Vet Pharmacy Exam 1
A pharmacist with an increased interest and knowledge base of veterinary medicine, thus enabling an enhanced ability to prepare prescriptions and advise veterinary clients of the medications they are administering to their animals is known as a what?
A specialized degree beyond that of the pharmacy degree in which the pharmacist focuses on veterinary pharmacy is known as what?
Veterinary pharmacy specialist
When is a vet pharmacy specialist degree obtained?
after completing 1 year residency (@ vet teaching hospital under the supervision of Board Certified Vet Clinical pharmacists)
What are the only 2 residencies in the U.S. being offered for vet pharmacy specialist?
- NC State
- UC Davis Colleges of Veterinary Medicine
Vet pharmacy specialist residency programs culminates with board certification by the what?
◦Society of Veterinary Hospital Pharmacists (SVHP)
What letters are added at the end of you name after completing a vet pharmacy residency?
◦DICVP (Diplomate of the International College of Veterinary Pharmacy)
Which species division of vet medicine is associated with companion/pet animals (dogs/cats)?
Small animal (can also encompass exotics)
Which species division of vet medicine relates to small mammals, reptiles, amphibians, and birds?
Which species division of vet medicine is associated with large/small ruminants?
Large animal/food animal
Which species division of vet pharmacy involves horses?
Which species division of vet medicine involves small and large animal practice?
Mixed animal practice
What are some other unique species divisions of vet medicine?
- Zoo and aquarium
What is the number one resource for animal health drugs and drug doses?
Plumb's Veterinary Drug Handbook (most current edition)
SID is a vet med abbreviation that means what?
q 24 hours/ once daily
SubQ admin in animals is used frequently for what in small animal medicine?
- drug admin
- fluid admin for rehydration
In small animals, SubQ admin is typically given in what area?
IM admin is used most frequently in which animal medicine?
large animal medicine
What is essential with IV vet drug admin?
What are the factors that influence the route of admin in animals?
- Age/size of animal
- Species of animal
- tractability of patient
- disease state
What are agents that kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms?
Antibacterial agents are otherwise known as what?
The ability to kill an invading organism without harming the cells of the host is known as what?
Selective antimicrobial therapy takes advantage of the biochemical differences that exist between what?
microorganisms and animal cells
Selective toxicity is typically what?
The concentration of the drug must be carefully controlled to be successful in attacking the organism while still being safely tolerated by the host refers to selective toxicity being relative, as opposed to what?
What is the range of organisms against which an antibiotic is known to be effective?
In the case of what medications, the drug works on a wide number of organisms?
Drugs on a what work only against specific families?
Most of the time, antibiotic selection is what?
Ideally, we would like to use which spectrum classes whenever possible to specifically target a single organism?
Many times we are confronted with what kind of infection (more than one type of bacteria present)?
What is the most frequently used antibiotic susceptibility test?
Kirby-Bauer (disk diffusion method)
What is an in vitro test that measures the lowest concentration of a drug that inhibits visible growth (CFUs) throughout the 18-20 hour incubation period?
MIC (Minimum inhibitory concentration)
A Vet's responsibility is to control and eradicate what?
The appropriate use of antibiotics for food animals so as to limit the risk of transfer of WHAT to humans and to avoid the emergence of new strains of resistant bacteria?
The following bullets describe what?
- research and assess the potential risk to humans resulting from antibiotic use in food-producing animals
- develop microbial safety policies and regulatory tools to protect the public health
Center for Veterinary Medicine at the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
The administration of antimicrobial drugs to a patient to prevent establishment of infection in previously un-infected tissue is known as what?
What are some examples of antimicrobial prophylaxis?
- Dental Procedures
- Immuno -compromised Patients
- Urinary Catheter-Associated Infections
- Prosthetic Devices
In regards to antimicrobial prophylaxis, bactericidal concentrations of the drug should be present in the tissue of interest before WHAT occurs?
List examples of quinolones/fluoroquinolones used in vet med:
What is the brand name of Enrofloxacin?
