A&P 2402 Exam 4 Flashcards

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A comparison of the two major body fluid compartments reveals that:
A. two-thirds of the total fluid is outside our cells and one-third is within our cells.
B. two-thirds of the total fluid is within our cells and one-third is outside our cells.
C. half of the total fluid is within our cells and half is outside our cells.
D. six-sevenths of the total fluid is within our cells and one-seventh is outside our cells.
E. six-sevenths of the total fluid is outside our cells and one-seventh is within our cells.

B. two-thirds of the total fluid is within our cells and one-third is outside our cells


When compared to extracellular fluid, intracellular fluid contains:
A. more potassium and more negatively charged proteins.
B. more potassium but fewer negatively charged proteins.
C. less potassium but more negatively charged proteins.
D. less potassium and less negatively charged proteins.

A. more potassium and more negatively charged proteins


Fluid imbalances are more common in individuals with a _________ percentage of body fluid.
A. high
B. low

B. low


At which stage of life is the percentage of fluid in the human body highest?
A. Infancy
B. Childhood
C. Middle age
D. Advanced age

A. Infancy


Cerebrospinal fluid of the central nervous system and synovial fluid of joint capsules are both examples of:
A. intracellular fluid.
B. extracellular fluid.

B. extracellular fluid


Interstitial fluid composes about ________ of the body's extracellular fluid.
A. one-tenth
B. one-third
C. one-half
D. two-thirds
E. nine-tenths

D. two-thirds


The plasma of our blood constitutes ______ than half of the fluid in our body; plasma is part of the _____________ fluid.
A. more, intracellular
B. more, extracellular
C. less, intracellular
D. less, extracellular

D. less, extracellular


Hydrostatic pressure

is the pressure that is exerted by a fluid at equilibrium at a given point within the fluid, due to the force of gravity.


To account for their effects on osmotic pressure, the concentration of electrolytes is often expressed in:
A. moles.
B. moieties.
C. milliequivalents per liter.
D. moles per liter.
E. milliliters.

C. milliequivalents per liter


Fluid balance-

Maintaining fluid balance involves the interaction of many systems of the body


Fluid intake-

Includes ingested (performed) water in our food and drink and metabolic water that is produced within the body


Fluid output-

Includes losses when we expire air and losses, through our skin, feces, and urine.


Water lost through feces is considered ___________ water loss.
A. sensible, obligatory
B. sensible, facultative
C. insensible, obligatory
D. insensible, facultative

A. sensible, obligatory


Insensible water loss

is the amount of body fluid lost daily that is not easily measured, from the respiratory system, skin, and water in the excreted stool.


Obligatory water loss

Loss of water that always occurs, regardless of the state of hydration in the body


The thirst center of the brain is located in the:
A. hippocampus.
B. hypothalamus.
C. occipital lobe.
D. pons.

B. hypothalamus


Decreases in blood pressure turn _____ the thirst center of the brain.
A. on
B. off

A. on


Facultative water loss is loss that:
A. occurs regardless of the state of hydration of the body.
B. is controlled by hormone effects on the kidney.
C. occurs through sweating and breathing.

B. is controlled by hormone effects on the kidney


Feelings of thirstiness are brought on by:
A. increases in salivary secretions and increases in blood osmolarity.
B. increases in salivary secretions and decreases in blood osmolarity.
C. decreases in salivary secretions and increases in blood osmolarity.
D. decreases in salivary secretions and decreases in blood osmolarity.

C. decreases in salivary secretions and increases in blood osmolarity


Increases in secretion of the hormone ADH cause sodium concentration in the blood plasma to:
A. increase.
B. stay at the same level.
C. decrease.

C. decrease


Renin is released from the JG apparatus in response to:
A. high blood pressure or increased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule.
B. high blood pressure or decreased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule.
C. low blood pressure or increased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule.
D. low blood pressure or decreased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule.

D. low blood pressure or decreased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule


Aldosterone exerts effects on principal cells of the kidney by causing:
A. increased levels of cAMP and increases in the total number ofNa+ channels.
B. decreased levels of cAMP and decreases in the number of open K+ channels.
C. increased numbers of Na+/K+ pumps.
D. decreased numbers of Na+/K+ pumps.

C. increased numbers of Na+/ K+ pumps


The adrenal gland releases aldosterone in response to:
A. ANP and increased blood plasma sodium levels.
B. ANP and decreased blood plasma sodium levels.
C. angiotensin II and increased blood plasma sodium levels.
D. angiotensin II and decreased blood plasma sodium levels.

D. angiotensin II and decreased blood plasma sodium levels


Atrial natriuretic peptide causes __________ of afferent arterioles and _________ of mesangial cells.
A. constriction, contraction
B. constriction, relaxation
C. dilation, contraction
D. dilation, relaxation

D. dilation, relaxation


The stimulus that directly triggers release of ANP is:
A. decreased pressure detected by baroreceptors in the aorta and carotid arteries.
B. increased stretch of the heart atria.
C. increased saltiness in the cerebrospinal fluid bathing the hypothalamus of the brain.
D. increased saltiness of tubular fluid in the proximal convoluted tubule.

B. increased stretch of the heart arteries


The molecule HCl is an example of a(n):
A. electrolyte.
B. nonelectrolyte.
C. base.

A. electrolyte


Insulin causes blood plasma levels of potassium to ________ by _______ activity of the Na+/K+ pumps.
A. increase, stimulating
B. increase, inhibiting
C. decrease, stimulating
D. decrease, inhibiting

C. decrease, stimulating


Most potassium loss from the body occurs through:
A. sweat.
B. urine.
C. feces.
D. respiration.

B. urine


How are sodium levels and blood pressure related?
A. Increased plasma sodium levels decrease water retention, decrease blood volume, and increase blood pressure.
B. Decreased plasma sodium levels increase water retention, increase blood volume, and decrease blood pressure.
C. Increased plasma sodium levels increase water retention, blood volume, and blood pressure.
D. Decreased plasma sodium levels decrease water retention, increase blood volume, and increase blood pressure.

C. Increased plasma sodium levels increase water retention, blood volume, and blood pressure.


Calcium hardens bone and teeth, but its levels are carefully controlled throughout the body. Low levels of calcium within cells are maintained by:
A. a high number of voltage-gated and leakage channels for calcium in cell membranes.
B. frequent exocytosis and endocytosis of calcium-containing vesicles.
C. pumps that move calcium out of cells or into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
D. osmosis of large amounts of water into cells that have any calcium within them.

C. pumps that move calcium out of cells or into the sarcoplasmic reticulum



Can be classified as fixed or volatile.



Donates electrons, accepts protons, or releases hydroxide (OH-) ions in aqueous solution.


Acid-base buffer system

a chemical system that prevents a radical change in fluid pH by dampening the change in hydrogen ion concentrations in the case of excess acid or base.


The bicarbonate system is composed of H2CO3 and HCO3-. Which statement accurately describes these molecules?
A. H2CO3 and HCO3- are both weak acids.
B. H2CO3 is a weak acid, and HCO3- is a weak base.
C. H2CO3 is a weak base, and HCO3- is a weak acid.
D. H2CO3 and HCO3- are both strong bases.
E. H2CO3 is a strong base, and HCO3- is a weak acid.

