Surgical Technology Level 3 FINAL
Which of the following is NOT one of the five stages of normal bone healing?
Which of the following are types of Fractures?
Pathological, stellate, Pott's
Which of the following is the largest and most complex of the synovial joints?
Which ligament originates from the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia and extends to the lateral condyle of the femur?
An example of an amphiarthrosis is/are the?
Which cells have the ability to synthesize and resorb bone matrix?
A fracture at the distal end of the radius in which the smaller fragment is displaced posteriorly is called a ?
At its distal end, the tibia expands to form a prominence on the inner ankle called the?
What semisolid tissue, found in the spaces of cancellous bone does not typically produce red blood cells?
Which of the following is the method used for the repair of a ruptured Achilles tendon?
Krackow whip stitch
Which of the following articulates with the head of the femur?
Which bone articulates with the glenoid cavity to form the shoulder joint?
The end of which bone articulates with the manubrium?
Which of the following articulates with the distal clavicle and provides attachments for the muscles of the arms and chest?
Which of the following statements is NOT an indication for ORIF?
Closed reduction with immobilization of the fracture
Which of the following bones is/are considered flat bones?
The initial step in the body's normal repair of a fracture involves?
Which type of fracture is complete and results in several bony fragments?
Which of the following is NOT an indication for pathological bone growth?
Cortical bone is a hard, dense bone that is composed of circular rings of bone matrix is called
What is the standard method of treatment for a femoral shaft fracture?
Which type of joint only allows movement in one plane?
Bone grafts are usually taken from the?
Which of the following instruments would NOT commonly be used to harvest a bone graft?
Manipulating bone fracture fragments into alignment without incising the skin is called?
Which of the following is a clinical sign and symptom of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Paresthesia of the fingers
Which of the following is the correct sequence of surgical instruments for the insertion of a bone screw?
Drill, measure, tap, screw
Which type of casting material is durable, lightweight, and strong?
Which of the following statements is true?
Surgical implant information including number, type, and size is recorded
Which of the following muscles is NOT a part of the rotator cuff?
What is the primary reason for performing a total joint arthroplasty?
Degenerative joint disease
Which of the following is NOT a form of traction?
How many components are implanted during a total knee arthroplasty?
A patient is scheduled for an anterior cruciate ligament repair. The surgeon plans to use the patient's patellar tendon. This is an example of which type of graft?
What is the correct surgical position for a total hip arthroplasty?
Which of the following best describes the skin prep for a rotator cuff repair?
Entire arm circumferentially and shoulder to mandibular border and bilateral as far as possible
Which of the following pieces of equipment would NOT typically be used during a total knee arthroscopy?
To turn the palm of the hand upward
The dense membrane that surrounds the bone, outer layer, must be removed to saw
Act of bending a joint
A painful, inflammatory joint disease that involves the synovium in the joint
Movement of a body part towards the midline
Surgical fixation or fusion of a joint of bone with graft material
To turn the palm of the hand downward
Lining inside of the medullary canal
Degenerative joint disease that is from wear and tear of repetitive motion
Shaft of the long bone
Spongy type of bone found at the end of long bones that contain marrow
Portion of an extremity or vessel that is farthest from the center of the body
Area of the bone that is the growth plate
Inflammation of the bone caused by infectious organisms
Portion of an extremity or vessel that is closest to the center of the body
Hard dense bone that is on the outer and central part of a long bone
Dense connective tissue that is particularly at the joint surfaces
Moving a body part away from the midline
A closed system of blood vessels that transports blood away from the heart to the body's tissues and back to the heart refers to the
Peripheral vascular system
Microscopic vessels designed to exchange nutrients and waste between blood and tissue fluid around the cells are known as?
Which of the following accurately describes the layers of an artery from inner to outer layers?
Tunica intima, tunica media, tunica adventitia
All of the following statements accurately describes the characteristics of a vein EXCEPT:
Veins carry oxygenated blood away from the heart
Which blood vessel(s) provide(s) the myocardium with oxygenated blood?
Of the following, which is NOT one of the three major branches of the aortic arch?
Right subclavian artery
The abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebrae into the
Right and left common iliac arteries
Which arteries supply the pelvis and perineum with blood?
Which blood vessels supply the neck and head outside of the skull with blood?
Which blood vessels communicate with the basilar artery to form the circle of Willis?
Which blood vessels supply blood to the spinal cord and its meninges?
Which veins receive blood from the brain, meninges, and deeper regions of the face and neck?
