radiologic science for technologist Flashcards


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1

Chapter 1-1 through 1-3

Chapter 1-1

Chapter 1-1 through 1-3

Chapter1-1 Chapter

2

Which of the following items is considered to be matter?

a. Airport surveillance X-rays

b. Anode heat

c. Cell phone signals

d. Light from a movie projector

e. Wet snow

E. Wet snow

3

Which of the following is the principal difference between mass and weight?

a. Mass is measured in pounds (lb); weight is measured in kilograms (kg).

b. Mass is the equivalence of energy; weight is the force exerted by gravity.

c. There is no difference; mass and weight are equal.

d. Weight does not change with position; mass does.

e. Weight is energy; mass requires gravity.

b. Mass is the equivalence of energy; weight is the force exerted by gravity.

4

Energy is defined as:

a. A force exerted by a body.

b. Anything that occupies space and has shape.

c. The ability to do work.

d. The degree of gravity.

e. The quantity of matter.

c. The ability to do work.

5

Which of the following examples best represents energy?

a. A snowman

b. A thrown snowball

c. Anode mass

d. The metal plates in a battery

e. The terminals of a battery.

b. A thrown snowball

6

Which of the following is an example of potential energy?

a. A heated anode?

b. A mobile x-ray imaging system in motion

c. An x-ray beam.

d. An x-ray imaging system

e. Visible light?

b. A mobile x-ray imaging system in motion

7

In Einstein's famous E=mc2 equation, c stands for which of the following?

a. Acceleration of mass

b. Force

c. Mass-energy equivalence

d. The speed of light

e. The theory of relativity

d. The speed of light

8

Radiation is:

a. Energy transferred

b. Isotropic emission

c. Kinetic particles

d. Mass with a charge

e. Measured in joules

a. Energy transferred

9

The milligray in air (mGyt) relates to which of the following?

a. A dose equivalent

b. Ions produced in the air

c. Isotropic emission

d. Non-ioninzing radiation

e. Tissue-absorbed dose

b. Ions produced in the air

10

Which of the following is an example of electromagnetic radiation?

a. Alpha radiation

b. Beta rays

c. Sound

d. Ultrasound

e. Visible light

e. Visible light

11

When ionization occurs, which of the following is true?

a. The negative ion is electromagnetic radiation.

b. The negative ion is the ion pair.

c. The negative ion is the target atom.

d. The positve ion is the resulting atom.

e. The positive ions is the resulting atom.

e. The positive ions is the resulting atom.

12

X-rays are most like:

a. Alpha rays

b. Beta rays

c. Diagnostic ultrasound

d. Gamma rays

e. Radio waves

d. Gamma rays

13

Which of the following is the larges source of human exposure to man-made radiation?

a. Cosmic rays

b. Medical diagnostic radiation

c. Nuclear power-generating stations

d. Radioactive fallout

e. Radioactive materials in consumer products.

d. 1 μSv/yr (100 mrem/yr)b. Medical diagnostic radiation

14

What is the approximate annual effective dose from natural environmental radiation at sea level?

a. 50 μSv/yr (5mrem/yr)

b. 100 μSv/yr (10 mrem/yr)

c. 500 μSv/yr (50 mrem/yr)

d. 1 μSv/yr (100 mrem/yr)

e. 5 μSv/yr (500 mrem/yr)

d. 1 μSv/yr (100 mrem/yr)

15

Which of the following results in the highest annual radiation dose?

a. Cosmic rays

b. Diagnostic x-rays

c. Microwave radiation

d. Nuclear power

e. Radiation from inside the earth

b. Diagnostic x-rays

16

which of the following contributes more than 1mSv per year to each of us?

a. Consumer products

b. Exposure to radon

c. Microwave oven raidation

d. Radioactive fallout radiation

e. Radioisotopes in nuclear medicine

b. Exposure to radon

17

Which of the following is a unit of mass?

a. Joule

b. Kilogram

c. mrad

d. Pound

e. Volt

c. mrad

18

Which of the following is ionizing electromagnetic radiation?

a. Beta Rays

b. Gamma Rays

c. Microwaves

d. Radio Waves

e. Ultrasound

b. Gamma Rays

19

Which of the following is a unit of energy?

a. Joule

b. Kilogram

c. mrad

d. Pound

e. Volt

b. Kilogram

20

chapter 1-2

Chapter 1-2

21

What was the device with which Roentgen discovered X-rays?

a. Anode tube

b. Coolidge tube

c. Crookes tube

d. Geissler tube

e. Snook interrupterless transformer

c. Crookes tube

22

The phosphor that Roentgen used in early experiments with x-rays was which of the following?

a. Barium platinocyanide

b. Cadmium tungstate

c. Calcium tungstate

d. Rare earth

e. Zinc Cadmium sulfide

a. Barium platinocyanide

23

How are x-ray tuber voltages measured?

a. Kilovolt?

b. Megavolt

c. Microvolt

d. Millivolt

e. Volt

a. Kilovolt?

