Vet Pharmacy Exam 1

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1

A pharmacist with an increased interest and knowledge base of veterinary medicine, thus enabling an enhanced ability to prepare prescriptions and advise veterinary clients of the medications they are administering to their animals is known as a what?

Veterinary pharmacist

2

A specialized degree beyond that of the pharmacy degree in which the pharmacist focuses on veterinary pharmacy is known as what?

Veterinary pharmacy specialist

3

When is a vet pharmacy specialist degree obtained?

after completing 1 year residency (@ vet teaching hospital under the supervision of Board Certified Vet Clinical pharmacists)

4

What are the only 2 residencies in the U.S. being offered for vet pharmacy specialist?

  • NC State
  • UC Davis Colleges of Veterinary Medicine
5

Vet pharmacy specialist residency programs culminates with board certification by the what?

◦Society of Veterinary Hospital Pharmacists (SVHP)

6

What letters are added at the end of you name after completing a vet pharmacy residency?

◦DICVP (Diplomate of the International College of Veterinary Pharmacy)

7

Which species division of vet medicine is associated with companion/pet animals (dogs/cats)?

Small animal (can also encompass exotics)

8

Which species division of vet medicine relates to small mammals, reptiles, amphibians, and birds?

Exotics/Pocket Pets/Avian

9

Which species division of vet medicine is associated with large/small ruminants?

Large animal/food animal

10

Which species division of vet pharmacy involves horses?

Equine

11

Which species division of vet medicine involves small and large animal practice?

Mixed animal practice

12

What are some other unique species divisions of vet medicine?

  • Zoo and aquarium
  • Wildlife
13

What is the number one resource for animal health drugs and drug doses?

Plumb's Veterinary Drug Handbook (most current edition)

14

SID is a vet med abbreviation that means what?

q 24 hours/ once daily

15

SubQ admin in animals is used frequently for what in small animal medicine?

  • drug admin
  • fluid admin for rehydration
16

In small animals, SubQ admin is typically given in what area?

subscapular

17

IM admin is used most frequently in which animal medicine?

large animal medicine

18

What is essential with IV vet drug admin?

sterile technique

19

What are the factors that influence the route of admin in animals?

  • Age/size of animal
  • Species of animal
  • tractability of patient
  • disease state
  • owner
20

What are agents that kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms?

Antimicrobials

21

Antibacterial agents are otherwise known as what?

antibiotics

22

The ability to kill an invading organism without harming the cells of the host is known as what?

Selective toxicity

23

Selective antimicrobial therapy takes advantage of the biochemical differences that exist between what?

microorganisms and animal cells

24

Selective toxicity is typically what?

relative

25

The concentration of the drug must be carefully controlled to be successful in attacking the organism while still being safely tolerated by the host refers to selective toxicity being relative, as opposed to what?

absolute

26

What is the range of organisms against which an antibiotic is known to be effective?

Antibiotic spectrum

27

In the case of what medications, the drug works on a wide number of organisms?

Broad spectrum

28

Drugs on a what work only against specific families?

narrow spectrum

29

Most of the time, antibiotic selection is what?

empirical

30

Ideally, we would like to use which spectrum classes whenever possible to specifically target a single organism?

narrow spectrum

31

Many times we are confronted with what kind of infection (more than one type of bacteria present)?

mixed infection

32

What is the most frequently used antibiotic susceptibility test?

Kirby-Bauer (disk diffusion method)

33

What is an in vitro test that measures the lowest concentration of a drug that inhibits visible growth (CFUs) throughout the 18-20 hour incubation period?

MIC (Minimum inhibitory concentration)

34

A Vet's responsibility is to control and eradicate what?

Zoonoses

35

The appropriate use of antibiotics for food animals so as to limit the risk of transfer of WHAT to humans and to avoid the emergence of new strains of resistant bacteria?

antibiotic resistance

36

The following bullets describe what?

  • research and assess the potential risk to humans resulting from antibiotic use in food-producing animals
  • develop microbial safety policies and regulatory tools to protect the public health

Center for Veterinary Medicine at the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

37

The administration of antimicrobial drugs to a patient to prevent establishment of infection in previously un-infected tissue is known as what?

Antimicrobial prophylaxis

38

What are some examples of antimicrobial prophylaxis?