B. H2CO3 is a weak acid, and HCO3- is a weak base


Phosphate system

This system uses creatine phosphate (CP) and has a very rapid rate of ATP production.


Protein buffer system

helps to maintain acidity in and around the cells. Haemoglobin makes an excellent buffer by binding to small amounts of acids in the blood, before they can alter the pH of the blood.


Carbon dioxide excretion (respiration)

The pH of body fluids may be adjusted by a change in the rate and depth of respirations, and usually takes 1 to 3 minutes to effect a change.

An increase in the rate and depth of breathing causes more carbon dioxide to be exhaled, thereby INCREASING the pH (more alkaline).

A decrease in respiration rate and depth means that less carbon dioxide is exhaled, causing the blood pH to fall (more acid).

So, the pH of body fluids affects the rate of breathing.


Hydrogen ion excretion (kidneys)

The kidneys excrete H+ and reabsorb HCO3- to aid in maintaining pH.


Chemical buffers

Help prevent pH changes within fractions of a second and include proteins, the phosphate system, and the bicarbonate system until the kidney or respiratory system can alter the blood pH through physiologic mechanisms


Fixed acids are generally regulated by physiological buffering provided by the:
A. respiratory system.
B. kidneys.
C. lymphatic system.

B. kidneys


The most common type of acid-base imbalance is:
A. metabolic acidosis.
B. metabolic alkalosis.
C. respiratory acidosis.
D. respiratory alkalosis.

C. respiratory acidosis


When bicarbonate levels fall due to an accumulation of fixed acids in the body, the result is:
A. metabolic acidosis.
B. metabolic alkalosis.
C. insufficient respiration.
D. respiratory acidosis.
E. respiratory alkalosis.

A. metabolic acidosis


Respiratory acidosis occurs when the partial pressure of:
A. oxygen rises.
B. oxygen falls.
C. carbon dioxide rises.
D. carbon dioxide falls.

C. carbon dioxide rises


An individual who consumes many antacids for stomach upset and many diuretics for high blood pressure will be at risk for metabolic:
A. acidosis.
B. alkalosis.

B. alkalosis


Elevated HCO3- levels brought about by vomiting is classified as:
A. respiratory acidosis.
B. respiratory alkalosis.
C. metabolic acidosis.
D. metabolic alkalosis.

D. metabolic alkalosis


Climbing at high altitude where oxygen levels are insufficient can lead to:
A. respiratory acidosis.
B. respiratory alkalosis.
C. metabolic acidosis.
D. metabolic alkalosis.

B. respiratory alkalosis



The process of taking food, drink, or another substance into the body by swallowing or absorbing it.



Refers to the movement of food from the mouth through the pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small and large intestines and out of the body.


Which is not a function of the digestive system?



The initial site of both mechanical and chemical digestion is the:

A. stomach

B. small intestine

C. esophagus

D. oral cavity

E. pharynx

D. oral cavity


What is the correct order for the list of structures of the large intestine, starting at the cecum and ending at the rectum?
a: Left colic flexure
b: Ascending colon
c: Transverse colon
d: Right colic flexure
e: Sigmoid colon
f: Descending colon
A. f, c, d, e, a, b
B. b, d, c, a, f, e
C. e, b, a, c, d, f
D. b, a, c, d, f, e
E. e, b, d, c, a, f

B. b,d,c,a,f,e


Which of the following is the correct order of small intestine regions that food passes through during digestion?
A. Ileum - duodenum - jejunum
B. Jejunum - duodenum - ileum
C. Duodenum - ileum - jejunum
D. Ileum - jejunum - duodenum
E. Duodenum - jejunum - ileum

E. Duodenum - jejunum - ileum


Which cranial nerves innervate the salivary glands?

VII and IX


Mechanical digestion

Physically breaking the food into smaller pieces


Chemical digestion

Involves breaking down the food into simpler nutrients that can be used by the cells



The act of taking up or in by specific chemical or molecular action; especially the passage of liquids or other substances through a surface of the body into body fluids and tissues.



The food molecules that cannot be digested or absorbed need to be eliminated from the body. The removal of indigestible wastes through the anus, in the form of feces, is defecation or elimination.


Which organ is not considered an accessory digestive organ?

A. Tongue

B. Teeth

C. Pancreas

D. Salivary glands

E. Pharynx

E. Pharynx


The lining of the gastrointestinal tract that allows for absorption and secretion is?

Simple columnar epithelium


Which organ is not part of the gastrointestinal tract?

A. Esophagus

B. Large intestine

C. Stomach

D. Oral cavity

E. Liver

E. Liver



The innermost layer, and functions in absorption and secretion. It is composed of epithelium cells and a thin connective tissue. The mucosa contains specialized goblet cells that secrete sticky mucus throughout the GI tract.



The layer of dense, irregular connective tissue or loose connective tissue that supports the mucosa, as well as joins the mucosa to the bulk of underlying smooth muscle.


Submucosal plexus

Involved with local conditions and controls local secretion, absorption, and muscle movements.



Consists of an inner circular muscular layer and a longitudinal outer muscular layer. The coordinated contractions of these layers is called peristalsis, which propels the food through the GI tract.


Myenteric plexus

The major nerve supply to the gastrointestinal tract and controls GI tract motility.



A membrane that lines an internal cavity to protect the contents and secretes serum.


"Segmentation" within the small intestine refers to the:
A. propulsion of material between the segments of the GI tract.
B. division of function between the different segments of the small intestine.
C. back-and-forth motion that mixes chyme with glandular secretions.
D. gastroileal reflex that moves materials from the stomach to the large intestine.

C. back-and-forth motion that mixes chyme with glandular secretions



A. is under voluntary control

B. involved the opening and closing of muscular sphincters

C. involves back-and-forth movement for mixing

D. is the alternating contraction of muscle layers in the GI tract wall that propels materials through the tract

E. All choices are true

D. is the alternating contraction of muscle layers in the GI tract wall that propels materials through the tract


Which list of terms progresses from the most superficial structure to the deepest?
A. Peritoneal cavity, visceral peritoneum, parietal peritonoeum
B. Parietal peritoneum, peritoneal cavity, visceral peritoneum
C. Visceral peritoneum, peritoneal cavity, parietal peritoneum
D. Visceral peritoneum, parietal peritoneum, peritoneal cavity

B. Parietal peritoneum, peritoneal cavity, visceral peritoneum


Visceral peritoneum

The inner layer, is wrapped around the internal organs that are located inside the intraperitoneal cavity.


Parietal peritoneum

The portion that lines the abdominal and pelvic cavities. Those cavities are also known as the peritoneal cavity.


Which is not a fold of peritoneum that forms a mesentery?

A. Lesser omentum

B. Falciform ligament

C. Mesentery proper

D. Mesocolon

E. Intraperitoneal ligament

E. Intraperitoneal ligament


Greater omentum

The larger of the two peritoneal folds. It consists of a double sheet of peritoneum, folded on itself so that it has four layers. The two layers of the greater omentum descend from the greater curvature of the stomach and the beginning of the duodenum.