24

Which of the following early pioneers developed the fluoroscope?

a. Alexander G. Bell

b. J. J. Thompson

c Thomas Edision

d. Wilhelm Roentgen

e. Wiliam Crookes

c Thomas Edision

25

Who firs applied x-ray beam collimation and filtration in medical imaging?

a. Wilhelm Roentgen

b. William Coolidge

c. William Crookes

d. William Longfellow

e. William Rollins

e. William Rollins

26

Which of the following is the type of x-ray tube is used today?

a. Coolidge tube

b. Crookes tube

c Geissler tube

d. Leonard tube

e. Snook tube

a. Coolidge tube

27

The Bucky grid, which was introduced in 1921, does what?

a. improves contrast resolution

b. Improves spatial resolution

c. Provides x-ray collimation

d. Reduces examination time.

e. Reduces patient exposure

a. improves contrast resolution

28

Which of the following regarding radiation lethality is true?

a. Clarence Dally was the first American to die because of x-ray exposure.

b. No medical radiation deaths have occurred.

c. Radiology has always been considered a completely safe occupation.

d. The first X-ray--induced death did not occur until approcimateldy 1920.

e. The first x-ray--induced death occured within a year of Roentgen's discovery.

a. Clarence Dally was the first American to die because of x-ray exposure.

29

Which of the following describes the Coolidge X-ray tube?

a. It has a heated cathode

b. It has a rotating anode

c. It is not as good as the Crookes tube.

d. It is not in use today.

e. It was used by Roentgen when he discovered x-rays.

a. It has a heated cathode

30

Roentgen originally identified x-rays as which of the following?

a. Alpha rays

b. Cathode rays

c. Electrons

d. X-heat

e. X-light

e. X-light

31

What are the two simple, general types of x-ray imaging procedures?

a. Digital and analog

b. Electromagnetic and ultrasonic

c. Radiographic and fluoroscopic

d. Radiographic and tomographic

e. Roentgenographic and ultrasonic

c. Radiographic and fluoroscopic

32

Which of the following provides dynamic x-ray images?

a. Digital radiography

b. Doppler ultrasonography

c. Fluoroscopy

d. Mammography

e. Tomography

c. Fluoroscopy

33

The film Base for a radiograph made in 1920 would have been made of which of the following?

a. Calcium Tungstate

b. Cellulose acetate

c. Cellulose nitrate

d. Glass

E. Tungstate cadmium

c. Cellulose nitrate

34

X-ray beam collimation and filtration do which of the following?

a. Compromise image quality

b. Improve spatial resolution

c. Reduce exposure time

d. Reduce Patient dose

e. Result in patient disomfort.

d. Reduce Patient dose

35

Chapter 1-2

Chapter 1-2

36

Which of the following imaging modalities was develeoped most recently?

a. Computed tomography (CT)

b. Diagnostic ultrasound

c. Direct digital radiography

d. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

e. Multislice helical CT

e. Multislice helical CT

37

Which of the folloiwng radiation responses was not reported before 1910?

a. Anemia

b. Death

c. Epilation

d. Leukemia

e. Skin erythema

a. Anemia

38

Chapter 1-3

Review Chapter 1-3

39

One of the cardinal principles of radiation protection states that the radiographer should minimize which of the following?

a. Distance

b. kVp

c. mAs

d. Shielding

e. Time

a. Distance

40

Which of the following is not included in the 10 basic radiation control principles of diagnostic radiology?

a. Always wear a radiation monitor while at work

b. Collimate the x-ray beam to the appropriate field size.

c. Use high-kVp technique

d. Use high-mA technique.

e. Wear protective apparel during fluoroscopy

d. Use high-mA technique.