Which veins travel along the lateral side of the arm from the hand to the shoulder, eventually emptying into the axillary veins?
Which is the longest vein in the body?
Claudication refers to
Which of the following statements regarding arterial embolism is FALSE?
The formation of emboli may result from underlying peripheral vascular disease
All of the following statements regarding abdominal aneurysms are false EXCEPT?
Aneurysms are generally fusiform and involve the circumference of the artery
All of the following statements regarding endarterectomy are false EXCEPT:
Transient cerebral ischemia is the primary indication of stenosis
Which graft requires pre-clotting by the surgical team?
For an aortofemoral bypass. which statement would be FALSE?
The patient will be prepped from the axilla to mid-thigh
Delicate polypropylene sutures should be tagged with
Vascular clamps may include all of the following EXCEPT:
Typical suture gauge for a femoral vascular anastomosis is
Which procedure would include prepping from mid-abdomen to the toes, with the affected leg prepped circumferentially?
Considering acute arterial occlusion, which of the following is NOT one of the 4 P's considered in diagnosis?
Which choice indicates the correct sequence of events for clamping of vessels prior to an arteriotomy?
Heparinize pt, apply proximal clamps, apply distal clamp, incise vessel
Which procedure could possibly necessitate the use of a Javid shunt?
Which vessels must be clamped during a carotid endarterectomy?
Common carotid, external carotid, and internal carotid arteries
Which instrument is an arteriotomy initiated?
#11 blade on #7 handle
All of the following statements are TRUE regarding peripheral vessel angioplasty EXCEPT?
The most common approach is via the common iliac arteries
Which graft material CAN be safely used in the popliteal space?
Which incisional approach would be best for the repair of AAA?
The surgical excision of a dilated portion of the aortic wall with immediate reconstruction using a synthetic graft is known as a/an?
Total absence of myocardial contraction is known as
Among the drugs commonly used during vascular surgery, the drug that nutralizes, or acts as an antagonist against, the action of heparin is?
The purpose of femoropopliteal bypass is to?
Restore blood flow in the distal femoral artery
All of the following statements are false regarding the positioning of the patient about to undergo a carotid endarterectomy EXCEPT:
The patient should be placed in supine position with the head turned away from the operative side
From which vessel is the clamp removed LAST during a carotid endarterectomy?
Internal carotid artery
Which suture type is appropriate for closing an arteriotomy?
All of the following statements are true regarding supplies required for peripheral vascular surgery EXCEPT:
A Doppler probe can be used to dilate vessels
All of the following statements are true regarding supplies required for peripheral vascular surgery EXCEPT:
A Doppler probe can be used to dilate vessels
All of the following statements regarding diagnostic evaluation of peripheral vascular patients are true EXCEPT:
Doppler probe evaluates the severity of vascular disease
Which artery supplies the upper portion of the digestive tube. the spleen, and the liver?
Considering the surgical procedure for repair of AAA, on which vessel(s) is an arteriotomy performed to facilitate anastomosis of the graft?
Common iliac arteries
A Fogarty balloon catheter is used for
Which medication is added in injectable saline for intra-arterial irrigation during vascular procedures?
Considering a carotid endarterectomy procedure, after the vessel is dissected free from surrounding tissue, the surgeon will want to ____ the artery and will ask for a _____.
Identify, right angle
An iliac artery obstruction is most commonly bypassed with a/an?
The angioplasty catheter with a balloon is inserted into which vessel for peripheral vessel angioplasty?
All of the following statements are true concerning arteriovenous shunt and fistula EXCEPT?
Levels are monitored to measure if the shunt is clearing creatinine from the blood
All of the following statements concerning IVC filter placement are true EXCEPT?
Filter is placed secondary to varicose veins that have become dilated
Which structure is referred to as the "pacemaker of the heart?"
Sinoatrial (SA) node
Which portion of the heart receives the unoxygenated blood?
Which portion of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the pulmonary artery?
Which portion of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the aorta?
Dysrhythmia can result in all of the following pathologic conditions EXCEPT:
The pulmonary veins empty into the?
The valve between the left atrium and ventricles is the?
The valve between the right atrium and ventricle is the?
Which structure is attached to the valvular cusps and prevents valves from swinging back into the artia?
With the body at rest, the average heart rate is approximately 72 BPM and the parasympathetic nervous system is in control describes what?
Which structure prevents the trachea from collapsing and blocking the airway?
What is the name of the area between the visceral and parietal pleura that contains serous fluid?
Which of the following is NOT a complication of MI, as a result of CAD?