Specialized stretch receptors located within thin areas of blood vessels and heart chambers that respond to the degree of stretch caused by the presence of blood. They send impulses to the cardiovascular center to regulate blood pressure.


If a fatty meal has been ingested, the liver and gallbladder need to be alerted about the need for bile. The receptors that are responsible for sending the fat in the ingested food are referred to as:

A. bilireceptors

B. mechanoreceptors

C. chemoreceptors

D. omental neurons

E. osmodetectors

C. chemoreceptors


Sympathetic innervation

Serves as integrating centres between the CNS and ENS for regulation of intestinal motility, blood flow, and secretion.


Parasympathetic innervation

Supplied by the vagus and pelvic nerves. The vagus innervates the upper GI tract, and the pelvic nerve innervates the lower GI tract. Parasympathetic neurons have long preganglionic fibers that synapse in ganglia in or near the target organs.


Hormonal control

Hormones control the different digestive enzymes that are secreted in the stomach and the intestine during the process of digestion and absorption. For example, the hormone gastrin stimulates stomach acid secretion in response to food intake. The hormone somatostatin stops the release of stomach acid.



Beginning of the digestive tract


What type of epithelium lines the majority of the oral canal?

A. Keratinized stratified squamous

B. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous

C. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar

D. Keratinized stratified cuboidal

E. Nonkeratinized stratified cuboidal

B. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous



Two fleshy folds that surround the mouth, are composed externally of skin and internally of mucous membrane, or mucosa. The mucosa is rich in mucus-secreting glands, which together with saliva ensure adequate lubrication for the purposes of speech and mastication.



Pushing the food around while you chew with your teeth. When you're ready to swallow, the tongue pushes a tiny bit of mushed-up food called a bolus toward the back of your throat and into the opening of your esophagus, the second part of the digestive tract.


Lingual frenulum

The fold of mucous membrane that binds each lip to the gums



They help manipulate the food and may also have taste buds on their lateral surfaces


Lingual tonsils

Located at the base of the tongue above the valleculae, which are air-filled pouches between the tongue base and the free margin of the epiglottis.


Which bones form the hard palate?

A. Palatine bones

B. Maxillae and inferior nasal conchae

C. Ethmoid and sphenoid bones

D. Palatine bones and maxillae

E. Maxillae and sphenoid

D. Palatine bones and maxillae


Soft palate

Composed of muscle and connective tissue, which give it both mobility and support. This palate is very flexible. When elevated for swallowing and sucking, it completely blocks and separates the nasal cavity and nasal portion of the pharynx.



Helps prevent fluids from passing upward into the nasal cavity.


Where are the transverse palatine folds located?

A. Soft palate

B. Glossopalatine arch

C. Hard palate

D. Pharyngopalatine arch

E. Labial frenulum

C. Hard palate


In some digestive reflexes, the facial nerve stimulates salivary glands; the salivary glands are acting as:

A. afferents

B. receptors

C. efferents

D. effectors

E. control centers

D. effectors



Contains special enzymes that help digest the starches in your food. An enzyme called amylase breaks down starches (complex carbohydrates) into sugars, which your body can more easily absorb. Saliva also contains an enzyme called lingual lipase, which breaks down fats.


Serous cells

Specialized to secrete an enzyme solution


Mucous cells

Line the surface of the stomach


An enzyme that is found within saliva is salivary:

A. pancreatase

B. nuclease

C. amylase

D. protease

E. pepsin

C. amylase


Parotid gland

Account for up to 20% of the saliva in our oral cavity. Their main role lies in facilitating mastication, or “chewing,” and in commencing the first digestive phase of our food.


Most saliva is produced by the _______ gland.

A. parotid

B. submandibular

C. sublingual

D. lingual

E. buccal

B. submandibular


Swallowing is also called?



Sublingual gland

Lie directly under the mucous membrane covering the floor of the mouth beneath the tongue


The deciduous (primary) teeth are the _____ teeth, and there are a total of____ deciduous teeth.

A. milk, 8

B. milk, 20

C. wisdom, 4

D. permanent, 20

E. permanent, 28

B. milk, 20


Which is not correct regarding teeth?

A. The primary component of teeth is dentin

B. The outer surface of enamel forms the crown of a tooth

C. The central portion of a tooth is the sinus cavity

D. The root is covered by cementum

C. The central portion of a tooth is the sinus cavity


Secondary teeth

The permanent teeth



Teeth that do the tearing and biting. Four top and four bottom teeth.


The term "canines" (cuspids) describes the teeth that:

A. are most anterior, used for slicing and cutting

B. are lateral to the incisors, used for puncturing and tearing

C. bear dental cusps for cutting and grinding

D. are only found as permanent teeth

B. are lateral to the incisors, used for puncturing and tearing



Tooth with two cusps (premolar tooth)



They have a large, flat surface with ridges that allow them to chew food and grind it up. Adults have 12 permanent molars.



Extends into the bone and holds the tooth in place. It makes up approximately two-thirds of the tooth.



The visible, outermost covering of your teeth



Layer of material that lies immediately underneath the enamel of the tooth.


Root canal

canals inside a tooth's root.



A specialized calcified substance covering the root of a tooth.


Periodontal ligament

The connective tissue that surrounds the tooth (specifically covering the cementum) and connects the tooth to the jawbone, holding it in place.


Constrictor muscles

The superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle is a muscle in the pharynx. It is the highest located muscle of the three pharyngeal constrictors. The muscle is a quadrilateral muscle, thinner and paler than the inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle and middle pharyngeal constrictor muscle.



Action or process of swallowing


Swallowing mechanism

During the oral phase, food is chewed and mixed with saliva to form a soft consistency called a bolus. The tongue then moves the bolus toward the back of the mouth.


Phases of swallowing

The preparatory/oral phase is voluntary, whereas the pharyngeal and esophageal phases are mediated by an involuntary reflex called the swallowing reflex. The neuromuscular structure and control of the oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal phases of swallowing are different.



A small rounded mass of a substance, especially of chewed food at the moment of swallowing.


The esophagus:

A. secretes digestive enzymes from its mucosa.
B. is located anterior to the trachea.
C. opens to the stomach at the pyloric sphincter.
D. contains both smooth and skeletal muscle fibers.
E. is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

D. contains both smooth and skeletal muscle fibers.


Esophageal hiatus

The opening in the diaphragm through which the esophagus passes from the thoracic to abdominal cavity.


Lower esophageal sphincter

A bundle of muscles at the low end of the esophagus, where it meets the stomach. When the LES is closed, it prevents acid and stomach contents from traveling backwards from the stomach.



A muscular organ located on the left side of the upper abdomen. The stomach receives food from the esophagus. As food reaches the end of the esophagus, it enters the stomach through a muscular valve called the lower esophageal sphincter. The stomach secretes acid and enzymes that digest food.


Muscle fibers in stomach

The middle layer is composed of circular and oblique fibres; the former, which are the more numerous, are found in the form of rings surrounding the stomach from the sphincter pylori, which they form, to the cardia.



A series of ridges produced by folding of the wall.