What is the brand name of Marbofloxacin?
What is the brand name of Orbifloxacin?
What is the brand name of Ciprofloxacin?
Quinolones/fluoroquinolones have rapid oral absorption, broad-spectrum, and rapidly bactericidal, therefore making them a what?
Quinolones/fluoroquinolones have what?
wide tissue distribution
Do fluoroquinolones/quinolones have a narrow or wide tissue distribution?
wide tissue distribution
Quinolones/fluoroquinolones have long half-lives, concentration dependent, permitting what dosing?
SID (daily dosing/ q 24 hours)
Quinolones/fluoroquinolones are associated with what toxicities?
- CNS toxicity
Quinolones/fluorouinolones are associated with CNS toxicity; increased frequency and intensity of what in dogs?
Extralabel use of quinolones/fluoroquinolones is prohibited among which animals?
food producing animals
Erosion of articular cartilage, “bubbles” in developing cartilage is known as what?
Chondrotoxicity is rapidly growing in juveniles. Especially what type of animal?
Quinolones/fluroroquinolones should be avoided in small-medium breed K9s until what age?
Quinolones/fluroroquinolones should be avoided in large breed K9s until what age?
The use of quinolones/fluoroquinolones can result in occulotoxicity. Especially among what animals?
Should doses of fluoroquinolones/quinolones be kept high or low in cats?
Low (can cause blindness)
The use of tetracyclines can cause what in teeth and bones?
Chelate calcium (especially in utero formation- causes yellow/brown discoloration and delays/impairs fracture healing)
Which tetracycline causes esophageal stricture in cats?
Oral dosing of tetracyclines may disrupt what?
microflora (rumen in ruminants; colonic flora in horses)
Chloramphenicol can cause what?
- Dose-related bone marrow suppression
- Non-dose related aplastic anemia
Owners who dose their pets chloramphenicol should do what?
Chloramphenicol should 100% not be used in which animals?
food animals (banned in U.S.)
What is the only cloramphenicol derivative approved for use in food animals?
Which animals are at highest risk for KCS with the use of Sulfas?
Which animals is immune mediated disease most common in with the use of sulfas?
large breed dogs
Prolonged use of sulfas can cause folic acid deficiency in what animals?
Sulfas can cause interference with the synthesis of what?
Hepatotoxicity from the use of sulfas is more common among which animals?
large breed dogs
The use of sulfas can result in what condition, especially with inadequate water intake?
Metronidazole has what type of activity?
Does metronidazole have rapid or slow absorption (IV and PO)?
Does metronidazole have narrow or wide tissue distributions?
- can penetrate BBB
- can attain therapeutic concentrations in pus
Metronidazole has what effect on gut tissues?
What is a member of a large group of eukaryotic organisms that includes microorganisms such as yeasts and molds, as well as the more familiar mushrooms?
The ability to kill an invading organism without harming the cells of the host is known as what?
Since fungal and animal cells are both WHAT, their biochemistry is more similar (as compared to bacteria), so toxicities pose a higher threat and the selection of antifungal agents is more limited?
WHAT therapy takes advantage of the biochemical differences that exist between fungal and animal cells?
selective antimicrobial therapy
What is an obligate intracellular parasite – utilizes host’s metabolic machinery to replicate?
Do antiviral drugs have a wide or narrow therapeutic index?
narrow (inhibits host cell metabolism)
Which drug is used as an analgesic, narcotic, perioperative pain, epidural, chronic cancer pain?
Fentanyl comes in what main form?
Transdermal patch (Duragesic)
Fentanyl patch requires how long before analgesic relief is reached?
Can fentanyl patches be cut?
Is fentanyl also used IV?
Which drug is a partial opiate agonist?
Buprenorphine can be given sublingually and buccal admin has been shown to be well tolerated and effective among which animals?
Which receptors assoc. w/ opioids are found primarily in the pain regulating areas of the brain?
What is a common SE of opioids?