41

If is is necesary to immobilize a patient during a radiographic examination, the most acceptable person to do this is a/an:

a. 18-year old borther of the patient

b. 20-year old female technologist

c. 40 year old male technologist

d. 50-year old female friend of the patient

e. Hospital orderly

d. 50-year old female friend of the patient

42

Which of the following is correctly stated for diagnostic radiology?

a. Collimation is important only for chest examination.

b. Copper is used most often as an x-ray filter.

c. Gonad shield are as important for a 50-year-old woman as for a 20-year-old woman.

d. The radiological technologist may hold patients for some s-ray examinations

e. Radiographic intensifying screens reduce patient dose.

e. Radiographic intensifying screens reduce patient dose.

43

Which of the following will reduce personnel exposure the most?

a. Collimation of the x-ray beam

b. Filtration of the x-ray beam.

c. Recording of fluoroscopy time

d. A high kVp technique

e. Use of protective barriers for radiographers.

e. Use of protective barriers for radiographers.

44

When abdominal radiography is conducted on a child, which of the following is true?

a. Gonad shielding is not necessary

b. Increasing kVp will increase image contrast.

c. The parent should hold the child if necessary, and protective apparel should be provided.

d. The parent should hold the child if necessary, and protective apparel is not necessary.

e. The technologist should hold the child if necessary

c. The parent should hold the child if necessary, and protective apparel should be provided.

45

All except which of the following help to reduce patient dose?

a. Cones

b. Filtration

c. Gonadal shields

d. Intensifying screens

e. Radiographic grids

e. Radiographic grids

46

After termination of an x-ray exposure:

a. No more x-rays are emitted

b. The patient continues to emit scatter radiation for a few seconds.

c. The patient continues to emit scatter radiation for less than 1 second.

d. the patiend is momentarily radioactive.

e. X-rays continue to be emitted for a few seconds.

a. No more x-rays are emitted

47

During fluoroscopy, what should the radiographer always do?

a. Leave the radiation monitor behind the fixed protective barrier.

b. Position the radiation monitor under the protective apron.

c. Remain as close to the patient as possible.

d Wear a radiation monitor when examined as a patient.

e. Wear protective apparel

e. Wear protective apparel

48

The main reason for filtering the x-ray beam is to:

a. Absorb heat.

b. Absorb penetrating x-radiation

c. Focus the x-ray beam.

d. Reduce patient dose

e. Shapen the image

d. Reduce patient dose

49

Which of the following represents implementation of a radiation protection procedure?

a. Avoid repeat examination

b. Collimate to the film size.

c. Monitor processor performance

d. Remove filtration

e. Wear protective apparel at the control console.

a. Avoid repeat examination

50

Which of the following is an example of an x-ray beam collimator?

a. Dead-man switch

b. Elapsed timer

c. Filter

d. Positive beam limitation (PBL)

e. Radiographic grid

b. Elapsed timer

51

Which of the following is true regarding the discovery of ionizing radiation?

a. It was predicted by Mendeleev's field theory

b. Radioactivity was discovered within a year of Roentgen's discovery.

c. Roentgen's discovery occurred in 1906.

d. The apparatys that Roentgen used was called a coolidge tube.

e. The first radiation fatality occurred in 1920.

b. Radioactivity was discovered within a year of Roentgen's discovery.

52

Generally, X-ray examinations are reserved for which of the following?

a. Asymptomatic Patients

b. Older patients

c. Patients who are not pregnant

d. Symptomatic patients

e. X-ray personnel

d. Symptomatic patients

53

Gonad shields should be used:

a. For all examinations of all patients

b. On all female patients

c. On all male patients

d. When the gonads are in or near the useful beam

e. When the gonads are in the useful beam.

d. When the gonads are in or near the useful beam

54

Which of the following is the principal reason to avoid repeat examination?

a. The cost of the procedure is doubled

b. The image may be confused.

c. the patient is inconvenienced

d. the patient receives twice the radiation dose.

e. The radiographer's workload is doubled.

d. the patient receives twice the radiation dose.

55

Chapter 1-4

Standard Units Of Measurement

Chapter 1-4

56

Which of the following is not a base quantity in the SI?

a. Electric current

b. Mass

c. Radiation exposure

d. Temperature

e. Time

c. Radiation exposure

57

Which of the following is an SI base unit?

a. Becquerel

b. Coulomb

c. Coulomb/kilogram

d. Gray

e. Kilogram

e. Kilogram

58

Which of the following standards of SI measure is correct?

a. The foot was measured by King Henry VIII

b. The meter is related to the visible emission from the sun.

c. The meter is the length of an engraved platinum-iridium bar.

d. The second is based on the rotation of the earth around the sun.

e. The second is based on the vibrations of cesium atoms.

e. The second is based on the vibrations of cesium atoms.