Regions of stomach- pylorus

The pylorus is the part of the stomach that connects to the small intestine. This region includes the pyloric sphincter, which is a thick ring of muscle that acts as a valve to control the emptying of stomach contents (chyme) into the duodenum (first part of the small intestine). The pyloric sphincter also prevents the contents of the duodenum from going back into the stomach.


Regions of stomach- antrum

The antrum is the lower part of the stomach. The antrum holds the broken-down food until it is ready to be released into the small intestine. It is sometimes called the pyloric antrum.


Regions of stomach- body

The body is the largest and main part of the stomach. This is where food is mixed and starts to break down.


Regions of stomach- Fundus

The fundus is the rounded area that lies to the left of the cardia and below the diaphragm.


Regions of stomach- Cardia

The cardia is the first part of the stomach below the esophagus. It contains the cardiac sphincter, which is a thin ring of muscle that helps to prevent stomach contents from going back up into the esophagus.


Stenosis (constriction) of the pyloric sphincter would interfere with:
A. passage of bile and pancreatic juice into the duodenum.
B. peristalsis.
C. passage of a bolus into the stomach.
D. passage of chyme into the duodenum.
E. mucus secretion.

D. passage of chyme into the duodenum


Gastric secretions

Is stimulated by the act of eating (cephalic phase) and the arrival of food in the stomach (gastric phase). Arrival of the food in the intestine also controls gastric secretion (intestinal phase). The secreted fluid contains hydrochloric acid, pepsinogen, intrinsic factor, bicarbonate, and mucus.


Gastric pits

Indentations in the stomach which denote entrances to the tubular shaped gastric glands. The human stomach has several million of these.


Gastric glands

Are responsible for the synthesis and secretion of the gastric juice. The lining epithelium of the stomach, and gastric pits is entirely made up of mucous columnar cells. These cells produce a thick coating of mucus, that protects the gastric mucosa from acid and enzymes in the lumen.


Surface mucous cells

Mucus-producing cells which cover the inside of the stomach, protecting it from the corrosive nature of gastric acid.


Mucous neck cells

Are inconspicuous epithelial cells with a typical mucous-secretory appearance. These cells are most common in the upper ("neck") region of the fundic glands


Of the five types of secretory cells in the gastric glands, which ones secrete pepsinogen?
A. Chief cells
B. Parietal cells
C. Surface mucous cells
D. Mucous neck cells
E. Enteroendocrine cells

A. Chief cells


Manufacturers of some medications used to treat heartburn advertise that their products shut down the acid-producing pumps in the stomach. Where are these "acid-producing pumps"? In other words, which type of gastric gland cell secretes acid?
A. Chief cells
B. Parietal cells
C. Mucous neck cells
D. Surface mucous cells
E. Enteroendocrine cells

B. Periatel cells


Gastric mixing changes ____ into _____

A bolus, chyme


Gastric juice

A thin, clear, virtually colorless acidic fluid secreted by the stomach glands and active in promoting digestion.


Pepsinogen is an:

A. active enzyme that is released in the small intestine and digests carbohydrates.
B. inactive precursor to the enzyme pepsin that digests proteins in the stomach.
C. active enzyme that digests proteins within the small intestine.
D. inactive precursor to a nonspecific enzyme that is synthesized in the pancreas and released in the small intestine.

B. inactive precursor to the enzyme pepsin that digests proteins in the stomach.


The enzyme pepsin becomes active when pH is:
A. high.
B. low.

B. low


Digestion of proteins is initiated by the enzyme:
A. amylase.
B. hydrochloric acid.
C. aminopeptidase.
D. pepsin.

D. pepsin


Hydrochloric acid

The water-based, or aqueous, solution of hydrogen chloride gas. It is also the main component of gastric acid, an acid produced naturally in the human stomach to help digest food.


Gastric lipase

An acidic lipase secreted by the gastric chief cells in the fundic mucosa in the stomach. It has a pH optimum of 3–6. Gastric lipase, together with lingual lipase, comprise the two acidic lipases.


Intrinsic factor

A substance secreted by the stomach which enables the body to absorb vitamin B12. It is a glycoprotein.


Which of the following is considered to be one of the primary digestive system hormones?

A. Bile

B. Gastrin

C. Hydrochloric acid

D. Pancreatic amylase

B. Gastrin


Secretin is a hormone that is secreted by the:

A. stomach

B. small intestine

C. large intestine

D. liver

E. pancreas

B. small intestine


Cholecystokinin (CCK) is a(n)_________ released by the ____________.

A. enzyme, stomach

B. enzyme, small intestine

C. enzyme, gallbladder

D. hormone, small intestine

E. hormone, gallbladder

D. hormone, small intestine


The presence of food in the stomach triggers the release of a hormone that stimulates contraction of the pyloric sphincter. Specifically, these events involve release of:
A. secretin in the cephalic phase of digestion.
B. gastrin in the gastric phase of digestion.
C. CCK in the intestinal phase of digestion.
D. lipase in the intestinal phase of digestion.
E. chyle in the secretory phase of digestion

B. gastrin in the gastric phase of digestion


Which phase of digestion involves the thought, smell, and sight of food?
A. Gastric phase
B. Cephalic phase
C. Enteric phase
D. Colic phase

B. Cephalic



The pulpy acidic fluid which passes from the stomach to the small intestine, consisting of gastric juices and partly digested food.


A. are found throughout the gastrointestinal tract.
B. generate movement of materials in the large intestine.
C. increase surface area in the small intestine.
D. contain both smooth and skeletal muscle fibers.
E. all choices are correct.

C. increase surface area in the small intestine



Microscopic cellular membrane protrusions that increase the surface area for diffusion and minimize any increase in volume, and are involved in a wide variety of functions, including absorption, secretion, cellular adhesion, and mechanotransduction.



A. are found only in the large intestine.
B. absorb the products of fat digestion.
C. secrete intestinal juice.
D. connect directly to the liver.
E. all choices are correct.

B. absorb the products of fat digestion


Circular folds

Large valvular flaps projecting into the lumen of the small intestine.


Intestinal glands

Gland found in between villi in the intestinal epithelium lining of the small intestine and large intestine (or colon).


Goblet cells

A type of intestinal mucosal epithelial cell, which serves as the primary site for nutrient digestion and mucosal absorption. The primary function of goblet cells is to synthesize and secrete mucus.


Which is not a lobe of the liver?
A. Right lobe
B. Caudate lobe
C. Round lobe
D. Quadrate lobe
E. Left lobe

C. Round lobe



Essential for digesting food and ridding your body of toxic substances.


Hepatic portal vein

A blood vessel that carries blood from the gastrointestinal tract, gallbladder, pancreas and spleen to the liver. This blood contains nutrients and toxins extracted from digested contents.


Hepatic lobule

A building block of the liver tissue, consisting of a portal triad, hepatocytes arranged in linear cords between a capillary network, and a central vein. Lobules are different from the lobes of the liver: they are the smaller divisions of the lobes.


Hepatic cells

Pericytes found in the perisinusoidal space of the liver, also known as the space of Disse (a small area between the sinusoids and hepatocytes).


At the middle of a liver lobule is a central:
A. artery.
B. arteriole.
C. vein.
D. sinusoidal capillary.
E. biliary ductule.

