National Pesticide Applicator Certification Core Flashcards

Define "pest".

State four main groups of pests and give an example of each.

Discuss the importance of pest identification in pest control.

Define "integrated pest management (IPM)."

List five benefits of using IPM.

Discuss how using one or more control options can improve pest control.

Describe how selectivity and persistence affect chemical controls.

Explain how pest population levels trigger control procedures.

Distinguish between prevention and suppression hen developing pest management goals.

Give serval reasons why pesticide applications may fail.

Explain the importance of a pesticide mode of action in managing pesticide resistance.

List two tactics that will minimize the development of pesticide resistance.

Define "pathogens".

_____ is when chlorinated hydrocarbons accumulate in animals' fatty tissue, especially those higher in the food chain.

_____ is when organisms accumulated chemical residues in higher concentrations than those found in the food organism they consumed.

_____ is the use of natural enemies- predators, parasites, pathogens, and competitors- to control pests and their damage.

List the 6 pest management methods:

Define "pesticide."

_____ control or repel pest birds.

____ control bactiera.

_____ sterilize insects or pest vertrbrates.

______ cause leaves to drop from plants.

_____ promote drying or loss of moisture from plant tissues and insects.

_____ (antimicrobials) control microorganisms

_____ control fungi.

________ alter the growth or development of a plant or animal.

_____ control weeds.

______ control insects and related arthropods.

______ (acaricides) control mites.

_____ control snails and slugs.

_____ control nematodes (roundwroms).

____ destroy eggs.

_____ attract insects.

_____ control pest fish.

_____ control predatory vertebrates (e.g. coyotes).

______ repel insects, mites, ticks, pest vertebrates, invertebrates, birds, and mammals.

_____ control rodents.

The pesticides within a particular class have similar chemical structures or properties or share a common _______ (how they kill pest) or _______ (the specific biological system affected within the pest).

Some chemicals are called _____ because they are toxic to some pests but have little or no effect on others.

________ are absorbed and translocated within a plant or animal.

_____ are not absorbed by treated plants or animals. These pesticides must directly touch the pest.

_____ is how long a pesticide remains active to control pests.

Some ______ control pests for weeks, months, or even years.

_____ is the elimination of pests from a designated area.

___ are natural control measures within the environment that injure or destroy plants and animals. including pests.

______ may cause major damage on a regular basis unless they are controlled.

_______ becomes a problem when a key pest is controlled or absent.

____ become troublesome only once in a while because of their life cycles, environmental influences, or as a result human activities.

The ____ (EC) is the pest population density at which control measures are needed to prevent the pest from reaching the economic injury level.

_____ (EIL)is the pest population density that causes losses equal to the cost of control measures.

Pesticides are sometimes used for pests prevention. Growers treat some crops and landscapes with ____ or ____ b/c they know that weed seeds are present.

____ pest control methods aim to reduce pest population levels.

Chapter 1- Question 1

Using Barriers to prevent pests from getting into an area is an example of which type of pest management method?

A. Biological. B. Mechanical. C. Genetic.

Chapter 1- Question 2

Making use of plant varieties that are naturally resistant to insect feeding is an example of which type of pest management method?

A. Biological. B. Genetic. C. Regulatory.

Chapter 1- Question 10

Which would increase the likelihood of pesticide resistance?

a. An insect that has one generation per year.

b. Continual use of pesticides from the same chemical class.

c. Applying a pesticide that has little to no residual effect.

Chapter 1- Question 3

Which statement about biological control methods is true?

a. Modifying the environment to enhance natural enemies is recommended in biological control.

b. Biological control involves importing exotic pest to control natural enemies.

c. Using several cultural practices and a wide variety of pesticides works best in biological control.

Chapter 1- Question 4

Sealing cracks and crevices and small openings in buildings is an example of which type of pest management method?

a. physical b.genetic c. biological

Chapter 1- Question 5

Which statement about cultural control practices is true?

a. The reduce pest establishment, reproduction, and survival.

b. The use naturally derived and or synthesized chemicals to control pest.

c. The involve the release of parasites and predators found in foreign countries.

