia

11

Which term means cause of the disease?

Etiology

12

In muscle hypertrophy, the hypertrophied cells increase in

Size

13

Which is true regarding catecholamines?

They include epinephrine and norepinephrine

14

Which is a characteristic of cancer cells?

Poor differentiation

15

Which cellular response is maladaptive?

Change in the shape or arrangement of cells

16

A heart that has to pump harder in order to effectively circulate blood is likely to undergo which type of cellular adaptation?

Hypertrophy

17

Which hormone is responsible for lactation and interferes with ovulation?

Prolactin

18

Cellular hypoxia results in

Failure of the sodium-potassium pump

19

Signs and symptoms of a disease first occur during the

Prodromal

20

What stage is defined by “fight or flight”?

Alarm

21

Which offers the best prognosis for the cure of cancer?

Early detection

22

A critical event in the death of a cell is caused by

Disruption of the plasma membrane s permeability barrier

23

Which statement is true regarding cancer? (Select all that apply.)

The greater the undifferentiated cell count, the more aggressive the cancer.

Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host.

24

Which term is used to describe the histologic characterization of tumor cells?

Grading

25

Which condition occurs in the presence of cellular damage?

Sodium and water move into the cell.

26

In what way do proto-oncogenes become activated oncogenes?

Certain retroviruses enter host cells, altering their DNA structure.

27

Which condition explains the genetic basis for cancer development?

Loss of or defect in tumor suppressor genes

28

Restoration of effective function is the goal of which level of prevention?

Tertiary

29

A disease that is native to a particular region

Endemic

30

Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular

death

31

Your patient eats "lots of fat," leads a "stressful" life, and has smoked "about two packs a day for the last 40 years." Her chronic morning cough recently worsened, and she was diagnosed with a lung mass. The most likely contributing factor for development of lung cancer in this patient is

cigarette smoking

32

Cancer grading is based on

cell differentiation

33

Allostasis is best defined as

the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well- being

34

A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of?

secondary prevention

35

After bronchoscopy and histologic examination of a suspected tumor, G.P. is diagnosed with primary bronchial carcinoma. Thus, the tumor is?

malignant

36

After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication. This is an example of?

tertiary prevention

37

Which of the following normally is not secreted in response to stress?

insulin

38

C.Q. was recently exposed to group A
hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3° F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. He complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive
for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.'s disease is

streptococcal infection

39

Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure. She wants to know what that means. Which response is correct?

It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread

40

Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by?

norepinephrine

41

Metaplasia

the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another

42

The cellular response indicative of injury due to faulty metabolism

intracellular accumulations

43

Side effect of chemotherapy include

need to answer?

44

Selye's three phases of the stress response include all the following

Alarm

Resistance

Exhaustion

45

The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease process are well established, is referred to as?

Subclinical