Which animals may exhibit contradictory effects, ex. Excitement and defecation when using opioids?
Do we see a dependency or addiction among opioids in animals?
ALL opiates should be used in caution in:
- geriatric or severely debilitated patients
- head injuries or increased intracranial pressure
- acute abdominal conditions (ex. Colic)
- adrenocortical insufficiency (Addison’s disease)
- pre-existing respiratory problems
- Severe renal (kidney) insufficiency
Opioid reversal for overdosage is used with what drug in animals?
Naloxone (injectable opioid antagonist)
Cutaneous fungal infections involving the cornified regions of hair, nails, and occasionally the superficial layers of the skin is known as what?
Is Ringworm zoonotic?
Ringworm is a ubiquitous fungus, but it's incidence is higher in which regions?
hot and humid regions
Ringworm grows where?
What is the incubation period of Ringworm?
What is the best means of confirming the diagnosis of Ringworm; Wood’s Lamp fluorescence not ideal?
Fungal culture (DTM)
What is a practical and relatively effective environmental decontamination for Ringworm?
Bleach dilution (1:10)
What are some drugs used to treat Ringworm?
- Ketoconazole (off-label)
- Itraconazole (fewer SE)
- topical therapy and clipping
In addition to antifungal properties, imidazoles also possess WHAT activity?
List some examples of imidazoles:
Is metronidazole considered an -azole?
Potassium iodide is used for the treatment of what?
Potassium iodide is the gold standard for what form of sporotrichosis?
Is the MOA known for potassium iodide for antifungal action?
Griseofulvin is used to treat what?
Fulvicin (Griseofulvin) is given orally for how long to treat Ringworm?
vAbsorption increased by WHAT and microsized and ultramicrosized particle preparations?
Griseofulvin should be avoided in animals with what?
Griseofulvin is teratogenic and is contraindicated in pregnant animals. Especially which animals?
- mares (horses)
- queens (cats)
The use of Griseofulvin can cause leukopenia and anemia (low white and red blood cell counts) in which animals?
Griseofulvin is NOT approved for which animal use?
Antivirals must inhibit viral replication without destroying host cell. This is known as what?
Antivirals have limited use in vet med due to significant what?
Early viral infection diagnosis necessary, as most viral replication has occurred by the time clinical diagnosis made. This suggests that viruses have what spectra of activity?
narrow spectra of activity
Feline herpes, also known as feline viral rhinopneumonitis (FVR), rhinotracheitis virus and feline herpesvirus type 1 (FHV-1), is one of the most common causes of upper respiratory infections which animals?
Is herpes virus highly contagious or not?
Yes, can spread easily (cats sharing litter boxes, food and water dishes, etc.)
Some cats who become infected with feline herpes can pass the virus on to others without displaying symptoms. They are referred to as what?
Latent carriers of feline herpes spread the virus how?
Stress causes shedding of virus (cats exhibit mild symptoms that clear up in a few days)
Which antiviral is used for the topical for treatment of herpesvirus keratitis (cornea) and dermatitis (skin)?
Idoxuridine (ophthalmic drops 1% or compounded ointment 0.5%)
Which antiviral is used for the treatment of Herpesvirus keratitis?
Trifluridine (ophthalmic drops 1%)
Which antivirals are used in the treatment of Herpesvirus: ophthalmic, topical, IV and oral?
Acyclovir may induce what?
bone marrow suppression
Which opiate agonist is used in chronic pain; surgical pain; use in combination with an NSAID (synergistic)?
Tramadol is used in which animals?
Tramadol should be avoided in use with what meds?
- SSRIs (Fluoxetine)
- MAOIs (Selegiline)
The following bullets describe which non-opioid option?
- Anticonvulsant (adjunctive treatment for seizure disorders)
- Analgesic for cancer pain and neuropathic pain, chronic pain
- Use in combination with an NSAID
Which non-opioid option is an antiviral agent but also used as an analgesic for neuropathic and chronic pain (NMDA antagonist)?