  • Dental Procedures
  • Immuno -compromised Patients
  • Urinary Catheter-Associated Infections
  • Prosthetic Devices
39

In regards to antimicrobial prophylaxis, bactericidal concentrations of the drug should be present in the tissue of interest before WHAT occurs?

bacterial inoculation

40

List examples of quinolones/fluoroquinolones used in vet med:

  • Enrofloxacin
  • Marbofloxacin
  • Orbifloxacin
  • Ciprofloxacin
41

What is the brand name of Enrofloxacin?

Baytril

42

What is the brand name of Marbofloxacin?

Zenequin

43

What is the brand name of Orbifloxacin?

Primor

44

What is the brand name of Ciprofloxacin?

Cipro

45

Quinolones/fluoroquinolones have rapid oral absorption, broad-spectrum, and rapidly bactericidal, therefore making them a what?

ideal antibiotic

46

Quinolones/fluoroquinolones have what?

wide tissue distribution

47

Do fluoroquinolones/quinolones have a narrow or wide tissue distribution?

wide tissue distribution

48

Quinolones/fluoroquinolones have long half-lives, concentration dependent, permitting what dosing?

SID (daily dosing/ q 24 hours)

49

Quinolones/fluoroquinolones are associated with what toxicities?

  • CNS toxicity
  • Chondrotoxicity
  • Occulotoxicity
50

Quinolones/fluorouinolones are associated with CNS toxicity; increased frequency and intensity of what in dogs?

Seizures

51

Extralabel use of quinolones/fluoroquinolones is prohibited among which animals?

food producing animals

52

Erosion of articular cartilage, “bubbles” in developing cartilage is known as what?

Chondrotoxicity

53

Chondrotoxicity is rapidly growing in juveniles. Especially what type of animal?

Dogs

54

Quinolones/fluroroquinolones should be avoided in small-medium breed K9s until what age?

8 months

55

Quinolones/fluroroquinolones should be avoided in large breed K9s until what age?

18 months

56

The use of quinolones/fluoroquinolones can result in occulotoxicity. Especially among what animals?

Cats

57

Should doses of fluoroquinolones/quinolones be kept high or low in cats?

Low (can cause blindness)

58

The use of tetracyclines can cause what in teeth and bones?

Chelate calcium (especially in utero formation- causes yellow/brown discoloration and delays/impairs fracture healing)

59

Which tetracycline causes esophageal stricture in cats?

Doxycycline

60

Oral dosing of tetracyclines may disrupt what?

microflora (rumen in ruminants; colonic flora in horses)

61

Chloramphenicol can cause what?

  • Dose-related bone marrow suppression
  • Non-dose related aplastic anemia
62

Owners who dose their pets chloramphenicol should do what?

Wear gloves

63

Chloramphenicol should 100% not be used in which animals?

food animals (banned in U.S.)

64

What is the only cloramphenicol derivative approved for use in food animals?

Florphenicol (Nuflor)

65

Which animals are at highest risk for KCS with the use of Sulfas?

small dogs

66

Which animals is immune mediated disease most common in with the use of sulfas?

large breed dogs

67

Prolonged use of sulfas can cause folic acid deficiency in what animals?

cats

68

Sulfas can cause interference with the synthesis of what?

thyroid hormones

69

Hepatotoxicity from the use of sulfas is more common among which animals?

large breed dogs

70

The use of sulfas can result in what condition, especially with inadequate water intake?

Renal crystalluria

71

Metronidazole has what type of activity?

  • Antibacterial
  • Antiprotozoal
72

Does metronidazole have rapid or slow absorption (IV and PO)?

Rapid

73

Does metronidazole have narrow or wide tissue distributions?

  • wide
    • can penetrate BBB
    • can attain therapeutic concentrations in pus
74

Metronidazole has what effect on gut tissues?

Anti-inflammatory

75

What is a member of a large group of eukaryotic organisms that includes microorganisms such as yeasts and molds, as well as the more familiar mushrooms?

Fungus

76

The ability to kill an invading organism without harming the cells of the host is known as what?

selective toxicity

77

Since fungal and animal cells are both WHAT, their biochemistry is more similar (as compared to bacteria), so toxicities pose a higher threat and the selection of antifungal agents is more limited?

eukaryotes

78

WHAT therapy takes advantage of the biochemical differences that exist between fungal and animal cells?

selective antimicrobial therapy

79

What is an obligate intracellular parasite – utilizes host’s metabolic machinery to replicate?