Chapter 1- Question 6

Monitoring pest at airports and ocean ports that pose a serious threat to public health or widespread damage to crops or animals is an example of which type of pest management?

a. Regulatory b. Genetic c. Biological

Chapter 1- Question 7

Which statement about pest management strategies in IPM is true?

a. The goal is to prevent pest from reaching damaging levels.

b. Eradication is never the goal of an IPM program.

c. Non-chemical methods are short term solutions to control pests.

Chapter 1- Question 8

Which would be considered a preventive pest management strategy?

a. Plant weed and disease free seed on an athletic field.

b. Releasing natural enemies to help reduce pest populations.

c. Removing a pest that is a public health concern from an area.

Chapter 1- Question 9

Which statement about action thresholds is true?

a. The IPM technician need to implement control measures below the action threshold level.

b. The action threshold for a pest may be set to a zero pest population density.

c. In an urban landscape, actions thresholds are usually more related to economics than aesthetics.

Explain how and why pesticides are regulated in the United States.

What is the importance of knowing and following federal laws and regulations related to pesticide?

State why certain pesticides are classified as restricted use.

Distinguish between restricted-use and general-use pesticide classifications.

Explain the importance of maintaining accurate records of pesticide applications and employee training.

The two main classifications of pesticides are:

Unclassified-use pesticides are commonly referred to as:

RUPs may be sold only to _______ or their authorized representatives.

_____ are defined as certified applicators who use or supervise the use of any RUP for the purpose of producing ad agricultural commodity on their property or property they rent or lease.

_____ are individuals who use or supervise the use of any RUP for any purpose on any property except for those listed under the definition of a private applicator.

____ is the maximum pesticide residue limit that may legally remain on or in treated crops and animals or animal products sold for food or feed.

The EPA has completed a one-time program to review older pesticides to ensure that they meet current scientific and regulatory standards. This process is called _____ and considers human health, environmental, and ecological effects of pesticides.

Chapter 2- Question 1

Which statement about FIFRA is false?

a. It provides the overall framework for the federal pesticide regulatory program.

b. It prevents states, tribes, and territories from creating pesticide use laws more stringent than federal regulations.

c. It allows applicators to deviate from the pesticide label under specific use situations.

Chapter 2- Question 2

Under federal law, which statement about trained and certified applicators is true?

a. They may apply and/or supervise the application of restricted-use pesticides.

b. They must receive supplemental training before mixing RUPs.

c. They are exempt from obtaining county bulletins for the protection of endangered species.

Chapter 2- Question 3

What is the purpose of the pesticide registration and reregistration process?

a. To control the flow of new pesticide products entering the marketplace.

b. To provide evidence that the pesticide will not cause unreasonable risks to human health or the environment.

c. To make sure the amount of pesticide residue remaining on food and feed crops is zero.

Chapter 2- Question 4

What statement about federal pesticide regulation is true?

a. To ensure future compliance, civil penalties are typically assessed against first-time violators.

b. Like pesticides, devices used to control pests must also be registered with EPA.

c. Approved pesticide labels have the force of law.

Chapter 2- Question 5

Which of the following criteria is used by EPA in establishing pesticide tolerances?

a. Research data completely independent of the pesticide manufacturer's.

b. The anticipated volume of product to be dols in any given year.

c. The toxicity of the pesticide and its break down products.

Chapter 2- Question 6

Under federal law, which of the following actions is unlawful and subject to civil or criminal penalties?

a. Allowing a person under direct supervision of a certified applicator to apply RUPs.

b. Detaching, altering, defacing, or destroying any part of a container or labeling.

c. Keeping inadequate records of employees who received training on the proper use of pesticides.