Which non-opioid option is used in neuropathic pain; use in conjunction with NSAID; requires tapered withdrawal?
Which drugs are propionic acid derivatives?
- Naproxen (Equiproxen, Aleve)
- Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil)
Naproxen is used in what animals?
Is naproxen recommended in companion animals?
Can ibuprofen be used in dogs and cats?
NO! Very toxic! (GI ulceration)
Which drug's MOA is the inhibition of cyclooxygenase enzyme?
With NSAIDs, what enzyme converts arachidonic acid to prostaglandin?
What are 2 isoforms assoc. w/ NSAIDs?
List the components of COX-1:
- Constantly produced; needed for normal regulatory functions
- Maintains electrolyte balance in kidneys
- Cytoprotection to gastric mucosa
- Platelet function
- Inhibition undesirable
List the component of COX-2:
- Induced in face of inflammation
- Inhibition desirable when goal is to control inflammation
List the pharmacological effects of NSAIDs:
- Anti-inflammatory effects
- Analgesics (pain relief)
- Antipyrexia (lower fever)
- Antithrombosis (depress platelet aggregation)
What are created by utilizing bacteria or yeast to produce large quantities of a single viral or bacterial protein?
Advantages of the recombinant vaccine technology are that there is virtually no chance of what?
becoming ill from the agent
Vaccinations that are recommended for all patients are known as what?
The diseases involved with core vaccines have significant what?
morbidity and mortality
Vaccinations which should be administered only after careful consideration of the patient’s unique needs and requirements are known as what?
Non-core vaccines are optional and should be considered in the light of what of the animal?
exposure risk (geographic location and lifestyle of pet)
What are the core vaccines for a canine?
- DAPPV (or DHPPV) = MLV
- RV = Killed
What are the core vaccines for a feline?
- FVRCP = MLV
- RV = Recombinant
A vaccine prepared from dead microorganisms, generally used to provide immunization from organisms that are too virulent to be used in the living attenuated state is known as what?
A weakened strain of the agent that causes a disease is to stimulate an immune response responds to what?
Modified-live virus vaccine (MLV)
True or False: immunity produced by a live, attenuated vaccine is usually more effective.
What are medications which have a depressive effect on the immune system. They slow or block immune system functions, using a variety of different mechanisms?
What circumstances are immunosuppressants used?
- Organ transplant (original use in human med; infrequent use, save feline kidney transplant, in vet med)
- Autoimmune conditions
- Inflammation (severe)
- Allergic conditions
- Many chemotherapy protocols (lymphoma, leukemia, mast cell tumors)
Diseases involving excessive activity of the immune system are called WHAT, and they are treated with suppression of the immune system?
What are the SE of Glucocorticoids?
- Weight gain
- Alopecia (hair loss)
- Polyuria (increased urination)
- Polydipsia (increased drinking)
- Polyphagia (increased appetite / eating)
Prednisone is activated by the patient's liver into what?
Which animals are not efficient at the conversion of prednisone to prednisolone and therefore, need to be given prednisolone?
Prednisone is used in the treatment of what disease?
Glucocorticoid hormones should NOT be used with which med class?
Why shouldn't NSAIDs be used with glucocorticoids?
bleeding in stomach or intestine /ulceration can occur
Which disease refers to a natural deficiency of glucocorticoid hormones (as well as mineralocorticoid hormones).
Which drug is considered to be a long-acting steroid, meaning that a dose lasts about two or two-and-a-half days?
What is the scheduling of Dexamethasone?
Every 3rd day
Which drug can also be used for its ability to mobilize sugar in treatment of insulin-secreting tumors (insulinomas) or metabolic conditions associated with low blood sugar?
These agents typically employed in severe or poorly-responsive immune-mediated conditions, often in conjunction with glucocorticoids. They also play a role in chemotherapy.
Adjunctive therapy immunosuppressants
List examples of adjunctive therapy immunosuppressants:
- Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)
- Immune Globulin
- Danocrine (Danazol)
Aminoglycosides can lead to what problems?