Virus

80

Do antiviral drugs have a wide or narrow therapeutic index?

narrow (inhibits host cell metabolism)

81

Which drug is used as an analgesic, narcotic, perioperative pain, epidural, chronic cancer pain?

Fentanyl

82

Fentanyl comes in what main form?

Transdermal patch (Duragesic)

83

Fentanyl patch requires how long before analgesic relief is reached?

12-24 hours

84

Can fentanyl patches be cut?

No

85

Is fentanyl also used IV?

yes

86

Which drug is a partial opiate agonist?

Buprenorphine (Buprenex)

87

Buprenorphine can be given sublingually and buccal admin has been shown to be well tolerated and effective among which animals?

Cats

88

Which receptors assoc. w/ opioids are found primarily in the pain regulating areas of the brain?

Mu receptors

89

What is a common SE of opioids?

constipation

90

Which animals may exhibit contradictory effects, ex. Excitement and defecation when using opioids?

  • horses
  • cattle
  • swine
  • cats
91

Do we see a dependency or addiction among opioids in animals?

No

92

ALL opiates should be used in caution in:

  • geriatric or severely debilitated patients
  • head injuries or increased intracranial pressure
  • acute abdominal conditions (ex. Colic)
  • hypothyroidism
  • adrenocortical insufficiency (Addison’s disease)
  • pre-existing respiratory problems
  • Severe renal (kidney) insufficiency
93

Opioid reversal for overdosage is used with what drug in animals?

Naloxone (injectable opioid antagonist)

94

Cutaneous fungal infections involving the cornified regions of hair, nails, and occasionally the superficial layers of the skin is known as what?

Dermatophytosis (Ringworm)

95

Is Ringworm zoonotic?

Yes

96

Ringworm is a ubiquitous fungus, but it's incidence is higher in which regions?

hot and humid regions

97

Ringworm grows where?

keratinized layers

98

What is the incubation period of Ringworm?

1-4 weeks

99

What is the best means of confirming the diagnosis of Ringworm; Wood’s Lamp fluorescence not ideal?

Fungal culture (DTM)

100

What is a practical and relatively effective environmental decontamination for Ringworm?

Bleach dilution (1:10)

101

What are some drugs used to treat Ringworm?

  • Griseofulvin
  • Ketoconazole (off-label)
  • Itraconazole (fewer SE)
    • topical therapy and clipping
102

In addition to antifungal properties, imidazoles also possess WHAT activity?

  • antiprotozoal
  • antibacterial
  • antihelminthic
103

List some examples of imidazoles:

  • Ketoconazole
  • Itraconazole
  • Fluconazole
  • Miconazole
  • Clotrimazole
  • Thiabendazole
104

Is metronidazole considered an -azole?

No

105

Potassium iodide is used for the treatment of what?

Sporotrichosis

106

Potassium iodide is the gold standard for what form of sporotrichosis?

lymphocutaneous form

107

Is the MOA known for potassium iodide for antifungal action?

NO

108

Griseofulvin is used to treat what?

Ringworm

109

Fulvicin (Griseofulvin) is given orally for how long to treat Ringworm?

4-6 weeks

110

vAbsorption increased by WHAT and microsized and ultramicrosized particle preparations?

high-fat foods

111

Griseofulvin should be avoided in animals with what?

hepatic insufficiency

112

Griseofulvin is teratogenic and is contraindicated in pregnant animals. Especially which animals?

  • mares (horses)
  • queens (cats)
113

The use of Griseofulvin can cause leukopenia and anemia (low white and red blood cell counts) in which animals?

kittens

114

Griseofulvin is NOT approved for which animal use?

food animal

115

Antivirals must inhibit viral replication without destroying host cell. This is known as what?

Virustatic

116

Antivirals have limited use in vet med due to significant what?

Expense

117

Early viral infection diagnosis necessary, as most viral replication has occurred by the time clinical diagnosis made. This suggests that viruses have what spectra of activity?

narrow spectra of activity

118

Feline herpes, also known as feline viral rhinopneumonitis (FVR), rhinotracheitis virus and feline herpesvirus type 1 (FHV-1), is one of the most common causes of upper respiratory infections which animals?

Cats

119

Is herpes virus highly contagious or not?

Yes, can spread easily (cats sharing litter boxes, food and water dishes, etc.)