59

Water has a mass density of 1 g/cm3. Its density is also:

a. 10-3 kg/m3

b. 1kg/m3

c. 10 kg/m3

d. 103 kg/m3

e. 105 kg/m3

d. 103 kg/m3

60

SI stands for which of the following?

a. Inconsistent system

b. Incorrect system

c. Le Systeme Institutional

d. Le Systeme International d'Unites

e. System International

d. Le Systeme International d'Unites

61

Which of the following is not a system of units?

a. British

b. CGS

c. French

d. MKS

e. SI

c. French

62

Which of the following is an SI name for a base unit?

a. Celsius

b. Kilovolt

c. Milliampere

d. Newton

e. Second

e. Second

63

Which of the following is a unit of energy?

a. Gray

b. Joule

c. Newton

d. Rad

e. Sievert

b. Joule

64

Which of the following is expressed in the proper units?

a. Absorbed dose: Sv

b. Activity: rem

c. Dose equivalent: rad

d. Exposure: Bq

e. Exposure: mGya

d. Exposure: Bq

65

Which of the following is an SI-derived unit?

a. Dyne

b. Horsepower

c. Joule

d. Kelvin

e. Roentgen

c. Joule

66

Which of the following has units of s-1?

a. Dose

b. Exposure

c. Frequency

d. Time

e. Velocity

c. Frequency

67

The unit of measure that is the same for all systems of measure is the:

a. Calorie

b. Kilogram

c. Meter

d. Pound

e. Second

e. Second

68

A kilogram is the:

a. Energy required to raise 1lb of water 1˚C

b. Mass of standard gold bar

c. Mass of 1 lb of water

d. Mass of 1000 cm3 of water

e. Temperature rise of 1 lb of water

d. Mass of 1000 cm3 of water

69

What unit results when a coulomb is divided by a second?

a. Ampere

b. Hertz

c. Ohm

d. Rad

e. Volt

a. Ampere

70

What common radiological unit results from the following? millicoulomb X second = ______?

a. ESE

b. kVp

c. mA

d. PBL

e SID

c. mA

71

The radiologic unit milliampere-second (mAs) is actually a measure of:

a. Electric charge

b. Electric potential

c. Number of electrons

d. Potential difference

e. X-ray intensity

c. Number of electrons

72

Which of the following is a unit of electric potential?

a. Joule

b. kVp

c. mA

d. mAs

e. Newton

b. kVp

73

The fundamental unit of force is the:

a. Coulomb

b. Joule

c. Newton

d. Roentgen

e. Volt

c. Newton

74

Chapter 1-5

Newton's Law

Chapter 1-5

75

Which of the following is not a correct statement of Newton's laws?

a. Acceleration is equal to initial velocity plus final velocity, divided by 2.

b. Force is equal to mass times acceleration

c. Momentum is equal to mass times velocity.

d. Velocity is equal to distance divided by time.

e. Weight is equal to mass times acceleration

a. Acceleration is equal to initial velocity plus final velocity, divided by 2.

76

Which of the following correctly states Newton's first law of motion?

a. An object at rest will remain at rest unless acted on by an external force.

b. An object with mass (m) and acceleration (a) is acted on by force. given by the equation F = ma.

c. For every action, there is an opposite and equal reaction.

d. Matter and energy are related.

e. The total momentum before any interaction is equal to the total momentum after the interaction.

a. An object at rest will remain at rest unless acted on by an external force.

77

Another name for velocity is:

a. Energy

b. Mass

c. Speed

d. Time

e. Work

c. Speed

78

When you travel 50 mph, you are also going approximately:

a. 80 km/hr

b. 100 km/hr

c. 1100 ft/min

d 2200 ft/min

e 3300 ft/min

a. 80 km/hr

79

Acceleration is also:

a. The product of time and distance

b. The rate of change of time with velocity

c. The rate of change of velocity with distance

d. The rate of change of velocity with time

e. Time squared

d. The rate of change of velocity with time

80

An automobile travels 30 miles in 30 min. Its average velocity is approximately:

a. 1 mi/min

b. 33 mi/min

c. 60 mi/min

d. 88 mi/min

e. 99 mi/min

a. 1 mi/min

81

The final speed of a dragster in a quarter mile is 80 mph. The average velocity is:

a. 4 mi/hr

b. 8 mi/hr

c. 16 mi/hr

d. 32 mi/hr

e. 40 mi/hr

e. 40 mi/hr

82

A dragster requires 8 s to reach a speed of 80 mph. What is its acceleration?