Chapter 2- Question 7

Which federal regulation requires employee training in the use of pesticides.

a. Worker Protection Standard

b.Pesticide Container and Containment Regulation

c. Food Quality Protection Act

Chapter 3- Question 1

Which group of pesticides is exempt from registration because it poses little or no risk to humans and the environment?

a. Restricted use. b. Minimum risk. c. Special local need.

Chapter 3- Question 2

The active ingredient in Tempo 20WP is listed as Beta-Cyfluthrin, cyano(4-fluoro-3-phenoxyphenyl)methyl 3-(2,2-dichloroethenyl)-2,2 dimethylcyclopropanecarboxylate. What does the term "Cyfluthrin" represent?

a. The brand name. b. The chemical name. c.The common name.

Chapter 3- Question 3

Which statement about pesticide labels names and ingredients is true?

a. Both the active ingredients and inert ingredients must be listed by chemical name.

b. Various manufactures use different trade names, even though the products may contain the same active ingredient.

c. Common names are those officially accepted by the manufacturer.

Chapter 3- Question 4

What is the purpose of the signal word?

a. Indicates the product's relative acute toxicity to humans and animals.

b. Informs the user what type of PPE to wear.

c. Tells the user what type of first aid treatment to seek in case of exposure.

Chapter 3- Question 5

The routes of entry statement, "Extremely hazardous by skin contact- rapidly absorbed through the skin," on a label would most likely carry which signal word?

a. DANGER b. WARNING c. CAUTION

Chapter 3- Question 6

"Do not breathe vapors or spray mist" is an example of a"

a. Specific action statement.

b. Statement of practical treatment.

c. Routes of entry statement.

Chapter 3- Question 7

Directions for mixing and loading a pesticide are usually found under:

a. Directions for use.

b. Environmental hazards.

c. Precautionary statements.

Chapter 3- Question 8

"If swallowed, call a doctor" is an example of what kind of statement?

a. Routes of entry.

b. Advisory

c. Mandatory

Chapter 3- Question 9

Who is responsible for developing SDSs for pesticides and providing them on request?

a. EPA

b. OSHA

c. The product manufacturer

Chapter 4- Question 1

The name "X-Pest 5G" on a pesticide label indicates a:

a. Granular pesticide with 5% active ingredient.

b. Granular pesticide with 5% inert ingredient.

c. Gel pesticide with 5% active ingredient.

Chapter 4- Question 2

Which is the pesticide formulation process by which solid particles are dispersed in a liquid?

a. Emulsion

b. Solution

c. Suspension

Chapter 4- Question 3

Which liquid pesticide formulation consists of a small amount of active ingredient (often 1% or less per unit volume)?

a. Microencapsulated (M).

b. Ready-to-use (low concentrate) solution (RTU).

c. Ultra-low volume (ULV).

Chapter 4- Question 4

Which liquid pesticide formulation may approach 100% active ingredient?

a. Aerosol (A).

b. Emulsifiable concentrate (EC).

c. Ultra-low volume (ULV).

Chapter 4- Question 5

Which is a disadvantage of both EC and ULV formulations?

a. Difficult to handle, transport, and store.

b. Require constant agitation to keep in suspension.

c. Solvents may cause rubber or plastic hoses, gaskets, pump parts, and other surfaces to deteriorate.

Chapter 4- Question 6

Which dry/solid formulation is mixed in water and reduces the risk of inhalation exposure durning mixing and loading?

a. Soluble powder (SP).

b. Water dispersible granule (WDG) or dry flowable (DF).

c. Wettable powder (WP).

Chapter 4- Question 7

Which type of dry/solid pesticide formulation consists of particles that are the same weight and shape?

a. Bait

b. Granule

c Pellet

Chapter 4- Question 8

Which is an advantage of micro-encapsulated materials?

a. Delayed or slow release of the active ingredient prolongs their effectiveness.

b. Their pesticidal activity is independent of weather conditions.

c. The usually require only short restricted entry intervals.