120

Some cats who become infected with feline herpes can pass the virus on to others without displaying symptoms. They are referred to as what?

Latent carriers

121

Latent carriers of feline herpes spread the virus how?

Stress causes shedding of virus (cats exhibit mild symptoms that clear up in a few days)

122

Which antiviral is used for the topical for treatment of herpesvirus keratitis (cornea) and dermatitis (skin)?

Idoxuridine (ophthalmic drops 1% or compounded ointment 0.5%)

123

Which antiviral is used for the treatment of Herpesvirus keratitis?

Trifluridine (ophthalmic drops 1%)

124

Which antivirals are used in the treatment of Herpesvirus: ophthalmic, topical, IV and oral?

  • acyclovir
  • famciclovir
125

Acyclovir may induce what?

bone marrow suppression

126

Which opiate agonist is used in chronic pain; surgical pain; use in combination with an NSAID (synergistic)?

Tramadol (Ultram)

127

Tramadol is used in which animals?

dogs

128

Tramadol should be avoided in use with what meds?

  • SSRIs (Fluoxetine)
  • MAOIs (Selegiline)
129

The following bullets describe which non-opioid option?

  • Anticonvulsant (adjunctive treatment for seizure disorders)
  • Analgesic for cancer pain and neuropathic pain, chronic pain
  • Use in combination with an NSAID

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

130

Which non-opioid option is an antiviral agent but also used as an analgesic for neuropathic and chronic pain (NMDA antagonist)?

Amantadine (Symmetrel)

131

Which non-opioid option is used in neuropathic pain; use in conjunction with NSAID; requires tapered withdrawal?

Amitriptyline (Elavil)

132

Which drugs are propionic acid derivatives?

  • Naproxen (Equiproxen, Aleve)
  • Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil)
133

Naproxen is used in what animals?

horses

134

Is naproxen recommended in companion animals?

NO

135

Can ibuprofen be used in dogs and cats?

NO! Very toxic! (GI ulceration)

136

Which drug's MOA is the inhibition of cyclooxygenase enzyme?

NSAIDs

137

With NSAIDs, what enzyme converts arachidonic acid to prostaglandin?

Cyclooxygenase

138

What are 2 isoforms assoc. w/ NSAIDs?

  • COX-1
  • COX-2
139

List the components of COX-1:

  • Constituitive
  • Constantly produced; needed for normal regulatory functions
  • Maintains electrolyte balance in kidneys
  • Cytoprotection to gastric mucosa
  • Platelet function
  • Inhibition undesirable
140

List the component of COX-2:

  • Inducible
  • Induced in face of inflammation
  • Inhibition desirable when goal is to control inflammation
141

List the pharmacological effects of NSAIDs:

  • Anti-inflammatory effects
  • Analgesics (pain relief)
  • Antipyrexia (lower fever)
  • Antithrombosis (depress platelet aggregation)
142

What are created by utilizing bacteria or yeast to produce large quantities of a single viral or bacterial protein?

Recombinant vaccines

143

Advantages of the recombinant vaccine technology are that there is virtually no chance of what?

becoming ill from the agent

144

Vaccinations that are recommended for all patients are known as what?

core vaccines

145

The diseases involved with core vaccines have significant what?

morbidity and mortality

146

Vaccinations which should be administered only after careful consideration of the patient’s unique needs and requirements are known as what?

Non-core vaccines

147

Non-core vaccines are optional and should be considered in the light of what of the animal?

exposure risk (geographic location and lifestyle of pet)

148

What are the core vaccines for a canine?

  • DAPPV (or DHPPV) = MLV
  • RV = Killed
149

What are the core vaccines for a feline?

  • FVRCP = MLV
  • RV = Recombinant
150

A vaccine prepared from dead microorganisms, generally used to provide immunization from organisms that are too virulent to be used in the living attenuated state is known as what?

Killed vaccine

151

A weakened strain of the agent that causes a disease is to stimulate an immune response responds to what?

Modified-live virus vaccine (MLV)

152

True or False: immunity produced by a live, attenuated vaccine is usually more effective.

True

153

What are medications which have a depressive effect on the immune system. They slow or block immune system functions, using a variety of different mechanisms?

Immunosuppressants

154

What circumstances are immunosuppressants used?