a. 1.1 m/s2

b. 2.2 m/s2

c. 3.3 m/s2

d. 4.5 m/s2

e 5.5 m/s2

d. 4.5 m/s2

83

Inertia is:

a. Mass times acceleration

b. Newton's second law of motion

c. Resistance to a change in motion

d. Velocity divided by time

e. Velocity times time

c. Resistance to a change in motion

84

Which of the following statements refers to a vector quantity?

a. The car was speeding north at 100km/hr.

b. the seep of light is 3 x 108 m/s

c. The standard man has a mass of 70 kg.

d. The standard man weighs 70 kg.

e. The units of Planck's constant are J-s.

a. The car was speeding north at 100km/hr.

85

A World Series fastball was clocked at 90 mph. How long did that ball take to travel the 90 feet to the plate?

a. Less than 1 s

b. 1 s

c. Longer than 2 s

d. 1.5 s

e. 2 s

a. Less than 1 s

86

How many fundamental laws of motion did Newton formulate?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

e. 5

c. 3

87

If someone were to fall off the edge of the south rim of Grand Canyon the force exerted would be measured in:

a. kg

b. J

c. m/s

d. m/Sv

e. N

e. N

88

If the acceleration caused by gravity is 9.8 m/s2, what is the gravitational force acting on a 50-kg sack pushed off the roof of a 50-story building?

a. 0.2 N

b. 5.1 N

c. 40.2 N

d. 80 N

e. 490 N

e. 490 N

89

How is momentum best described?

a. For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

b. It is the force of an object caused by the downward pull of gravity.

c. It is the product of the mass of an object and its velocity.

d. It is the relationship between matter and energy.

e. Objects falling to the earth accelerate at a constant rate.

c. It is the product of the mass of an object and its velocity.

90

the total momentum before any interaction is:

a. An equal and opposite reaction

b. Decreased by the property of friction, so it is less after the interaction.

c. Equal to the total momentum after the interaction

d. Greater than the total momentum during the interaction

e. Less than the total momentum during the interaction.

c. Equal to the total momentum after the interaction

91

Which of the following is a unit of work?

a. Gray

b. Hertz

c. Joule

d. Newton

e. Rad

c. Joule

92

Which of the following statements about work is true?

a. It can be measured in watts.

b. It depends on time.

c. It involves the same units as energy

d. It involves time.

e. It is performed when a large weight is held motionless

c. It involves the same units as energy

93

When a force is exerted to push a mobile radiographic imaging system, the force would be expressed in what unit?

a. Joule

b. Kilogram

c. Kilovolt

d. Newton

e. Rad

d. Newton

94

Chapter 1-6

Mechanics

Chapter 1-6

95

A radiographer lifts a box onto a platform. Choose one or more of the following choices (a through f) to use as you complete Exercizes 1-5

a. The distance the box is lifted

b. The force used by the man to lift the box.

c. The mass of the box

d. The size of the box

e. The time required to lift the box.

F. The velocity of the box

1. The KE of the box depends on ____,____.

2. The man's power output depends on ____, ___, ___.

3. The PE of the box depends on _____,_____.

4. The total energy used depends on _____,_____.

5. The work don depends on ____,_____.

1. C, F

2. A, B, E.

3. A, C.

4. A, C.

5. A, B.

96

Which of the following statements about work is true?

a. It can be measured in watts

b. It depends on time.

c. It has units the same as energy.

d. It is measured in newtons.

e. it is performed when a large weight is held motionless.

c. It has units the same as energy.

97

A one-bedroom apartment might use 1000 kW-hr of electricity. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of:

a. Energy

b. Force

c. Heat

d. Potential Energy

e. Power

a. Energy

98

Kinetic energy (KE) is directly proportional to:

a. A vector quantity

b. Acceleration

c. Force

d. Mass

e. Velocity

d. Mass

99

Which of the following units of energy is most fundamental?

a. Calorie

b. Electron volt

c. Erg

d. Joule

e. Kilowatt-hour

d. Joule

100

Which of the following is the primary method of heat dissipation from the rotating anode of an x-ray tube?

a. Conduction

b. Convection

c. Convention

d. Radiation

e. Reduction

d. Radiation

101

Which of the following statements about energy is true?

a. Energy is a force.

b. Energy is a form of power.

c. Energy is the ability to do work.

d. Energy is the rate of doing work.

e. X-rays can be described by their potential energy.

c. Energy is the ability to do work.