C. vein


What material is transported in the sinusoids of the liver?
A. Bile
B. Arterial blood
C. Venous blood
D. Mixed arterial and venous blood
E. Hepatic juice

D. Mixed arterial and venous blood


Reticuloendothelial cells

A group of cells having the ability to take up and sequester inert particles and vital dyes including macrophages and macrophage precursors, specialized endothelial cells lining the sinusoids of the liver, spleen, and bone marrow, and reticular cells of lymphatic tissue (macrophages)


Bile canaliculi (canal) are located:

A. within branches of the hepatic artery.
B. between cords of hepatocytes.
C. adjacent to the central artery of a liver lobule.
D. adjacent to the central vein of a liver lobule.

B. between cords of hepatocytes


Bile ducts

A series of thin tubes that go from the liver to the small intestine. Their major job is to move a fluid called bile from the liver and gallbladder into the small intestine, where it helps digest the fats in food.


Hepatic duct

A duct that carries bile from the liver into the common bile duct which conveys it to the duodenum (the upper part of the small intestine).


Functions of liver

To process the nutrients absorbed from the small intestine. Bile from the liver secreted into the small intestine also plays an important role in digesting fat and some vitamins.



A bitter greenish-brown alkaline fluid that aids digestion and is secreted by the liver and stored in the gallbladder.


Bile salts are:

A. amphipathic.
B. hydrophilic.
C. hydrophobic.

A. amphipathic



A small pouch that sits just under the liver. The gallbladder stores bile produced by the liver. After meals, the gallbladder is empty and flat, like a deflated balloon. Before a meal, the gallbladder may be full of bile and about the size of a small pear.


Which duct transports bile to and from the gallbladder?
A. Common bile duct
B. Pancreatic duct
C. Hepatopancreatic duct
D. Cystic duct
E. Hepatic duct

D. Cystic duct


CCK and gallbladder

Stimulates the gallbladder to contract and release stored bile into the intestine. It also stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice and may induce satiety.


Common bile duct

A tube that carries bile from the liver and the gallbladder through the pancreas and into the duodenum (the upper part of the small intestine). It is formed where the ducts from the liver and gallbladder are joined. It is part of the biliary duct system.


Regulation of bile release

The gastrointestinal hormones secretin, cholecystokinin (CCK), sulfated gastrin, and glucagon increase bile volume and inorganic ion excretion into bile, but none of them influence bile salt secretion.



The breakdown of fat globules in the duodenum into tiny droplets, which provides a larger surface area on which the enzyme pancreatic lipase can act to digest the fats into fatty acids and glycerol. Emulsification is assisted by the action of the bile salts.



Makes pancreatic juices called enzymes. These enzymes break down sugars, fats, and starches. Your pancreas also helps your digestive system by making hormones. These are chemical messengers that travel through your blood.


Acinar cells

The exocrine cells of the pancreas that produce and transport enzymes that are passed into the duodenum where they assist in the digestion of food. Islets of Langerhans.


Pancreatic duct

Is a duct joining the pancreas to the common bile duct to supply pancreatic juice provided from the exocrine pancreas, which aids in digestion.


Amylase from saliva digests:



Which is an accurate description of glucose and sucrose?
A. Glucose is a monosaccharide, sucrose is a polysaccharide, both molecules are starches.
B. Glucose is a monosaccharide, sucrose is a disaccharide, both molecules are carbohydrates.
C. Glucose is a disaccharide, sucrose is a monosaccharide, both molecules are lipids.
D. Glucose is a disaccharide, sucrose is a glycolipid, both molecules are essential nutrients.
E. Glucose is a monoamine, sucrose is a dipeptide, both molecules are acidic.

B. Glucose is a monosaccharide, sucrose is a disaccharide, both molecules are carbohydrates.


Stenosis (constriction) of the hepatopancreatic ampulla would interfere with:
A. the transport of bile and pancreatic juice.
B. the secretion of mucus.
C. the passage of chyme into the small intestine.
D. peristalsis.
E. salivary gland secretion.

A. the transport of bile and pancreatic juice.


Hepatopancreatic sphincter

Is a muscular valve that in some animals, including humans, controls the flow of digestive juices (bile and pancreatic juice) through the ampulla of Vater into the second part of the duodenum.


Vagus nerve activity ________ release of pancreatic juice.
A. stimulates
B. inhibits

A. stimulates


Pancreatic amylase

Released through the pancreatic duct into the first part of the small intestine, where it helps break down dietary carbohydrates. Amylase is usually present in the blood and urine in small quantities. When cells in the pancreas are injured, increased amounts of amylase are released into the blood.


Pancreatic lipase

Secreted by pancreatic acinar cells, complete fat digestion in the proximal small intestine. Of the known pancreatic lipases, pancreatic triglyceride lipase (PTL), the archetype of the lipase family, is clearly essential for the efficient digestion of dietary triglycerides.



Digest dietary proteins to allow absorption of amino acids. Other processes mediated by proteases include blood coagulation, immune function, maturation of prohormones, bone formation, programmed cell death and the recycling of cellular proteins that are no longer needed.



Digestive enzymes that break nucleic acids like DNA and RNA into nucleotides, which are the building blocks of the nucleic acids. When these nucleotides reach the ileum -- the last section of the small intestine -- they are further digested into sugars, bases and phosphates.


CCK and pancreas

CCK stimulates pancreatic secretion through hormonal and neuronal pathways. CCK is released from I cells of the small intestine and diffuses into the blood stream where it is carried to the pancreas. CCK binds to receptors on acinar cells to stimulate pancreatic enzyme secretion.


Bicarbonate ion

It acts as a buffer to break down and dilute the acidic content and increases the pH of the chyme.


Regulation of small intestine secretions

Largely regulated through local reflexes which sense irritation due to the presence of chyme within the intestine.


Absorption in small intestines

Refers to the movement of nutrients, water and electrolytes from the lumen of the small intestine into the cell, then into the blood. In this article, we will look at the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates, protein and lipids.


Which region of the digestive tract moves material by peristalsis, haustral churning, and mass movement?
A. Large intestine
B. Small intestine
C. Stomach
D. Esophagus
E. Pharynx

A. Large intestine


Colon (4 regions)

The colon consists of four parts: descending colon, ascending colon, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon.



Pouch within the peritoneum that is considered to be the beginning of the large intestine. It is typically located on the right side of the body (the same side of the body as the appendix, to which it is joined).


Vermiform appendix

Helps in the proper movement and removal of waste matter in the digestive system, contains lymphatic vessels that regulate pathogens, and lastly, might even produce early defences that prevent deadly diseases.



A chamber that begins at the end of the large intestine, immediately following the sigmoid colon, and ends at the anus


Anal canal

Is the terminal segment of the large intestine, between the rectum and anus, located below the level of the pelvic diaphragm. It is located within the anal triangle of the perineum, between the right and left ischioanal fossa.



The opening at the end of the alimentary canal through which solid waste matter leaves the body.


Internal anal sphincter

A thickened extension of the circular smooth muscle layer surrounding the colon and is generally considered responsible for maintaining approximately 70% of resting tone, ensuring that the anal canal is closed at rest.