The primary bronchus divides into
The microscopic air sacs clustered at the ends of the bronchiole, which provides surface area for the exchange of 02 and c02 are the?
The main bronchi, pulmonary arteries, veins, and lymphatic vessels enter the lungs on the medial surface through the?
The right lung is divided into how many lobes?
The heart is surrounded by the?
The cardiac cycle refers to the events taking place during a?
Which of the following defines the term systole?
Which division of the nervous system is responsible for slowing the heart rate?
What is the most common congenital deformity of the chest wall?
What medial term refers to the abnormal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity?
Which of the following statements, regarding types of aneurysms, is FALSE?
Saccular aneurysms involve the entire circumference of an artery
An abnormal opening in the wall between the right and left ventricles of the heart is known as a/an?
ventricular septal defect
Which of the following pediatric procedures requires the use of cardiopulmonary bypass?
Atrial septal defect repair
Which of the following is NOT considered a sterile procedure?
Which of the following statements is TRUE for a thoracoscopy?
Biopsy of the mediastinal lymph node can be achieved
Which patient position is used most often for intrathoracic procedures, for example, a lobectomy?
Which intercostal space is typically entered for a thoracotomy?
Which piece of equipment assumes the role of the heart and lungs while undergoing cardiopulmonary bypass?
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a venting cannula placed during a cardiopulmonary bypass?
A cannula is placed in the right ventricle
Which of the following techniques does NOT protect the heart from damage during a cardiopulmonary bypass?
Which mechanical device is NOT designed for circulatory support after cardiac procedures?
Into which portion of the heart is the cannula placed to achieve venous cannulation for cardiopulmonary bypass?
Which solution or drug is NOT to be used during a coronary artery bypass grafting?
Which of the following procedures is NOT a treatment method for the repair of the mitral valve?
De Vega annuloplasty
Which of the following statements is FALSE for tetralogy of Fallot?
Patient does not undergo cardiopulmonary bypass
Which of the following is NOT the result of atherosclerosis?
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding dysrhythmia?
Maybe the result of alteration of circulation
Which primary muscles are associated with inspiration?
Diaphragm and external intercostals
Which covering is not attached to the heart itself?
Which of the following is the procedure in which a prosthetic ring is implanted to correct a mitral valve whose leaflet edges do not properly come together?
Which of the following is a cyanotic congenital heart defect?
tetralogy of Gallot
Which of the following is NOT a type of aortic valve replacement?
Which of the following is not a part of the renal tubule?
The functional unit of the kidney, or nephron is composed of which two basic units?
Renal tubules and renal corpuscles
The medial border of the kidney, where the renal blood vessels, is called the?
Which outer portion of the kidney contains the glomeruli?
What is the name of the fibrous capsule that surrounds both the suprarenal glands and the kidneys?
Which muscle is responsible for emptying the bladder and closing the bladder orifice?
Which important clinical landmark is marked by the ureteral and urethral orifices?
The portion of the skin covering the distal base of the penis that forms a free fold is the?
The proximal portion of the male urethra is the?
Which portion of the male reproductive system can be found passing through the spermatic cord and eventually conducting semen into the prostatic urethra?
Ductus (vas) deferens
Which disorder is marked by multiple fluid-filled benign cysts in the parenchyma of the kidneys?
Polycystic kidney disease
Which congenital condition is marked by the absence of the anterior wall of the urethra?
Which blood test can indicate the possibility of prostatic cancer?
Which diagnostic tool involves the use of an intravenous contrast medium and radiological films to view the urological system?
Which extraperitoneal incision option can be used to access the lower portion of the ureter?
Which incision option required the patient to be placed in the lateral position?
Which of the following statements regarding nephrectomy is FALSE?
Radical nephrectomy involves excision of the kidney only
Which surgical procedure involves diverting urine flow through an isolated loop of bowel?
Which of the following statements regarding instrumentation for transurethral procedures is FALSE?
The scope is introduced through the male or female ureter
Which incisional approach is preferred for a radical orchiectomy?
Which statement regarding radioactive seed implantation in the prostate gland is FALSE?
Seed implantation utilizes a resectoscope with loop electrode
Which of the following sutures would be appropriate to secure the catheter during suprapubic cystostomy?
Mild stress incontinence in women can be reduced or eliminated with which of the following treatment options?
Colporrhaphy, MMK procedure, and pubovaginal sling
The procedure involving the removal of only the testis and the epididymis is?
Which of the following surgical procedures utilizes sutures placed in the anterior vaginal wall and secured to the posterior symphysis or Cooper's ligament?