  • Organ transplant (original use in human med; infrequent use, save feline kidney transplant, in vet med)
  • Autoimmune conditions
  • Inflammation (severe)
  • Allergic conditions
  • Many chemotherapy protocols (lymphoma, leukemia, mast cell tumors)
155

Diseases involving excessive activity of the immune system are called WHAT, and they are treated with suppression of the immune system?

immune-mediated diseases

156

What are the SE of Glucocorticoids?

  • Weight gain
  • Alopecia (hair loss)
  • Polyuria (increased urination)
  • Polydipsia (increased drinking)
  • Polyphagia (increased appetite / eating)
157

Prednisone is activated by the patient's liver into what?

Prednisolone

158

Which animals are not efficient at the conversion of prednisone to prednisolone and therefore, need to be given prednisolone?

Cats

159

Prednisone is used in the treatment of what disease?

Addison's

160

Glucocorticoid hormones should NOT be used with which med class?

NSAIDs

161

Why shouldn't NSAIDs be used with glucocorticoids?

bleeding in stomach or intestine /ulceration can occur

162

Which disease refers to a natural deficiency of glucocorticoid hormones (as well as mineralocorticoid hormones).

Addison's

163

Which drug is considered to be a long-acting steroid, meaning that a dose lasts about two or two-and-a-half days?

Dexamethasone

164

What is the scheduling of Dexamethasone?

Every 3rd day

165

Which drug can also be used for its ability to mobilize sugar in treatment of insulin-secreting tumors (insulinomas) or metabolic conditions associated with low blood sugar?

Prednisone

166

These agents typically employed in severe or poorly-responsive immune-mediated conditions, often in conjunction with glucocorticoids. They also play a role in chemotherapy.

Adjunctive therapy immunosuppressants

167

List examples of adjunctive therapy immunosuppressants:

  • Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)
  • Immune Globulin
  • Danocrine (Danazol)
  • Mercaptopurine
168

Aminoglycosides can lead to what problems?

  • Ototoxicity (irreversible)
  • Nephrotoxicity (reversible, prolonged)
169

Are aminoglycosides recommended for food animals?

No

170

What dosing of Aminoglycosides reduces toxicity?

SID

171

What is a ubiquitous fungus, which typically infects via direct inoculation (puncture wound associated with thorns or splinters)?

Sporotrichosis

172

True or False: Sporotrichosis is zoonotic

True

173

Sporotrichosis can be in what areas?

  • cutaneous
  • cutaneolymphatic
174

The following bullets relate to what?

  • Yeast; normal commensal of the skin, ears, and mucocutaneous areas
  • Can overgrow and create pathology: dermatitis, otitis, pododermatitis
  • Westies, Bassets; Poodles; Cockers; Dachshunds
  • Predisposed in underlying allergy, endocrinopathies, sebborhea

Malassezia

175

Which drug is assoc. w/ hepatic dysfunction – inhibits P450 enzymes leading to accumulation of other co-administered drugs?

Ketoconazole

176

Ketoconazole should be avoided in what animals?

Cats

177

Ketoconazole should be avoided in what males?

breeding

178

Can ketoconazole be used in pregnant patients?

No

179

What unique SE is assoc. w/ Ketoconazole?

Lightening of haircoat coloration and alopecia (reversible)

180

The following bullet points describe which drug ?

  • Topical dip / suspension
  • Dermatophytosis (Ringworm)
  • Also an antiparasitic (Sarcoptes, Cheyletiella…mites)

Lime sulfur

181

List some examples of ectoparasites (external):

  • fleas
  • ticks
  • mites
  • lice
182

List some examples of endoparasites:

  • Nematodes and ascarids
  • cestodes
  • protozoa
183

List examples of nematodes and ascarids:

◦Hookworms (Ancyclostoma)

◦Roundworms (Toxocara; Toxascaris)

◦Whipworms (Trichuris)

◦Heartworms (Dirofilaria) intravascular

184

List an example of cestodes:

◦Tapeworms (Taenia; Diplydium; Echinococcus)

185

List some examples of protozoa:

  • Giardia
  • Coccidia
186

What are the properties of an ideal antiparasitic agent?