External anal sphincter

Composed of skeletal muscle that functions like other postural muscles in the body. It is a voluntary muscle that responds to volitional commands to contract and maintain continence when feces are propelled through a relaxed internal anal sphincter into the rectum.


Teniae coli

Contracts length wise to produce the haustra, the bulges in the colon. The bands converge at the root of the vermiform appendix and the rectum. These bands correspond to the outer layer of the muscularis externa, in other portions of the digestive tract.



Refer to the small segmented pouches of bowel separated by the haustral folds. They are formed by circumferential contraction of the inner muscular layer of the colon. The outer longitudinal muscular layer is organized into three bands (taeniae coli) which run from the cecum to the rectum.


What is the primary function of the large intestine?
A. Storage of vitamins and minerals
B. Protein digestion and nutrient absorption
C. Water and electrolyte absorption
D. Secretion of water, salts, sodium bicarbonate, and enzymes
E. None of the choices is correctD.

C. Water and electrolyte absorption


Bacteria within the large intestine are called:
A. indigenous macrobiota.
B. indigenous microbiota.
C. exogenous macrobiota.
D. exogenous microbiota.

B. Indigenous microbiota


Which region of the digestive tract moves material by peristalsis, haustral churning, and mass movement?
A. Large intestine
B. Small intestine
C. Stomach
D. Esophagus
E. Pharynx

A. Large intestine



Waste matter discharged from the bowels after food has been digested; excrement


Defecation reflex

Occurs when the internal anal sphincter relaxes and the external anal sphincter contracts. The rectoanal inhibitory reflex (RAIR) is an involuntary internal anal sphincter relaxation in response to rectal distention. After the defecation reflex is triggered, you can either delay or defecate.


Digestion of carbohydrates within the small intestine involves enzymes that come from the:
a: mouth.
b: stomach.
c: pancreas.
d: lining of the small intestine.

A. a, b
B. b, c
C. c, d
D. a, d
E. a, b, c, d

C. c,d


Protein digestion begins in the ______.

A. stomach.
B. mouth.
C. esophagus.
D. small intestine.
E. large intestine.

A. stomach



A substance that is normally produced in the pancreas and released into the small intestine. Trypsinogen is converted to trypsin. Then it starts the process needed to break down proteins into their building blocks (called amino acids).



Is an enzyme that helps us digest protein. In the small intestine, trypsin breaks down proteins, continuing the process of digestion that began in the stomach. It may also be referred to as a proteolytic enzyme, or proteinase. Trypsin is produced by the pancreas in an inactive form called trypsinogen.



A digestive enzyme which breaks down proteins in the small intestine. It is secreted by the pancreas and converted into an active form by trypsin.


Carboxypeptidase is an enzyme that helps digest:
A. amino acids within the stomach.
B. complex carbohydrates within the small intestine.
C. peptides within the small intestine.
D. disaccharides within the duodenum.
E. starch within the stomach.

C. peptides within the small intestine



Used to describe any enzyme that is capable of catalyzing the hydrolysis of a protein substrate and breaking it down into smaller polypeptides or amino acids. These proteins are also often referred to as protease or proteinase. Peptidases are a key component of a number of common biological functions.



Aids in the breakdown of sucrose (table sugar) into glucose and fructose, which are used by the body as fuel.



An enzyme, present in saliva and pancreatic juice, that catalyzes the breakdown of maltose and similar sugars to form glucose.


Lactose intolerant individuals cannot digest the _________ lactose because they lack the enzyme _________.
A. polysaccharide, maltase
B. disaccharide, lactase
C. monosaccharide, dextrolactase
D. lipid, pancreatic lipase
E. fatty acid, sucrolactase

B. disaccharide, lactase


Lipid digestion

In the stomach, gastric lipase starts to break down triglycerides into diglycerides and fatty acids. Within two to four hours after eating a meal, roughly 30 percent of the triglycerides are converted to diglycerides and fatty acids.



A pancreatic enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of fats to fatty acids and glycerol or other alcohols.


Lipid absorption

Involves hydrolysis of dietary fat in the lumen of the intestine followed by the uptake of hydrolyzed products by enterocytes. Lipids are re-synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum and are either secreted with chylomicrons and high density lipoproteins or stored as cytoplasmic lipid droplets.



Known as ultra low-density lipoproteins (ULDL), are lipoprotein particles that consist of triglycerides (85–92%), phospholipids (6–12%), cholesterol (1–3%), and proteins (1–2%).


Nucleic acids are digested within the:
A. mouth.
B. stomach.
C. small intestine.
D. pancreas.
E. large intestine.

C. small intestine



The study of nutrients in food, how the body uses them, and the relationship between diet, health, and disease.



A substance that provides nourishment essential for growth and the maintenance of life.



Your body needs these nutrients in larger amounts in order to function properly as macro means large. In addition, all of these nutrients provide your body with energy measured in the form of calories or kcals. There are three types of macronutrients: carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.



They include vitamins and minerals. Vitamins are necessary for energy production, immune function, blood clotting and other functions. Meanwhile, minerals play an important role in growth, bone health, fluid balance and several other processes.


Recommended daily allowances were established by the Food and Nutrition board as directed by the:
A. largest food-producing companies.
B. National Academy of Sciences.

B. National Academy of Sciences


Recommended daily allowances established by the Food and Nutrition Board are based on:A. individual needs and factor in sex, age, and body mass.
B. averages obtained from population studies.

B. averages obtained from population studies



A unit of energy defined as the amount of heat needed to raise a quantity of water by one degree of temperature.



The chemical processes that occur within a living organism in order to maintain life.


Essential nutrients

The six essential nutrients are vitamins, minerals, protein, fats, water, and carbohydrates.


Nonessential nutrients

can be synthesized by the human body, so they need not be obtained directly from food. Macronutrients are nutrients that are needed in relatively large amounts. They include carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and water. All macronutrients except water provide energy, which is measured in Calories.


Carbohydrates include:

Disaccharides, milk, cellulose


Excesses of carbohydrates

Places a large metabolic load on the body. When the body constantly has high levels of blood sugars (the end point of food sugar and starch) to deal with over time, this leads to weight gain, poor metabolic health and an increased risk of heart disease.


Deficiencies of carbohydrates

Your body can store extra carbohydrates in your muscles and liver for use when you're not getting enough carbohydrates in your diet. A carbohydrate-deficient diet may cause headaches, fatigue, weakness, difficulty concentrating, nausea, constipation, bad breath and vitamin and mineral deficiencies.


Carbohydrate sources

Bread, beans, milk, popcorn, potatoe, cookies, spaghetti, soft drinks, corn, and cherry pie. They also come in a variety of forms.


Carbohydrate utilization

Begins when the cell or organism detects carbohydrate levels, includes the activation of genes whose products detect, transport or metabolize carbohydrates, and ends when the carbohydrate is incorporated into the cell or organism's metabolism.


Poly-, di-, and monosaccharides

Mono- one sugar unit

Di- two sugar units

Poly- multiple sugar units



A substance deposited in bodily tissues as a store of carbohydrates. It is a polysaccharide which forms glucose on hydrolysis.