Chapter 4- Question 9

Which type of adjuvant functions as a wetting agent and spreader (i.e., physically altering the surface tension of spray droplets)?

a. Buffer

b. Extender

c. Surfactant

Chapter 4- Question 10

Which type of adjuvant increases the viscosity of spray mixtures?

a. Sticker

b. Extender

c. Thickener

Chapter 5- Question 1

The capacity of a pesticide to cause short-term (acute) of long-term (chronic) injury is referred to as its:

a. Toxicity

b. Exposure

c. Hazard

Chapter 5- Question 2

Which statement about harmful effects of pesticides is false?

a. The most common for of pesticide injury is by inhalation.

b. Asthma-like symptoms may be caused by allergies to pesticides.

c. Many herbicides and fungicides cause dermatitis (skin reactions).

Chapter 5- Question 3

Which signal word is associated with very low oral LD50 values?

a. DANGER-POSION

b. WARNING

c. CAUTION

Chapter 5- Question 4

Which statement about pesticide toxicity is true?

a. A pesticide with an oral LD50 of 5mg/kg is more toxic than a pesticide with an LD50 of 250 mg/kg.

b. Manufacturers are not required to include chronic toxicity warning statements on product labels.

c. The signal word on the product label indicates how likely the product is to cause both acute and chronic toxic effects.

Chapter 5- Question 5

For which class(es) of pesticides might cholinesterase monitoring be appropriate?

a. Organophosphate and carbamate insecticides.

b. Pyrethroids

c. Phenoxy herbicides, such as 2, 4-D.

Chapter 5- Question 6

Which statement about what happens to pesticide inside the body is true?

a. Most pesticides used today are stored in our body fat.

b. The kidneys filter pesticides from the blood into the urine.

c. Most chemical breakdown of toxic substances takes place wherever the pesticide is first absorbed.

Chapter 5- Question 7

What statements about pesticide exposure is true?

a. Studies show about 97% of all body exposure to pesticides during a spraying operation is by inhalation.

b.Eating, drinking, or smoking without first washing your hands after handling pesticides is likely to transfer the product to your mouth.

c. The palms and forearms absorb pesticides more quickly than the scalp, ear canal, and forehead.

Chapter 5- Question 8

Which statement about first aid response for pesticide exposure to the eye is false?

a. You should hold the eye open and immediately begin gently washing it.

b. You should drip water directly into the eye.

You should flush under the eyelid with water to remove the debris.

Chapter 5- Question 9

What is the first thing you should do to help a victim of inhalation exposure?

a. Get the victim to fresh air.

b. Administer artificial respiration.

c. Have the victim lie down and loosen clothing.

Chapter 5- Question 10

Which statement about heat stress is true?

a. Wearing extra PPE prevents heat stress.

b. Constricted pupils is a symptom of heatstroke.

c. Lack of sweat is a symptom of heatstroke.

Chapter 6- Question 1

Which statement about PPE requirements listed on the pesticide label is true?

a. A label may have different PPE requirements for pesticide handlers and early-entry workers.

b. You are not required to wear all the PPE listed on the label.

c. Wearing the PPE listed on the label eliminates your exposure to pesticides.

Chapter 6- Question 2

Which part of the product formulation determines what glove type is needed?

a. Active ingredient.

b. Surfactants

c. Solvents

Chapter 6- Question 3

If there are no manufacturer use recommendations, a pesticide applicator should replace the chemical cartridges of his or her respirator:

a. At the end of each season.

b. After one week of use.

c. At the end of each workday.

Chapter 6- Question 4

When oil may be present, which particulate filter must be used?

a. N-series.

b. P-series.

c. Dust Mask.

Chapter 6- Question 6

You should do a qualitative fit test of your respirator:

a. Every five years.

b. Semiannually.

c. If you have a significant change in weight.

Chapter 6- Question 5

Air-purifying respirators protect applicators from pesticide exposure by:

a. Filtering and/or absorbing the pesticide.

b. Breaking down the pesticide.

c. Neutralizing the pesticide.