What surgical instrument is used for dissection of enlarged prostate tissue during a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)?
Why is the left kidney sometimes preferred for donation for transplantation?
The renal vein is longer than the right kidney
Which of the following statements regarding the female urethra is FALSE?
Urethra is approximately 20 cm in length
Which of the following statements regarding bladder tumors is FALSE?
Malignant tumors may be removed transurethrally
Which of the following statements for circumcision is FALSE?
Can lead to infection or pain during erection
Which of the following statements for an orchiectomy is FALSE?
The scrotum can be closed with staples
Which of the following statements is FALSE for a prostatectomy?
Open prostatectomy may be used for small adenomas
Which is the medical term for having the condition of kidney stones?
Kidney transplant surgery may entail all of the following procedural steps EXCEPT?
Procedure similar to radical nephrectomy
Which of the following statements regarding prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is FALSE?
Used in conjunction with retrograde pyelogram for diagnosis
Presence of blood in urine
Enlarged fluid-filled sac within the scrotum
Developmental anomaly where male urethra opens on the ventral side of the penis
Retraction of prepuce which causes painful swelling of the glans
Twisting of testes; painful emergency
Enlarged veins of the spermatic cord
Congenital condition of absence of anterior wall of the urethra
What is the definition of co-morbidity?
Disease or disorder in addition to the primary reason the patient is being treated
Name three things the surgical technologist can do in an attempt to meet surgical patient needs?
- introduce yourself in a professional way
- Explain everything you are going to do to the patient
- Speak calmly to surgical staff and patient
What type of diabetes would a patient be diagnosed with if the patient's pancreas produced little or no insulin and as a result, the patient requires daily doses of insulin?
Type 1 diabetes
Describe three methods of monitoring specific to pediatric patients in the OR?
- Temperature can be done rectally or tympanically
- Monitoring urine output this is done by a collection bag
- Oxygen this can be done by pulse oximetry
Should not be administered to newborns because there is an increased risk of staining and hypoplasia of tooth enamel
What is the number 1 cause of death in children and give two examples?
Trauma is the # 1 cause of death this can occur from MVAs and drowning accidents
Name two special consideration specific to obese surgical patients?
- There is an increased risk of degenerative osteoarthritis of the back, hips, and knees
- There is an increased risk of wound infections
Name two special considerations to pregnant surgical patients?
- The vital signs can be altered with an increase in heart rate and decrease in blood pressure
- Abdominal organs can be displaced
Patient self-determination act
This act started in 1990, it states that patients have the opportunity to participate in any decision making an advance of a procedure. Patients must be informed of their rights to choose the type of care and how much care the patient gets. They get to choose who they want to have as their power of attorney and what they put in their living will
Name the 5 stages of grief and explain how these reaction apply to any form of personal loss
- These steps do not necessarily come in a specific order but patients will experience at least two of these 5 reactions
Name and contrast the 2 classifications of death
Clinical death is the cessation of the heartbeat and breathing while biological death is the cessation of brain activity
The Practice of terminating life in a painless way in order to prevent the patient from suffering in life
The dr speeds up the process of dying, there is
- Voluntary: the patient initiates death and involuntary which means the patients rights were violated
Act of withholding any life-preserving treatments from the patient
Name two situations in which a pregnant patient would undergo an immediate operative intervention for an emergency?
Ectopic pregnancy and incompetent cervix
Name two patient co-morbidities in which the patient would be considered immunocompromised?
- Someone who as an autoimmune disease such as lupus, multiple sclerosis or RA
- Someone who has AIDS
First trimester of pregnancy
Increased risk of spontaneous abortion
Two intraoperative patient care considerations that would be given specifically to a diabetic surgical patient ?
- IV access to administer fluids to the patient and insulin, monitoring the blood sugar with a glucometer and providing TEDS and SCDS to the patient
The most common type of shock know for pediatric patients it is usually caused by a gram-negative bacteria. It is caused by reduced circulating blood volume. The treatment consists of fluid replacement, colloid solutions and broad-spectrum antibiotics
The most common cause if dehydration the most common symptom is bradycardia and results in decreased venous return decreased cardiac output lactic acidosis and bad tissue perfusion. Treatment consists of fluid and blood replacement with hypotonic NACL solutions
What is Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
All needs must be met in the order they come in the order is, psychological needs, safety needs, love and belonging needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization
Written instructions telling the patients wishes about the type and amount of medical treatment to be used in the event that the patient can no longer make decisions for themselves.