A& P 2 exam 2 review

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1

Normal average blood pressure for a newborn baby is ________.

90/55

2

Which structural layer of blood vessels is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure?

tunica media

3

The aorta receives the full force of blood exiting the heart during ventricular systole. Which of the following statements best describes the adaptive anatomy of the aorta?

Elastic fibers are extensive in the tunica media of the aorta and dampen the pulse pressure generated by the heart.

4

Histologically, the ________ is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer.

tunica intima

5

Vessels that carry blood away from the heart and are named by the organs they supply (renal) are _________.

muscular arteries

6

Which statement best describes arteries?

All carry blood away from the heart.

7

Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as resistance vessels?

The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter.

8

Due to the branching of arteries the type of arteries that would be most numerous would be ________.

arterioles

9

In red bone marrow newly formed blood cells enter the circulation. You would expect to see many ________ type of capillaries in red bone marrow.

sinusoid

10

Which of the following statements is NOT true of the precapillary sphincters?

They decrease the osmotic pressure in the thoroughfare channel.

11

Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of ________.

capillaries

12

The beginning of a true capillary is surrounded by a precapillary sphincter. The opening and closing of precapillary sphincters is controlled by ________.

local chemical conditions

13

Which of the following is NOT true regarding fenestrated capillaries?

Fenestrated capillaries form the blood-brain barrier.

14

These capillaries may be lined with phagocytes that can extend their process into the plasma to catch "prey."

sinusoids

15

Which blood vessels lack elastic tissue?

capillaries and venules

16

Factors that aid venous return include all EXCEPT ________.

urinary output

17

Blood flow is ________ proportional to the difference in blood pressure. Blood flow is ________ proportional to the total peripheral resistance.

directly; inversely

18

The influence of blood vessel diameter on total peripheral resistance is ________.

significant because resistance is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the vessel radius

19

Which of the following is the most significant source of blood flow resistance?

blood vessel diameter

20

Atherosclerosis causes elastic arteries to become less stretchy. How does this affect pulse pressure?

Pulse pressure is chronically increased.

21

Which of the following does NOT contribute to venous blood pressure?

venous anastomoses

22

The pulse pressure is ________.

systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure

23

The pulse rate depends on all of the following except one. Select the one answer the does NOT affect a pulse rate reading.

the vessel selected to palpate

24

If a person were to have substantial blood loss, you would expect to see all of the following physiological events to happen EXCEPT one. Select the least likely response to substantial blood loss.

decreased heart rate

25

During a marathon which of the following hormones is least likely to be released by the runner?

atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

26

Which of the following would NOT be expected from taking a diuretic drug?

greater stress on the heart to provide adequate perfusion

27

A person suddenly gaining significant amounts of adipose tissue can expect all of the following physiological changes except one. Which of the following is least likely to occur with a sudden and significant gain in adipose tissue?

lower heart rate and reduced blood flow

28

The release of which hormone is most likely to cause a reduction in blood volume and pressure?

atrial natriuretic peptide

29

Which will NOT occur if blood pressure drops below homeostatic levels?

Baroreceptors in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch will be stimulated.

30

Each of the following describes the action of aldosterone except one. Which of the following does NOT describe the activity of aldosterone hormone?

It will result in higher sodium levels in the urine.

31

Which of the following signs of hypovolemic shock is a relatively late sign?

rapidly falling blood pressure

32

Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise?

Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood.

33

Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure?

renal regulation

34

Total peripheral resistance ________.

increases as blood viscosity increases

35

Which of the following is a type of circulatory shock?

vascular, due to extreme vasodilation as a result of loss of vasomotor tone

36

The form of circulatory shock known as hypovolemic shock is ________.

shock that results from large-scale loss of blood volume, or after severe vomiting or diarrhea

37

Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension?

170/96

38

Select the correct statement about factors that influence blood pressure.

Excess red cell production would cause a blood pressure increase.

39

Mechanisms that do NOT help regulate blood pressure include ________.

the dural sinus reflex

40

The velocity of blood flow is ________

slowest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest

41

Select the correct statement about blood flow.

Blood flow through the entire vascular system is proportional to cardiac output.

42

A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes EXCEPT ________.

decreased size of the heart muscle

43

The short-term controls of blood pressure, mediated by the nervous system and bloodborne chemicals, primarily operate via all but which of the following?

altering blood volume

44

Secondary hypertension can be caused by ________.

kidney disease

45

If a person has lost a significant amount of blood but still maintains a normal blood pressure it does not necessarily mean that the person is maintaining adequate perfusion. Which of the following best explains why this is so?

Blood vessels are constricting causing greater peripheral resistance.