Chapter 6- Question 7

Any time you wear any tight fitting respirator to apply pesticides, you should first:

a. Perform seal check(s).

b. Do a qualitative fit test.

c. Put vaseline on the edges of the respirator to enhance the seal.

Chapter 6- Question 8

Which statement about washing work clothes soaked with pesticide concentrate is true?

a. Use cold water and one wash cycle.

b. Wash separately from other laundry items.

c. Do not attempt to wash it- dispose of it immediately.

Chapter 6- Question 9

Work clothes worn to apply pesticides should be laundered with a suitable detergent:

a. After each day's use.

b. After they get wet with spray.

c. When they have a strong oder like the pesticide.

Chapter 7- Question 1

What property of pesticide would make it more likely to move in surface water runoff?

a. high solubility

b. High adsorption

c. High volatility

Chapter 7- Question 2

Which statement about movement of pesticides from application site is true?

a. Drift is seldom an issue with indoor applications.

b. Runoff and erosion are sources of surface water contamination by pesticides.

c. Leaching is the main way that pesticides move great distances.

Chapter 7- Question 3

Which is an example of nonpoint-source contamination of groundwater?

a. Back-siphoning of pesticides spills at a wellhead.

b. Leaching from a pesticide mixing area.

c. Pesticides that dissolve and leach through soil after it rains.

Chapter 7- Question 4

Under which conditions are pesticides more likely to leach through soil?

a. Heavy clay soil, high in organic matter.

b. Sandy soil, high in organic matter.

c. Sandy soil, low in organic matter.

Chapter 7- Question 5

Which best management practices will help prevent contamination of surface water and groundwater by pesticides?

a. Using pesticides that are highly water-soluble.

b. Following IPM principles.

c. Selecting persistent pesticides.

Chapter 7- Question 6

Which two factors are most important in avoiding vapor drift?

a. Droplet size and wind speed.

b. Air stability and temperature.

c. Temperature and pesticide volatility.

Chapter 7- Question 7

Which statement about sensitive areas is true?

a. Do not spray a larger target site if it contains a sensitive area.

b. Pesticide labels may list special precautions around sensitive areas.

c. Endangered species habitats are not considered sensitive areas.

Chapter 7- Question 8

Which statement about protecting bees from pesticides injury is true?

a. use foliar applications when possible.

b. Spray crops when they are in bloom.

c. Apply insecticides in the evening or at night.

Chapter 8- Question 1

Which statement about transporting pesticides is true?

a. Carry pesticides in the passenger compartment to prevent unauthorized access.

b. Enclosed and lockable cargo boxes offer the greatest protection.

c. The operator (driver) is not held responsible if a pesticide spill or accident occurs.

Chapter 8- Question 2

Which statement about pesticide storage facilities is true?

a. A ventilation system may reduce noxious vapors by venting air into an adjoining area.

b. Carefully consider the. terrain when selecting a storage site.

c. The floor should remain as bare soil to absorb any spilled material.

Chapter 8- Question 3

What is the first thing to do if a pesticide container is leaking?

a. Put on personal protective equipment.

b. Transfer contents into another container.

c. Clean up any spilled material.

Chapter 8- Question 4

Which recommended practice will minimize pesticide storage problems?

a. Purchase quantities based on previous usage.

b. Purchase more than you need to ensure availability of the product.

c. Store metal pesticide containers on the higher shelves to prevent rusting.

Chapter 8- Question 5

What is the 1st step a business should take to develop an effective pesticide security program?

a. Coordinate planned actions with authorities.

b. Conduct a risk assessment of business vulnerabilities.

c. Train employees on security measures.

Chapter 8- Question 6

Which of the following is considered a good security practice?

a. Instruct employees on pesticide inventory control.

b. Allow employees access to inventory.

c. back up confidential data daily and keep it at the facility.