  • Effective against all parasitic stages of a particular species. We want it to kill every step in the life cycle
  • Desirable that the spectrum of activity should include members of different genera
  • Non-toxic to the host or have a wide margin of safety (at least 4 – 5 fold margin of safety)
    • Especially important in animals that are not weighed prior to treatment (livestock)
  • Should be rapidly cleared and excreted by the host
    • Otherwise long withdrawl times in food-producing animals
  • Does not include resistance in the target parasite
  • Reasonable cost; economical
187

Ectoparasiticides are also known as what?

insecticides

188

Are there a large or small number of insecticides?

large number

189

Interferon and interferon inducers(INF) and Lysine/ L-Lysine are what drug class?

Antivirals

190

What is the typical dosing of INF in a cat?

7 days on, 7 off

191

Lysine/ L-Lysine is used to suppress what infections in cats?

feline herpesvirus

192

What are some methods of application of insecticides among large animals?

  • Dusts = A big machine that drapes the animals with a dust insecticide
  • Mist sprays
  • Foggers
  • Washes
  • Dips
  • Ear-tags, collars, mane and tail bands
  • Pour-on or Spot-on
  • Injectibles (SQ)
193

What are some methods of application of insecticides among small animals?

  • Aerosol
  • Shampoo/Washes
  • Dips
  • Insecticidal impregnated collars
  • Injectibles
  • Spot-on
  • Oral (her fave)
194

MOA: Paralysis and death of arthropods by disruption of sodium and potassium ion transport in nerve membranes (poisons neurotransmissions) refers to which drugs?

Pyrethrins and Synthetic pyrethroids

195

Pyrethrins and synthetic pyrethroids are very toxic to which animals?

fish

196

Which pyrethrin should be avoided in cats and why?

Permethrin (causes seizures)

197

Which new pyrethrin is for dogs?

cyphenothrin

198

Which new pyrethrin is for cats?

etofenprox

199

MOA: Synaptic poison: inactivates acetylcholinesterase refers to which drugs?

Organophosphates (OP)

200

Do organophosphates have a high or low potential for toxicity?

high potential

201

Organophosphates are used to control what?

  • grubs
  • fly larvae
  • fleas
  • lice
  • mites
  • ticks
202

Which drug's MOA is neurotoxin?

Formamidines

203

Which formamadine is a flea dip?

Amitraz (Mitaban)

204

In regards to formamidines, generalized Demodectic mange refers to which animal?

dogs

205

Formamidines are toxic to which animals?

  • cats
  • rabbits
206

MOA: Work by killing immature insects where they grow and develop, thus breaking the life cycle of the parasite before it gets on a host refers to which drug?

Insect growth regulators (IGRs)

207

List some examples of insect growth regulators:

  • Methoprene
  • Lufenuron
208

MOA: inhibits chitin synthesis, specifically inhibits development of egg tooth; theoretically, MOA would also have effect on fungi (dermatophytosis) refers to which drug?

Lefenuron

209

Does lefenuron kill adult fleas?

No

210

Lefenuron is approved for what age and older?

6 wks

211

Which brand of lefenuron is a 6 month injectable for cats?

Program

212

MOA: Enters adult flea circulation after ingestion of blood-meal; binds to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors and blocks acetylcholine-mediated neuronal transmission causing paralysis and death of flea refers to which drug?

Nitenpyram

213

Nitenpyram is considered a what in dogs and cats?

flea adulticide

214

Nitenpyram involves the rapid killing of fleas, starting how quickly?

25 min

215

What is the brand name of nitenpyram?

Capstar

216

MOA: acts at nicotinic acetylcholine receptors causing CNS impairment and death refers to which drug?

Imidacloprid

217

Imidacloprid is a topical treatment for what?

fleas (adult and larvae)

218

Which drug is (imidacloprid + permethrin): adds tick and mosquito control?

K9 Advantix

219

True or False: A dog that uses K9 Advantix can be harmful to a cat in the household.

True

220

MOA: GABA regulated chloride channel inhibitor, disrupts CNS activity refers to which drug?

Fipronil

221

Fipronil is a topical antiparasitic against what in dogs and cats?

  • fleas
  • ticks
222

What is the brand name for Fipronil?

Frontline TopSpot

223

Fipronil should be avoided in what animals?

  • rabbits
  • kittens (less than 12 wks)
  • puppies (less than 10 wks)
224

MOA: Attacks the nervous system of insects (GABA and nicotinic receptors), causing rapid death of adult fleas refers to what drug?

Spinosad

225

What is the brand name of Spinosad?

Comfortis

226

Spinosad is considered an oral what?

flea adulticide

227

Spinosad is what kind of attacker?