- Ototoxicity (irreversible)
- Nephrotoxicity (reversible, prolonged)
Are aminoglycosides recommended for food animals?
What dosing of Aminoglycosides reduces toxicity?
What is a ubiquitous fungus, which typically infects via direct inoculation (puncture wound associated with thorns or splinters)?
True or False: Sporotrichosis is zoonotic
Sporotrichosis can be in what areas?
The following bullets relate to what?
- Yeast; normal commensal of the skin, ears, and mucocutaneous areas
- Can overgrow and create pathology: dermatitis, otitis, pododermatitis
- Westies, Bassets; Poodles; Cockers; Dachshunds
- Predisposed in underlying allergy, endocrinopathies, sebborhea
Which drug is assoc. w/ hepatic dysfunction – inhibits P450 enzymes leading to accumulation of other co-administered drugs?
Ketoconazole should be avoided in what animals?
Ketoconazole should be avoided in what males?
Can ketoconazole be used in pregnant patients?
What unique SE is assoc. w/ Ketoconazole?
Lightening of haircoat coloration and alopecia (reversible)
The following bullet points describe which drug ?
- Topical dip / suspension
- Dermatophytosis (Ringworm)
- Also an antiparasitic (Sarcoptes, Cheyletiella…mites)
List some examples of ectoparasites (external):
List some examples of endoparasites:
- Nematodes and ascarids
List examples of nematodes and ascarids:
◦Roundworms (Toxocara; Toxascaris)
◦Heartworms (Dirofilaria) intravascular
List an example of cestodes:
◦Tapeworms (Taenia; Diplydium; Echinococcus)
List some examples of protozoa:
What are the properties of an ideal antiparasitic agent?
- Effective against all parasitic stages of a particular species. We want it to kill every step in the life cycle
- Desirable that the spectrum of activity should include members of different genera
- Non-toxic to the host or have a wide margin of safety
(at least 4 – 5 fold margin of safety)
- Especially important in animals that are not weighed prior to treatment (livestock)
- Should be rapidly cleared and
excreted by the host
- Otherwise long withdrawl times in food-producing animals
- Does not include resistance in the target parasite
- Reasonable cost; economical
Ectoparasiticides are also known as what?
Are there a large or small number of insecticides?
Interferon and interferon inducers(INF) and Lysine/ L-Lysine are what drug class?
What is the typical dosing of INF in a cat?
7 days on, 7 off
Lysine/ L-Lysine is used to suppress what infections in cats?
What are some methods of application of insecticides among large animals?
- Dusts = A big machine that drapes the animals with a dust insecticide
- Mist sprays
- Ear-tags, collars, mane and tail bands
- Pour-on or Spot-on
- Injectibles (SQ)
What are some methods of application of insecticides among small animals?
- Insecticidal impregnated collars
- Oral (her fave)
MOA: Paralysis and death of arthropods by disruption of sodium and potassium ion transport in nerve membranes (poisons neurotransmissions) refers to which drugs?
Pyrethrins and Synthetic pyrethroids
Pyrethrins and synthetic pyrethroids are very toxic to which animals?
Which pyrethrin should be avoided in cats and why?
Permethrin (causes seizures)
Which new pyrethrin is for dogs?
Which new pyrethrin is for cats?
MOA: Synaptic poison: inactivates acetylcholinesterase refers to which drugs?
Do organophosphates have a high or low potential for toxicity?
Organophosphates are used to control what?
- fly larvae
Which drug's MOA is neurotoxin?
Which formamadine is a flea dip?
In regards to formamidines, generalized Demodectic mange refers to which animal?
Formamidines are toxic to which animals?
MOA: Work by killing immature insects where they grow and develop, thus breaking the life cycle of the parasite before it gets on a host refers to which drug?
Insect growth regulators (IGRs)
List some examples of insect growth regulators:
MOA: inhibits chitin synthesis, specifically inhibits development of egg tooth; theoretically, MOA would also have effect on fungi (dermatophytosis) refers to which drug?