Chapter 9- Question 1

Which statement about emergency response planning is true?

a. The main reason to have an emergency response plan is to reduce economic losses.

b. The first person to contact in an emergency is an attorney.

c. It is important to make a detailed report of what took place before, durning, and after the incident.

Chapter 9- Question 2

What is the backbone of any emergency response plan?

a. Outlining the sequence of actions to take in a crisis.

b. Knowing where labels and SDSs are kept.

c. Having a designed emergency responder.

Chapter 9- Question 3

In addition to and emergency response plan, which if the following will further reduce the risk of pesticide fire?

a. Store pesticides close to a heat source to prevent freezing.

b. Keep a fire-detection system in the storage area.

c. Post the storage area with a warning sign.

Chapter 9- Question 4

Which is a recommended action to take in the event of a pesticide fire?

a. Construct berms to contain contaminated runoff water.

b. Enter the storage facility and remove as much pesticide as possible.

c. Try to extinguish the fire before calling 911.

Chapter 9- Question 5

Which is an appropriate action to take in the event of a pesticide spill?

a. Take a "time out" to read your emergency response plan.

b. Call 911 only if the spill has a chance of entering surface water.

c. Put on the appropriate PPE before responding to the spill.

Chapter 10- Question 1

Determining when to apply a pesticide includes considering the:

a. Life cycle of the pest and weather conditions.

b. Percent active ingredient.

c. Need for additives or adjuvants.

Chapter 10- Question 2

The "Directions for Use" section of a pesticide label indicates the:

a. Various crops or areas on which the pesticide may be legally used.

b. Disposal of pesticide waste.

c. Environmental, physical, and chemical hazards.

Chapter 10- Question 3

When two or more pesticides mixed together form a putty or paste, separate into layers, or look like cottage cheese, it is an example of:

a. Limited agitation.

b. Chemical incompatibility

c. Physical incompatibility

Chapter 10- Question 4

After filling a tank one-fifth to one-half full with carrier; what is the usual order for tank mixing the remaining products?

a. Add suspension products, add emulsion products, add solution products, add surfactants (if needed), add compatibility agent (if needed).

b. Add compatibility agent (if needed), add suspension products, add solution products, add surfactants (if needed), add emulsion products.

c. Add surfactants (if needed), add suspension products, add emulsion products, add solution products, add compatibility agent (if needed).

Chapter 10- Question 5

Which statement about the proper technique for opening pesticide containers is true?

a. Put on appropriate PPE after the containers have been opened.

b. Use a sharp knife or scissors to open paper or cardboard containers.

c. Leave the container open until you have finished mixing pesticides for the day.

Chapter 10- Question 6

Which statement about measuring and/or transferring pesticides is true?

a. Metal measuring utensils are recommended over plastic.

b. Most dust, powders, and dry formulations are measured by volume.

c. After adding the pesticide to the partially filled sprayed tank, rinse the measuring container and pour the rinse solution into the tank.

Chapter 10- Question 7

Which statement about cleaning and disposing of pesticides containers is true?

a. Do not puncture rinsed pesticide containers.

b. Pesticide containers that cannot be recycled or returned to the manufacturer should be reused.

c. Containers must be disposed of in accordance with label directions and current regulations.

Chapter 10- Question 8

Which statement about triple rinsing and pressure rinsing pesticide containers is true?

a. Triple rinsing is a more effective method that pressure rinsing.

b. All containers must be either triple rinsed or pressure rinsed.

c. Rinsate from triple rinsing or pressure rinsing may be stored for late use.

Chapter 10- Question 9

Which statement about pesticide rinsates is true?

a. Rinsates may be applied to labeled target sites at or below labeled rates.

b. Rinsates containing strong cleaning agents may be reused in pesticide mixtures.

c. The amount of pesticide in the rinsate plus tha mount of pesticide product in the new mixture may exceed the label rate for the target site.