46

The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following?

changes in arterial pressure

47

Which of the following is most likely to occur in the arteriovenous shuts present in the blood vessels of the finger tips and toes?

Colder temperatures will result in vasoconstriction in the arteriovenous shuts.

48

Brain blood flow autoregulation ________.

is abolished when abnormally high CO2 levels persist

49

Blood flow to the skin ________.

increases when environmental temperature rises

50

Cerebral blood flow is regulated by ________.

intrinsic autoregulatory mechanisms

51

Where in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high levels causing vasodilation?

lungs

52

Which of the following would NOT result in the dilation of the feeder arterioles and opening of the precapillary sphincters in systemic capillary beds?

a local increase in pH

53

Arteriolar blood pressure increases in response to all but which of the following?

falling blood volume

54

Reduction in the concentration of albumin in blood plasma would alter capillary exchange by ________.

decreasing colloid osmotic pressure and edema will occur

55

In general, it is expected that ________.

hydrostatic pressure will drop as blood moves away from the arteriole end of the capillary bed

56

In general, it is expected that ________.

osmotic pressure will remain relatively consistent throughout the capillary bed

57

The velocity of blood is slowest in the capillaries and pressure of blood is lowest in the veins. Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of the benefits of slow, low pressure blood in the capillary beds?

Lower pressure in the capillary bed helps to increase pressure in the venous circulation.

58

Which of the choices below reflects the balance (or imbalance) between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls?

hydrostatic and osmotic pressure

59

Which of the following statements regarding the hepatic portal system is false?

It branches off of the inferior vena cava.

60

Which of the following contain oxygenated blood?

pulmonary veins

61

The abdominal aorta splits into which vessels?

right and left common iliac arteries

62

The term ductus venosus refers to ________.

a special fetal vessel that allows umbilical blood to bypass the liver

63

Which of the following is least involved in pulmonary circulation?

superior vena cava

64

A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the ________.

right side of the head and neck and right upper arm

65

What do the ductus arteriosus and the foramen ovale become at birth?

ligamentum arteriosum; fossa ovalis

66

Which of the following correctly describes the pathway of lymph?

lymphatic capillaries to lymphatic vessels to lymphatic trunks to lymphatic ducts

67

Lymph traveling from the left arm would enter the venous circulation via the _______.

thoracic duct

68

Which of the following is NOT a part of the lymphatic system?

erythrocytes

69

Lymph vessels do NOT transport ________.

erythrocytes

70

When the lymphatic structures of a limb are blocked due to tumors, the result is ________.

severe localized edema distal to the blockage of that limb

71

Select the correct statement about lymph transport.

Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.

72

Lymphatic capillaries are present in ________.

digestive organs

73

Which of the following is NOT a method that maintains lymph flow?

capillary smooth muscle contraction

74

Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?

transporting respiratory gases

75

From the right leg, lymph moves in which order?

right lumbar trunk, thoracic duct, left subclavian vein

76

Lymphatic ________ are formed from the union of the largest collecting lymphatic vessels.

trunks

77

Fats absorbed from the small intestine are transported to the bloodstream via ________.

lacteals

78

Which of the following would NOT be classified as a lymphoid organ?

pancreas

79

The lymphatic capillaries are ________.

more permeable than blood capillaries

80

Select the correct statement about lymphocytes.

B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.

81

Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue.

Lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue.

82

Which of the following is considered a primary lymphoid organ?

thymus

83

Although B and T lymphocytes originate in the bone marrow, T cells mature in the ________.

thymus

84

Small secondary lymphoid organs, which cluster along lymphatic vessels, are termed ________.

lymph nodes

85

Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________.

efferent lymphatic vessels

86

What is a bubo?

an infected lymph node

87

Large clusters of lymph nodes are NOT found in the ________ region.

popliteal

88

Flow of lymph through a lymph node is slowed due to ________.

fewer efferent vessels draining it compared to many afferent vessels feeding it

89

Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ________.

plasma cells

90

Functions of the spleen include all of those below EXCEPT ________.

forming crypts that trap bacteria

91

Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen?

produce new erythrocytes in adults

92

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the spleen?

Red pulp is where immune functions take place.

93

Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) ________.

tonsil

94

Which of the following structures is NOT considered mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)?

thymus

95

Peyer's patches are found in the distal portion of the ________.

small intestine

96

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

islets of Langerhans

97

The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________.

lingual tonsils

98

Tonsils have blind-ended structures called ________ that trap bacteria and particulate matter.

tonsillar crypts

99

Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is FALSE?

It has follicles similar to those in the spleen.