In response to the increased availability of nutrients during the absorptive state, liver and muscle:
A. increase glycogenesis.
B. increase gluconeogenesis.
C. decrease amino acid uptake.
D. all of the choices are correct.

A. increase glycogenesis


If more glucose is consumed than is needed, the glucose can be:
A. converted to an essential amino acid so that protein synthesis can increase.
B. converted to acetyl CoA that is then used to synthesize triglycerides for storage.
C. broken down to 2 NADH molecules that can enter the citric acid cycle.
D. deaminated by the liver and sent to the kidney for excretion in the urine.

B. converted to acetyl CoA that is then used to synthesize triglycerides for storage


When glucose enters the metabolic pathway of cellular respiration it:
A. is converted into acetyl CoA.
B. binds to oxaloacetic acid and forms citric acid.
C. is oxidized to two pyruvate molecules.
D. forms the coenzyme NADH.

C. is oxidized to two pyruvate molecules


Lipids include:

Triglycerides and steroids


Gram for gram, the largest amount of energy can be stored in the body in the form of:
A. vitamins.
B. steroids.
C. triglycerides.
D. monosaccharides.
E. polysaccharides.

C. triglycerides


Saturated fats

Are saturated with hydrogen molecules and contain only single bonds between carbon molecules.


Unsaturated fats

Typically comes from plant sources such as olives, nuts, or seeds – but unsaturated fat is also present in fish. Unsaturated fat are usually called oils. Unlike saturated fat, these oils contain mostly monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fat.



A waxy, fat-like substance that's found in all the cells in your body. Your body needs some cholesterol to make hormones, vitamin D, and substances that help you digest foods. Your body makes all the cholesterol it needs.


Excesses of lipids

Can cause fat deposits in your artery walls, increasing your risk for heart disease.


Deficiencies of lipids

May not have enough enzymes to break down lipids.


Lipid sources

Triacylglycerols (also known as triglycerides) make up more than 95 percent of lipids in the diet and are commonly found in fried foods, vegetable oil, butter, whole milk, cheese, cream cheese, and some meats. Naturally occurring triacylglycerols are found in many foods, including avocados, olives, corn, and nuts.


Lipid utilization

The synthesis and degradation of lipids in cells, involving the breakdown or storage of fats for energy and the synthesis of structural and functional lipids, such as those involved in the construction of cell membranes. ... Other types of lipids found in the body are fatty acids and membrane lipids.



A colorless, sweet, viscous liquid formed as a byproduct in soap manufacture. It is used as an emollient and laxative, and for making explosives and antifreeze.


When fatty acids are metabolized for cellular respiration, the first step involves breaking two carbons off the chain at a time to form acetyl CoA molecules. Acetyl CoA then:
A. undergoes glycolysis.
B. enters the citric acid cycle.
C. begins the electron transport chain.
D. is converted to pyruvate and lactate.

B. enters the citric acid cycle


Essential fatty acids

Only two fatty acids are known to be essential for humans: alpha-linolenic acid (an omega-3 fatty acid) and linoleic acid (an omega-6 fatty acid).


High density lipoproteins (HDLs) are associated with the transport of lipid from the:
A. liver to peripheral tissues.
B. peripheral tissues to the liver.

B. peripheral tissues to the liver


How do low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) move into cells?
A. LDLs diffuse through channels in the membrane.
B. LDLs are engulfed through receptor-mediated endocytosis.
C. LDLs diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer.
D. LDLs are transported through a pump that is also an ATPase.

B. LDLs are engulfed through receptor-mediated endocytosis


Compared to other types of lipoproteins, very-low-density lipoproteins contain the _______ lipid.
A. most
B. least

A. most


Beta oxidation is a step in the synthesis of cholesterol that involves:
A. closing of a linear fatty acid chain into a steroid loop.
B. breakdown of fatty acids into two-carbon units to form acetyl CoA.
C. synthesis of bile salts from precursor lipids.
D. absorption of micelles from the small intestine.

B. breakdown of fatty acids into two-carbon units to form acetyl CoA



is composed of amino acids, which are organic compounds made of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen or sulfur. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, and proteins are the building blocks of muscle mass.


Excesses of proteins

Consumed is usually stored as fat, while the surplus of amino acids is excreted. This can lead to weight gain over time, especially if you consume too many calories while trying to increase your protein intake.


Deficiencies of proteins

Too little protein may cause changes in body composition that develop over a long period of time, such as muscle wasting. The most severe form of protein deficiency is known as kwashiorkor. It most often occurs in children in developing countries where famine and imbalanced diets are common.


Protein sources

Lean meats, poultry, fish and seafood, eggs, and dairy products


Protein utilization

Is the ratio of amino acid mass converted to proteins to the mass of amino acids supplied. This figure is somewhat affected by the salvage of essential amino acids within the body, but is profoundly affected by the level of limiting amino acids within a foodstuff.


Amino acids

Are organic compounds that combine to form proteins. Amino acids and proteins are the building blocks of life. When proteins are digested or broken down, amino acids are left. The human body uses amino acids to make proteins to help the body: Break down food.


Essential amino acids

cannot be made by the body. As a result, they must come from food. The 9 essential amino acids are: histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine.


Complete proteins

Have all the essential amino acids our bodies need. Animal-based protein like meat, poultry, fish, eggs, milk, and cheese are considered complete proteins. Quinoa and soy are plant-based complete proteins.


Incomplete proteins

Is one that does not contain all nine of those essential amino acids. Beans, specific nuts, and tofu are a couple examples of incomplete protein sources, so eating those foods alone for protein will not give you all of the amino acids your body needs.


Positive nitrogen balance describes a condition where:
A. an individual's nitrogen input is equal to its loss in urine and feces.
B. an individual absorbs more nitrogen than is excreted.
C. an individual's nitrogen intake is greater than phosphate intake.
D. too many proteins are being ingested in the diet.
E. a food has a positive effect on blood nitrogen levels.

B. an individual absorbs more nitrogen than is excreted


Negative nitrogen balance is commonly seen in individuals who:
A. are pregnant or growing.
B. have lost blood or are malnourished.

B. have lost blood or are malnourished


Basal metabolic rate (BMR)

Is the number of calories required to keep your body functioning at rest. BMR is also known as your body's metabolism; therefore, any increase to your metabolic weight, such as exercise, will increase your BMR. To get your BMR, simply input your height, gender, age and weight below.


Positive energy balance

Occurs when your energy input is greater than your energy output. That is, you eat more calories than your body uses. Your body stores excess energy or calories as fat. This results in weight gain.


Negative energy balance

Weight loss occurs when you create a negative energy balance. That is, you burn more calories than you consume. When this imbalance occurs, your body burns stored energy (fat) in order to function and you lose weight. 7 A negative energy balance is sometimes called a calorie deficit.


Body mass index (BMI)

A value derived from the mass (weight) and height of a person.



Above a weight considered normal or desirable.



The condition of being grossly fat or overweight.



Have different jobs—helping you resist infections, keeping your nerves healthy, and helping your body get energy from food or your blood to clot properly. By following the Dietary Guidelines, you will get enough of most of these vitamins from food.


Vitamin fallacies

Vitamin C functions


Vitamins A, D, E, and K are:
A. fat-soluble.
B. water-soluble.