CNS (caution in animals with prior CNS problems)

228

Which drugs should NOT be used in cats or kittens?

  • permethrin
  • amitraz
229

Are there few or a lot of endoparasiticides?

a lot

230

MOA: Produces paralysis of nematodes – worms are passed in a paralytic state in the stool (does not kill the worms) refers to which drug?

Piperazine

231

Piperazine is very safe, but only effective against what?

ascarids (roundworms)

232

MOA: Neuromuscular junction depolarization of the sodium ion; blocks the action of acetylcholine. The end result is paralysis of the parasite musculature is which drug?

Pyrantel

233

Pyrantel is approved for uses in what animals?

  • swine
  • horses
  • dogs
    • safe in cats as well
234

Pyrantel treats what in horses?

pinworms

235

Pyrantel treats what in dogs?

ascarids and hookworms

236

Pyrantel treats what in swine?

ascarids

237

Pyrantel pamoate is which drug?

Nemex (oral tablets, liquid)

238

Pyrantel tartrate is which drug?

Strongid-T (oral paste, liquid, feed additive)

239

Which drug has a broad-spectrum with activity against immature and adult GI nematodes?

Fenbendazole

240

Fenbendazole is also effective for the treatment of what in dogs?

Giardia

241

What is the brand name of Fenbendazole?

Panacur

242

MOA: Attack neuromuscular junction and the tegument, causing instantaneous contraction and paralysis of the parasite, followed by vacuolization and destruction of the protective tegument (“skin”) and death of the parasite relates to which drugs?

Cestocides: Praziquantel and Epsiprantel

243

Cestocides are effective against all adult and some what?

larval tapeworms and flukes

244

“Droncit”, 100% efficacy for all tapeworms, including Echinococcus refers to which drug?

Praziquantel

245

“Cestex”, does not get Echinococcus refers to which drug?

Epsiprantel

246

A drug effective against ectoparasites and endoparasites is known as a what?

endectocide

247

Endectocides are Macrocyclic lactones (avermectins) that are effective against what?

  • ectoparasites
  • endoparasites
248

Which drug is oral tablets and chewables to prevent adult heartworms from developing in dogs and cats?

Ivermectin

249

What are the brand names of Ivermectin?

  • Heartguard, Tri-heart, Iverheart
250

Ivermectin is extra-label to treat what?

  • demodectic mange (mites)
  • ear mites
  • ear ticks
251

Ivermectin in NOT safe in what breeds?

Collies or collie-like breeds

252

Spectrum of activity includes adult fleas, flea larvae, and can prevent flea eggs from hatching; ear mites (dogs and cats); sarcoptic mange (dogs) and some ticks; as well as prevention of heartworm infections refers to which drug?

Salamectin

253

What is the brand name of Salamectin?

Revolution

254

Salamectin is approved for the treatment of what?

  • feline hookworms
  • ascarids
255

What is a feline non-core vaccine?

Feline leukemia virus vaccine

256

Why is the feline leukemia virus vaccine recommended?

Because of sarcoma formation following administration of killed, adjuvanted vaccines

257

What is the brand name of Milbemycin oxime?

Interceptor

258

Interceptor is used for what?

  • heartworm prophylaxis
  • microfilaricide,
  • demodicosis (demodex mite)
  • ear mites
  • hookworms and roundworms
259

Interceptor is also effective for the prevention of what infection in cats?

heartworm larval infection

260

Many herding breed dogs have what?

multidrug resistance gene (MDR1 gene)

261

What is the brand name of Melarsomine?

Immiticide

262

Melarsomine is a what in dogs?

heartworm adulticide

263

What is the brand name of melarsomine dihydrochloride?

Immiticide

264

List some examples of anti-protozoal drugs:

  • Sulfonamides
  • Metronidazole
  • Fendendazole
265

Metronidazole is the drug of choice for what?

Giardia

266

Fendendazole is the drug of choice for what?

giardia in pregnant animals and cats

267

Sulfonamides work against what?