100

The thymus is most active during ________.

childhood

101

The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does NOT ________.

directly fight antigens

102

Which lymphoid organs and tissues are characterized by a cortex and medulla?

lymph nodes and thymus only

103

Which lymphoid organ atrophies as we age?

thymus

104

The blood testis barrier is to newly formed sperm cells as the blood thymus barrier is to ________.

T lymphocyte precursors

105

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

The thymus consists mainly of lymphoid tissue.

106

Which lymphoid organ or tissue lacks a reticular fiber stroma?

thymus

107

Tears and mucus membranes would be a part of which defense system?

innate external defenses

108

Phagocytotic cells such as macrophages identify a variety of enemies by recognizing markers unique to pathogens. They would be classified as which type of defense system?

innate internal defenses

109

What cells make antibodies?

plasma B cells

110

What is the name of the unique area (specific region) that a lymphocyte recognizes and binds to?

an antigenic determinant

111

What type of immunity can be transferred by bodily fluids from one person to another, thus conferring immunity to the recipient?

humoral immunity

112

If a virus attacks a cell, which type of immunity would be activated?

cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)

113

Cancer cells would be attacked by which of the following cells?

Cytotoxic T cells

114

What is the role of helper T cells in the adaptive immune response?

Helper T cells activate B cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes to kill infected host cells.

115

What is meant by the clonal expansion of a B cell?

An activated B cell divides into cells that give rise to memory B cells and plasma cells

116

The student who caught the cold caused by this specific Rhinovirus was exposed to the exact same Rhinovirus 18 months later. What component of the immune system will protect her from getting the same cold again?

Memory B cells

117

Which of the following is NOT a step used by cytotoxic T cells to kill infected host cells?

Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein

118

Place the following steps of phagocytosis in the order that they occur:

Chemotaxis. phagocyte is attracted or called towards infection.

Adherence. phagocyte attaches to microbe.

Ingestion. microbe is engulfed in "phagosome"

Phagolysosome formation. lysosome adds digestive chemicals.

Killing. ...

Elimination.

119

Dendritic cell engulfs Rhinovirus

Epitopes are attached to MHC-II

120

Digestion of the Rhinovirus

MHC-II plus the attached epitope move to the outside of the dendritic cell

121

Which pair of molecules do NOT directly interact with one another?

BCR and TCR

122

Which of the following is NOT a step that ultimately leads to antibody production?

Activation of cytotoxic T cells by helper T cells

123

A person who has AIDS contracts rare and often life-threatening infections because their helper T cell count is so low. Which of the following components of the immune response still respond to antigen despite the low helper T cell count?

Clonal selection of B cells

124

Which of the following statements is true?

Adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity

125

Which of the following is not an antigen-presenting cells (APC)?

T-cell

126

Which of the following cells engulf antigens by phagocytosis and present fragments of them on their own surfaces for recognition?

dendritic cells

127

Which cells secrete histamines that trigger inflammatory pathways?

mast cells

128

Which of the following is an effect of complement activation?

opsonization

129

Class II MHC proteins are found on which of the following cell types?

antigen-presenting cells

130

Which class of MHC proteins presents exogenous antigens?

class II MHC proteins

131

Class I MHC proteins are recognized by which of the following cell types (that are destined to become T cells)?

CD8

132

Which of the following types of cells display protein fragments produced by the cancer within them?

all nucleated cells

133

Which major class of lymphocytes become cytotoxic T cells?

CD8 cells

134

T cells achieve self-tolerance in the __________.

thymus

135

Which of the following are NOT appropriately matched?

helper T cells: destroy infected body cells

136

Activated CD8 T cells become __________.

cytotoxic T cells

137

A recent measles outbreak in your community has sparked interest in antibody testing to determine which patients are immune, which are at risk for infection, and which patients actually have measles. Which patient status and lab values are incorrectly matched?

Never immunized and ill with measles for 3 days: IgG +/ IgM -

138

Your patient is living with HIV infection and has not developed AIDS. She knows that her CD4 count is carefully monitored, and she asks why this test is important. How would you explain the role of CD4 cells?

"CD4 cells are special lymphocytes (white blood cells) that activate other immune cells and direct your body's response to invaders."

139

Your clinical instructor wants a brief description of the four cardinal signs of inflammation. What would you tell him?

The heat and redness are caused by increased blood flow to the infected areas, and the pain and swelling are caused by excessive leakage of fluid from the capillaries into the infected area.

140

Which of the following would be a component of the body's first line of defense?

mucous membranes

141

A cellular component of the innate defenses includes ________.

natural killer cells

142

All of the following are true of the classical pathway of complement activation except one. Select the one answer that does NOT describe the classical pathway of complement activation.