Does lefenuron kill adult fleas?
Lefenuron is approved for what age and older?
Which brand of lefenuron is a 6 month injectable for cats?
MOA: Enters adult flea circulation after ingestion of blood-meal; binds to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors and blocks acetylcholine-mediated neuronal transmission causing paralysis and death of flea refers to which drug?
Nitenpyram is considered a what in dogs and cats?
Nitenpyram involves the rapid killing of fleas, starting how quickly?
What is the brand name of nitenpyram?
MOA: acts at nicotinic acetylcholine receptors causing CNS impairment and death refers to which drug?
Imidacloprid is a topical treatment for what?
fleas (adult and larvae)
Which drug is (imidacloprid + permethrin): adds tick and mosquito control?
True or False: A dog that uses K9 Advantix can be harmful to a cat in the household.
MOA: GABA regulated chloride channel inhibitor, disrupts CNS activity refers to which drug?
Fipronil is a topical antiparasitic against what in dogs and cats?
What is the brand name for Fipronil?
Fipronil should be avoided in what animals?
- kittens (less than 12 wks)
- puppies (less than 10 wks)
MOA: Attacks the nervous system of insects (GABA and nicotinic receptors), causing rapid death of adult fleas refers to what drug?
What is the brand name of Spinosad?
Spinosad is considered an oral what?
Spinosad is what kind of attacker?
CNS (caution in animals with prior CNS problems)
Which drugs should NOT be used in cats or kittens?
Are there few or a lot of endoparasiticides?
MOA: Produces paralysis of nematodes – worms are passed in a paralytic state in the stool (does not kill the worms) refers to which drug?
Piperazine is very safe, but only effective against what?
MOA: Neuromuscular junction depolarization of the sodium ion; blocks the action of acetylcholine. The end result is paralysis of the parasite musculature is which drug?
Pyrantel is approved for uses in what animals?
- safe in cats as well
Pyrantel treats what in horses?
Pyrantel treats what in dogs?
ascarids and hookworms
Pyrantel treats what in swine?
Pyrantel pamoate is which drug?
Nemex (oral tablets, liquid)
Pyrantel tartrate is which drug?
Strongid-T (oral paste, liquid, feed additive)
Which drug has a broad-spectrum with activity against immature and adult GI nematodes?
Fenbendazole is also effective for the treatment of what in dogs?
What is the brand name of Fenbendazole?
MOA: Attack neuromuscular junction and the tegument, causing instantaneous contraction and paralysis of the parasite, followed by vacuolization and destruction of the protective tegument (“skin”) and death of the parasite relates to which drugs?
Cestocides: Praziquantel and Epsiprantel
Cestocides are effective against all adult and some what?
larval tapeworms and flukes
“Droncit”, 100% efficacy for all tapeworms, including Echinococcus refers to which drug?
“Cestex”, does not get Echinococcus refers to which drug?
A drug effective against ectoparasites and endoparasites is known as a what?
Endectocides are Macrocyclic lactones (avermectins) that are effective against what?
Which drug is oral tablets and chewables to prevent adult heartworms from developing in dogs and cats?
What are the brand names of Ivermectin?
- Heartguard, Tri-heart, Iverheart
Ivermectin is extra-label to treat what?
- demodectic mange (mites)
- ear mites
- ear ticks
Ivermectin in NOT safe in what breeds?
Collies or collie-like breeds
Spectrum of activity includes adult fleas, flea larvae, and can prevent flea eggs from hatching; ear mites (dogs and cats); sarcoptic mange (dogs) and some ticks; as well as prevention of heartworm infections refers to which drug?
What is the brand name of Salamectin?
Salamectin is approved for the treatment of what?
- feline hookworms
What is a feline non-core vaccine?
Feline leukemia virus vaccine
Why is the feline leukemia virus vaccine recommended?
Because of sarcoma formation following administration of killed, adjuvanted vaccines
What is the brand name of Milbemycin oxime?
Interceptor is used for what?