Chapter 10- Question 10

Which statement about pesticide equipment cleanup is false?

a. Sprayers should be thoroughly rinsed with a water-detergent solution for several minutes.

b. When getting ready to store your sprayer, add some lightweight oil to the tank before the final flush.

c. Leftover pesticide residue in the spray tank is permitted when changing products.

Chapter 11- Question 1

Which application method involves uniformly applying a pesticide to an area of field?

a. Brodcast

b. Band

c. Directed spray

Chapter 11- Question 2

Which type of pesticide application would you use to control cockroaches inside buildings?

a. Basal

b. Band

c. Crack and crevice

Chapter 11- Question 3

Which statement about containment pads is true?

a. Pads make spill cleanup more difficult.

b. Pads should be made of permeable materials.

c. Pads should be used where large quantities of pesticides are handled or mixed.

Chapter 11- Question 4

Which statement about sprayer nozzles is true?

a. A nozzle that mainly produces fine droplets is likely to minimize off-target drift.

b. Coarse-sized droplets provide maximum coverage of the target.

c. Nozzles control the amount of material applied and type of pattern created.

Chapter 11- Question 5

Which statement about granular applicators is true?

a. Ground speed has no effect on the application rate.

b. In a rotary spreader, lighter granules are thrown father than heavier ones.

c. Drop spreaders when more precise placement of the pesticide is desired.

Chapter 11- Question 6

Which technique would help minimize off-target drift?

a. Spraying durning a temperature inversion.

b. Using the largest droplets practical to provide necessary coverage.

c. Increasing the height of the nozzles above the target.

Chapter 11- Question 7

You are applying a pesticide to a triangular area that has a base of 60 feet and height of 30 feet. How many square feet is the area.

a. 450

b. 900

c. 1,800

Chapter 11- Question 8

You are applying a pesticide to a circular area with a 20-foot diameter. How many square feet is the area?

a. 128

b. 314

c. 400

Chapter 11- Question 9

You have calibrated your equipment to spray 50 gallons per acre. You need to spray 1 acre. The label called for 3 pounds of formulation per 100 gallons of water. How many pound of formulation should you add to the tank to make 50 gallons of finished spray?

a. 1.5

b 3

6

1. Which would be considered a preventive pest management strategy?
a. Eliminating rodents from a commercial food establishment.

b.Releasing natural enemies to help reduce pest populations.

c.Removing from an area a pest that is a public health concern.

d.Planting weed- and disease-free seed.

2. Which statement is true about cultural control practices?

a. Trapping is an important cultural control practice.

b.Cultural practices alter the environment, the condition of the host, or the behavior of the pest to prevent or suppress an infestation.

c.Cultural controls involve the release of parasites and predators found in foreign countries.

d.Sanitation is not considered a cultural practice.

3. Using barriers to prevent pests from getting into an area is an example of which type of pest management method?

a. Genetic control.

b. Biological control

c. Chemical control.

d. Mechanical control.

4. Which statement is true about biological control methods?

a. Modifying the environment to enhance natural enemies is a recommended practice in biological control.

b. Using several cultural practices and a wide variety of pesticides works best in biological control.

c. Biological control involves the importation of exotic pests to control natural enemies.

d. If pesticides are part of a biological control program to control an exotic pest, it is better to apply them at the strongest label rate and to choose the more toxic pesticides.

*5. Sealing cracks and crevices and small openings in buildings is an example of which type of mechanical control method?

a. Exclusion.

b. Mulching.

c. Cultivation.

d. Trapping

*6. Which statement is true about action thresholds?

a. In an urban landscape, action thresholds are usually more related to economics than aesthetics.

b. Action thresholds are usually easy to establish.

c. The action threshold for a pest may be set at a zero pest population density. d. The IPM technician needs to implement control measures below the action threshold level.

*7. Which federal law governs the establishment of pesticide tolerances for food and feed products?

a. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).

b. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA).

c. Worker Protection Standard (WPS).

d. Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA).