It activates T helper cells by presenting antigen to them.

143

Inflammation ________.

brings more leukocytes to the site of infection

144

Membrane attack complex (MAC) kills by ________.

disrupting the selective permeability of a bacteria's plasma membrane

145

All but one of the following occurs during the inflammatory response. Select the example below that does NOT describe the process of inflammation.

Vasoconstriction prevents excessive blood loss due to injury.

146

During inflammation, fluids will passively diffuse out of blood vessels into the nearby infected tissues. This implies all of the following EXCEPT ________.

B-lymphocytes will differentiate to become plasma cells

147

Which of the following is NOT a function of the inflammatory response?

replaces injured tissues with connective tissue

148

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________.

vasodilation

149

Which of the following is NOT a role of activated complement?

prevention of immediate hypersensitivity reactions

150

Interferons ________.

interfere with viral replication within cells

151

Activated T cells and macrophages release ________ to mobilize immune cells and attract other leukocytes into the area.

cytokines

152

Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by ________.

natural killer cells

153

Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed ________.

opsonization

154

Innate immune system defenses include ________.

phagocytosis

155

Phagocyte mobilization involves ________.

mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas

156

Fever ________.

production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting

157

Natural killer (NK) cells ________.

can kill cancer cells before the adaptive immune system is activated

158

Which of the following is activated by the binding of proteins to sugars on the surface of microorganisms?

lectin pathway

159

What is the role of interferon in defense against disease?

protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses

160

Which of the following is true of antigens?

Antigens are substances that activate the adaptive immune response.

161

Which of the following is true of incomplete antigens (haptens)?

Incomplete antigens are only immunogenic when attached to protein carriers.

162

Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called ________.

haptens

163

Which of the statements below does NOT describe antigens?

Antigens only come from microbes.

164

Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens?

reactivity with an antibody

165

Select the correct statement about antigens.

One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

166

Without the positive selection process in lymphocyte maturation ________.

T cells would not be able to properly bind to APC's and therefore not be activated by them

167

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.

bone marrow

168

Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement?

After becoming immunocompetent, the naive T cells and B cells are exported to the bone marrow where the encounters with antigens occur.

169

A vaccine is effective because ________.

the secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient than the primary response

170

A flu vaccine is needed seasonally to be effective but a polio vaccine is only needed once. The best explanation of this is ________.

the flu has several strains that change seasonally

171

Vaccines work by ________.

priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure

172

Plasma cells ________.

have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum reflecting the fact that they secrete a tremendous amount of protein (antibody)

173

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

174

In clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned?

antigen

175

B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by ________.

producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells

176

Monoclonal antibodies are used for the diagnosis of all of the following EXCEPT ________.

elevated blood glucose

177

Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity.

Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies

178

Clonal selection of B cells ________.

results in the formation of plasma cells

179

The primary immune response ________.

has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells

180

Antibody functions include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

cross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched

181

Which immunoglobulin class is the most abundant antibody in plasma?

IgG

182

An advantage to adaptive immunity is ________.

its memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second and subsequent exposure to an antigen

183

B lymphocytes are categorized as part of the adaptive branch of the immune system for all of the following reason but one. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons B lymphocytes are considered part of the adaptive immunity?

They are a first line of defense that can begin killing pathogens immediately.

184

T cells are differentiated into two groups based on their glycoproteins: CD4 or CD8. Which of the following is true of CD4 T cells?

They become T helper cells

185

Which of the following is NOT a type of T cell?

antigenic

186

Which of the following statements regarding NK cells is a false or incorrect statement?

NK cells are a type of neutrophil.

187

Regulatory T cells ________.

may function in preventing autoimmune reactions

188

T-cell activation requires ________.

antigen binding and co-stimulation

189

Which of the following statements is incorrect or false?

Class II MHC molecules appear only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells, thymic cells, and T cells that have been activated by exposure to antigens.

190

Immunocompetence ________.

s the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it

191

Cytotoxic T cells ________.

can directly attack and kill other cells of the body

192

T helper cells ________.

function in the adaptive immune system activation

193

Tissue rejection after an organ transplant is least likely due to the action of _________

regulatory T cells

194

Which statement is true about T cells?

Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2.

195

Which of the following examples below describes an autoimmune disease?

Antibody binding to acetylcholine receptors of the motor end plate resulting in muscle weakness.

196

Allergens differ from antigens because ________.

allergens produce an abnormally large immune response to what is an otherwise harmless particle

197

Immediate and subacute hypersensitivities are caused by ________ that trigger the release of _________.

antibodies; histamine

198

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for the development of autoimmune disorders?

a second exposure to an allergen