A. fat-soluble


Which type of vitamins will be absorbed from the intestine into lacteals (lymphatic capillaries)?
A. Fat-soluble
B. Water-soluble

A. Fat-soluble


The visual pigment rhodopsin contains retinal, which is synthesized from its vitamin ____ precursor.
A. A
B. B12
C. C
D. D
E. E

A. Vitamin A


Vitamin D

The function of it- to maintain normal blood levels of calcium and phosphorus. Vitamin D aids in the absorption of calcium, helping to form and maintain strong bones.


Vitamin E

The function of it- is a fat-soluble nutrient found in many foods. In the body, it acts as an antioxidant, helping to protect cells from the damage caused by free radicals. Free radicals are compounds formed when our bodies convert the food we eat into energy.


Vitamin K is known to be essential for synthesis of:
A. visual photopsins.
B. blood clotting proteins.
C. calciferol.
D. stable cell membranes.
E. collagen.

B. blood clotting proteins


Sources of fat-soluble vitamins

Kale, liver, spinach, parsley, butter, egg yolks


Water-soluble vitamins

Include ascorbic acid (vitamin C), thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, vitamin B6 (pyridoxine, pyridoxal, and pyridoxamine), folacin, vitamin B12, biotin, and pantothenic acid.


Vitamin B complex (8 different B vitamins)

Any of a group of substances (the vitamin B complex ) which are essential for the working of certain enzymes in the body and, although not chemically related, are generally found together in the same foods. They include thiamine ( vitamin B1 ), riboflavin ( vitamin B2 ), pyridoxine ( vitamin B6 ), and cyanocobalamin ( vitamin B12 ).


Vitamin C is a:
A. fat-soluble, essential vitamin.
B. fat-soluble, nonessential vitamin.
C. water-soluble, essential vitamin.
D. water-soluble, nonessential vitamin.

C. water-soluble, essential vitamin


Sources of water-soluble vitamins

These vitamins can be easily destroyed or washed out during food storage and preparation. The B-complex group is found in a variety of foods: cereal grains, meat, poultry, eggs, fish, milk, legumes and fresh vegetables. Citrus fruits, peppers, strawberries, kiwis, and broccoli are good sources of vitamin C.


Inorganic ions such as sodium and potassium are:
A. vitamins.
B. essential amino acids.
C. minerals.
D. trace carbohydrates.

C. minerals


Sources of minerals

Meat, cereals, fish, milk and dairy foods, fruit and vegetables, and nuts.


Calcium, chlorine, and cobalt are all examples of _______ minerals.
A. major
B. trace
C. fat-soluble
D. nonessential

A. major


In addition to its functions in the skeleton, calcium is important for:
A. the electron transport chain within red blood cells.
B. the production of thyroid hormone.
C. blood clotting and neurotransmitter release.
D. protein synthesis and wound healing.

C. blood clotting and neurotransmitter release



The main function of phosphorus is in the formation of bones and teeth. It plays an important role in how the body uses carbohydrates and fats. It is also needed for the body to make protein for the growth, maintenance, and repair of cells and tissues.



A mineral that your body needs to work properly. It is a type of electrolyte. It helps your nerves to function and muscles to contract. It helps your heartbeat stay regular.



to control blood pressure and blood volume. Your body also needs sodium for your muscles and nerves to work properly.


Trace elements

A chemical element present only in minute amounts in a particular sample or environment.


Iron is considered a:
A. major mineral, because it has a crucial physiological role.
B. trace mineral, because less than 100 milligrams are required daily in the diet.
C. major mineral, because it is extremely abundant in the Earth.
D. trace mineral, because it is rare on the Earth.

B. trace mineral, because less than 100 milligrams are required daily in the diet


Iodine is an example of a(n):
A. essential amino acid.
B. vitamin.
C. mineral.
D. nitrogenous base.

C. mineral



Essential for the maintenance and solidification of our bones and prevents dental decay.


MyPlate depicts fruits and vegetables occupying _______ of the plate.
A. one-tenth
B. one-fourth
C. one-half
D. nine-tenths

C. one-half


In 2011, the USDA created ________ to replace the food pyramid.
B. the Food and Nutrition Board
C. MyPlate
D. NutritionFacts

C. MyPlate


Insulin causes adipose tissue to:
A. stimulate lipolysis and inhibit lipogenesis.
B. inhibit lipolysis and stimulate lipogenesis.
C. stimulate both lipolysis and lipogenesis.
D. stimulate lipolysis and gluconeogenesis.

B. inhibits lipolysis and stimulate lipogenesis


What effect does glucagon have on protein metabolism?
A. It directly stimulates catabolism of proteins.
B. It stimulates the buildup of proteins from amino acids.
C. It increases absorption of amino acids in the intestine.
D. It has no effect on body proteins.

D. It has no effect on body proteins


Primary malnutrition

Refers to malnutrition which is caused by inadequate energy intake. This condition often occurs in relation to food insecurity or when adequate food is not available (in terms of total calories or specific micronutrients).


Secondary malnutrition

Results from an underlying disease that compromises growth directly or through its deleterious effect on appetite or the absorption of nutrients.



Suffering or death caused by hunger.


Anorexia nervosa

Characterized by weight loss and self-starvation. There is a fear of gaining weight and body dysmorphia is common.



An emotional disorder involving distortion of body image and an obsessive desire to lose weight, in which bouts of extreme overeating are followed by depression and self-induced vomiting, purging, or fasting.



A form of malnutrition. It happens when the intake of nutrients and energy is too low for a person's needs. It leads to wasting, or the loss of body fat and muscle. A child with marasmus may not grow as children usually do.



A form of severe protein malnutrition characterized by edema and an enlarged liver with fatty infiltrates. It is caused by sufficient calorie intake, but with insufficient protein consumption, which distinguishes it from marasmus. Kwashiorkor cases occur in areas of famine or poor food supply.


In general, the greater the surface area of the skin, the ________ the basal metabolic rate.
A. higher
B. lower

A. lower


Vigorous physical activity causes total metabolic rate to:
A. increase for the duration of the exercise.
B. increase during the exercise and for hours afterwards.
C. remain constant.
D. decrease to conserve energy during the exercise but increase to repay oxygen debt.
E. decrease during the exercise and for hours afterwards.

B. increase during the exercise and for hours afterwards


When an individual is exposed to cold temperatures, total metabolic rate:
A. decreases.
B. increases.
C. remains constant.

B. increases


Metabolic rate can be measured with a respirometer that measures:
A. water content of the breath in order to directly measure the products of cellular respiration.
B. water content of the breath in order to indirectly measure the products of cellular respiration.
C. temperature of the expired air in order to measure the rate of the sum of all reactions within the body.
D. oxygen consumption in order to indirectly measure heat production and energy expenditure.
E. temperatures of carbon dioxide and oxygen to determine how much the body warmed the respiratory gas.

D. oxygen consumption in order to indirectly measure heat production and energy expenditure.


Metabolic rate is a measurement of the:
A. total number of calories consumed per hour.
B. amount of oxygen consumed per kilogram of body weight.
C. energy used in a given period of time.
D. heat given off by contracting muscles.

C. energy used in a given period of time