- heartworm prophylaxis
- demodicosis (demodex mite)
- ear mites
- hookworms and roundworms
Interceptor is also effective for the prevention of what infection in cats?
heartworm larval infection
Many herding breed dogs have what?
multidrug resistance gene (MDR1 gene)
What is the brand name of Melarsomine?
Melarsomine is a what in dogs?
What is the brand name of melarsomine dihydrochloride?
List some examples of anti-protozoal drugs:
Metronidazole is the drug of choice for what?
Fendendazole is the drug of choice for what?
giardia in pregnant animals and cats
Sulfonamides work against what?
List some canine-non-core vaccines:
- Canine parainfluenza and bordetella bronchiseptica
- canine Influenza virus (CIV)
- Canine Leptospira
List examples of immunosuppressants:
- Prednisone / Prednisolone
- Immune Globulin
Newer Immunosuppressive Agents
- Mycophenolate Mofetil (MMF)
List some adverse effects of Glucocorticoids:
- Iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism (Addison’s disease)
- Gastrointestinal tract ulceration
- Increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections; unmasking of latent infections
- Congestive heart failure
- Insulin resistance and secondary diabetes mellitus
Glucocorticoids should be avoided in:
- Systemic fungal infections
- Viral infections
- GI ulcers
- Corneal ulcers
- Cushings Disease (hypoadrenocorticism)
- Diabetes mellitus
What is the brand name of Azathioprine?
Azathioprine is a second line medication to reduce the amount of what medicine used?
Azathioprine has an application in treating what?
Azathioprine should NOT be used in animals that are used for what?
Concurrent use of what drug can present a problem is azathioprine use?
Allopurinol can be used to control uric acid bladder stone issues in what breed of dogs?
The use of what drugs with azathioprine makes bone marrow problems more likely?
- sulfa containing antibiotics
Azathioprine should be protected from what?
Azathioprine should NOT be used in which pets?
- pregnant (or touched by pregnant pet owners)
- wash hands after handling
What is the brand name of Chlorambucil?
Chlorambucil is used in the treatment of what?
What kind of agent is chlorambucil?
What is the major SE of chlorambucil?
bone marrow suppression
What other SE can chlorambucil cause?
Chlorambucil can interact with what other drugs?
Chlorambucil should NOT be handled by which patients?
Chlorambucil can cause what if given prior to puberty?
What are the brand names of cyclosporine?
Cyclosporine relieves the symptoms of what?
Dry eye (KCS)
Cyclosporine also treats more serious immune-mediated diseases such as what?
List the main uses of cyclosporine in animals:
- Dry eye (KCS) in dogs
- Inflammatory bowel disease
- Perineal fistulas
- Atopic dermatitis in dogs
- Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
- German shepherd pannus
A relatively low dose of what may allow cyclosporine dose to be cut in half?
What are adverse reactions associated with NSAIDs?
- Ulcer formation
- Prolonged bleeding times
- Reduced renal blood flow
List examples of Salicylates:
- Salicylic acid
- Bismuth subsalicylate
- Acetylsalicylic acid
Salicylates are highly what in dogs?
ulcerogenic (must choose buffered or enteric coated)
Salicylates are only administered how often in cats?
twice per week
Salicylates are most often used as what in heart disease of cats?
What drug is a para-aminophenol derivative?
Can Tylenol be used in cats?
What is the toxicity treatment of Tylenol in cats?
List oxicams used in animals:
- Piroxicam (Feldene)
- Meloxicam (Metacam)
Piroxicam is assoc. w/ with isomers?
COX-1 and 2
Piroxicam is used in what disease?
Meloxicam is preferential to which isomer?
List furanones/pyrazoles used in animals:
- Deracoxib (Deramaxx)
- Firocoxib (Previcox)
- Robenacoxib (Onsinor)
Which furanones/pyrazoles are approved for dogs and cats?
List propionic acid derivatives:
What is the brand name of Carprofen?
What is the brand name of Flurbiprofen?