8. Which federal agency is responsible for registering or licensing pesticide products for use in the United States?

a. U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA).

b. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency

c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

d. U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS).

*9. Experimental use permits required under Section 5 of FIFRA can be used when conducting experimental field tests on new pesticides or new uses of pesticides on:

a. 10 or more acres of land or 1 or more acres of water.

b. 5 or more acres of land or 1 or more acres of water.

c. 7 or more acres of land or 2 or more acres of water.

d. less than 1 acre of land or water.

10. Which federal law requires that all pesticides meet new safety standards?

a. Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA).

b. Worker Protection Standard (WPS).

c. Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).

d. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA).

*11. Which statement about the requirements of the FQPA is true?

a. For setting new standards, the FQPA considers aggregate exposures to pesticides but not cumulative exposures.

b. The FQPA does not consider additional safety standards to account for exposure risks to infants and children.

c. Testing of pesticides for endocrine disruption potential is required under the FQPA.

d.The FQPA does not require review of older pesticides with established residue tolerances on food.

12. Which statement about FIFRA is false?

a. Approved pesticide labels have the force of law.

b. State restrictions on pesticides can be more liberal than those of FIFRA.

c. The EPA has the authority to remove pesticide products from the market.

d. FIFRA regulates the registration and licensing of pesticide products.

13. Which is true about statements of practical treatment?

a. They are not associated with signal words.

b. All DANGER labels contain a note to physicians describing appropriate medical procedures.

c. It is not important to have the pesticide label in case of a poisoning emergency.

d.Statements about inducing vomiting are not found on the label.

*14. Which of the following sections under FIFRA exempts from registration pesticides considered to pose minimum risk?

a. Section 25 (b).

b. Section 18.

c. Section 24 (c).

d. Section 3.

15. Directions for mixing and loading a pesticide are usually found under:

a. Precautionary statements.

b. The agricultural use requirements.

c. Environmental hazards.

d.The directions for use.

*16. Which statement about pesticide label names and ingredients is true?

a. Inert ingredients are responsible for the pesticidal activity.

b. The active ingredients and the inert ingredients must be listed by chemical name.

c. The common names are those accepted officially by the manufacturer.

d. Various manufacturers use different trade names, even though the products contain the same active ingredient.

17. The active ingredient in Lorsban 75WG is listed as chlorpyrifos: 0,0-diethyl 0-(3,5,6- trichloro 2-pyridinyl) phosphorothioate. What does the term “chlorpyrifos” represent?

a. The common name.

b. The registered trade name.

c. The chemical name.

d. The brand name.

18. What is the purpose of the signal word?

a. To give the user an indication of the relative acute toxicity of the product to humans and animals.

b. Informs the user of what type of PPE to wear.

c. Informs the user of how toxic the pesticide is to wildlife and the environment.

d. Tells the user what type of first-aid treatment to seek in case of exposure.

19. Which is the pesticide formulation process by which solid particles are dispersed in a liquid?
a. Emulsion. b. ULV solvents. c. Suspension. d. Solution.

20. Which type of adjuvant increases the viscosity of spray mixtures?

a. Thickeners.

b. Plant penetrants.

c. Extenders.

d. Stickers.

21. Which dry/solid formulation is mixed in water and reduces the risk of inhalation exposure during mixing and loading?
a. Dusts (D).

b. Water-dispersable granules (WDG) or dry flowables (DF).

c. Wettable powders (WP).

d. Soluble powders (SP).

22. Which liquid pesticide formulation may approach 100 percent active ingredient?
a. Emulsifiable concentrate (EC).

b. Ultra-low volume (ULV).

c. Ready-to-use low-concentrate solutions (RTU).

d. Aerosols (A).

23. The name “Sevin 5G” on a pesticide label indicates:
a. A gel pesticide with 5 percent active ingredients.

b. A granular pesticide with 5 percent inert ingredients.

c. A gel pesticide with 5 percent inert ingredients.

d. A granular pesticide with 5 percent active ingredient