Coccidia

268

List some canine-non-core vaccines:

  • Canine parainfluenza and bordetella bronchiseptica
  • canine Influenza virus (CIV)
  • Canine Leptospira
269

List examples of immunosuppressants:

  • Glucocorticoids
    • Prednisone / Prednisolone
    • Triamcinolone
    • Dexamethasone
  • Non- Corticosteriod Immunsuppresants
    • Azathioprine
    • Chlorambucil
    • Cyclosporine
  • Adjunctive Therapy Immunosuppressants
    • Cyclophosphamide
    • Immune Globulin
    • Danocrine
    • Mercaptopurine
  • Newer Immunosuppressive Agents
    • Mycophenolate Mofetil (MMF)
    • Leflunomide
270

List some adverse effects of Glucocorticoids:

  • Iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism (Addison’s disease)
  • Gastrointestinal tract ulceration
  • Pancreatitis
  • Increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections; unmasking of latent infections
  • Congestive heart failure
  • Insulin resistance and secondary diabetes mellitus
271

Glucocorticoids should be avoided in:

  • Systemic fungal infections
  • Viral infections
  • GI ulcers
  • Corneal ulcers
  • Cushings Disease (hypoadrenocorticism)
  • Diabetes mellitus
272

What is the brand name of Azathioprine?

Imuran

273

Azathioprine is a second line medication to reduce the amount of what medicine used?

Prednisone

274

Azathioprine has an application in treating what?

cancers

275

Azathioprine should NOT be used in animals that are used for what?

breeding

276

Concurrent use of what drug can present a problem is azathioprine use?

Allopurinol

277

Allopurinol can be used to control uric acid bladder stone issues in what breed of dogs?

Dalmations

278

The use of what drugs with azathioprine makes bone marrow problems more likely?

  • enalapril
  • sulfa containing antibiotics
279

Azathioprine should be protected from what?

light exposure

280

Azathioprine should NOT be used in which pets?

  • pregnant (or touched by pregnant pet owners)
    • wash hands after handling
281

What is the brand name of Chlorambucil?

Leukerin

282

Chlorambucil is used in the treatment of what?

cancer

283

What kind of agent is chlorambucil?

alkylating

284

What is the major SE of chlorambucil?

bone marrow suppression

285

What other SE can chlorambucil cause?

seizures

286

Chlorambucil can interact with what other drugs?

  • chloramphenicol
  • azathioprine
  • colchicine
  • cyclophosphamide
287

Chlorambucil should NOT be handled by which patients?

pregnant

288

Chlorambucil can cause what if given prior to puberty?

permanent infertility

289

What are the brand names of cyclosporine?

  • atopica
  • neoral
  • optimmune
290

Cyclosporine relieves the symptoms of what?

Dry eye (KCS)

291

Cyclosporine also treats more serious immune-mediated diseases such as what?

atopic dermatitis

292

List the main uses of cyclosporine in animals:

  • Dry eye (KCS) in dogs
  • Inflammatory bowel disease
  • Perineal fistulas
  • Atopic dermatitis in dogs
  • Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
  • German shepherd pannus
293

A relatively low dose of what may allow cyclosporine dose to be cut in half?

ketoconazole

294

What are adverse reactions associated with NSAIDs?

  • Gastrointestinal
    • Ulcer formation
  • Hematopoetic
    • Prolonged bleeding times
  • Reproduction
  • Renal
    • Reduced renal blood flow
295

List examples of Salicylates:

  • Salicylic acid
  • Bismuth subsalicylate
  • Acetylsalicylic acid
296

Salicylates are highly what in dogs?

ulcerogenic (must choose buffered or enteric coated)

297

Salicylates are only administered how often in cats?

twice per week

298

Salicylates are most often used as what in heart disease of cats?

anti-thrombotic

299

What drug is a para-aminophenol derivative?

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

300

Can Tylenol be used in cats?

No! NEVER!

301

What is the toxicity treatment of Tylenol in cats?

acetylcysteine (mucomyst)

302

List oxicams used in animals:

  • Piroxicam (Feldene)
  • Meloxicam (Metacam)
303

Piroxicam is assoc. w/ with isomers?

COX-1 and 2

304

Piroxicam is used in what disease?

joint disease

305

Meloxicam is preferential to which isomer?

COX-2

306

List furanones/pyrazoles used in animals:

  • Deracoxib (Deramaxx)
  • Firocoxib (Previcox)
  • Robenacoxib (Onsinor)
307

Which furanones/pyrazoles are approved for dogs and cats?

Robenacoxib (Onsinor)

308

List propionic acid derivatives:

  • Carprofen
  • Flubriprofen
309

What is the brand name of Carprofen?

Rimadyl

310

What is the brand name of Flurbiprofen?

Ocufen