102

How much work is done in lifting a 1-kg box of film from the floor to a shelf that is 2m high? (hint: 1kg = 2.2 lb = 9.8 N)

A. 1 J

b. 2.2 J

c. 4.5 J

d. 19.6 J

e. 9 N

d. 19.6 J

103

A car with a 300-hp engine is very fast. the power of the engine is equivalent to how many kilowatts?

a. 0.4 kW

b. 2.5 kW

c. 25 kW

d. 224 kW

e. 300 kW

d. 224 kW

104

Heat is transferred from a glass-enclosed fireplace primarily by:

a. Conduction

b. Convection

c. Convention

d. Radiation

e. Temperature

d. Radiation

105

A 1-degree change is equal in thermal energy for which of the two scales?

a. Absolute and kelvin

b. Celsius and absolute

c. Celsius and Fahrenheit

d. Celsius and kelvin

e. Fahrenheit and kelvin

d. Celsius and kelvin

106

Which British unit is equivalent to the newton?

a. Foot-pound

b. Gram

c. Joule

d. Kilogram

e. Pound

e. Pound

107

17. Energy = ______ a. Push and pull

18. Force = _______ b. The ability to do work

19. Kinetic Energy =______ c. The energy of motion

20. Power = _________ d. The product of force and distance.

21. Work = _________ e. The rate of doing work

17. Energy = __b____ a. Push and pull

18. Force = ____a___ b. The ability to do work

19. Kinetic Energy =__c___ c. The energy of motion

20. Power = ____e_____ d. The product of force and distance.

21. Work = _____d____ e. The rate of doing work

108

Chapter 1-7

Numeric Prefixes

Chapter 1-7

109

10 Kilometers (km) is equal to:

a. 100 m

b. 1000 m

c. 10,000 m

d. 100,000 m

e. 1,000,000 m

c. 10,000 m

110

A radiographic exposure that lasts 1/10 s is equal to:

a. 100 μs

b. 1 ms

c. 10 ms

d. 100 ms

e. 1000 ms

d. 100 ms

111

A posteroanterior (PA) chest examination is conducted at 120 kVp. The peak x-ray tube voltage is:

a. 120 V

b. 1200 V

c. 12,000 V

d.120,000 V

e. 1,200,000 V

d.120,000 V

112

A radiographic exposure made on the 200 mA station is equivalent to:

a. 2000 μA

b. 20,000 μA

c. 200,000 μA

d. 2,000,000 μA

e. 20,000,000 μA

c. 200,000 μA

113

If you are 160 cm tall, your height is also:

a. 0.16 m

b. 16 mm

c. 16,000 mm

d. 1.6 X 106 μm

e. 1.6 X 106 nm

d. 1.6 X 106 μm

114

Which of the following is correct?

a. 1,000,000 eV =1keV

b. 0.001 A = 1 pA

c. 10-7 m = 1 nm

d. 10 μA =0.1 ma

e. 1/60 s = 17 ms

e. 1/60 s = 17 ms

115

If your mass is 70 kg, it is also:

a. 0.07 mg

b. 7000 g

c. 70,000 g

d. 7,000,000 mg

e. 70,000,000 μg

c. 70,000 g

116

Which of the following scientific prefixes is correct?

a. A 1/120 s exposure is 8ms.

b. A 35keV xray has 35 X 106 eV of energy.

c. 1 nm is 10-12 m

d. 1 μBq is 10-3 Bq

e. 10 kVp is 1000 Vp

a. A 1/120 s exposure is 8ms.

117

A KUB radiograph (radiography of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder) is made at 82 kVp/200 mA/0.25 s. This is equivalent to:

a. 0.82 X 103 kVp/ 2 X 10-5 μA/ 2.5 x 104 ms

b. 0.82 X 104 kVp/ 0.2 A/ 2.5 ms

c. 8.2 X 106 mVp/ 2 X 102 mA/ 2.5 x 102 ms

d. 8.2 X 107 μVp/ 2 X 105 μA/ 2.5 x 106 μs

e. 82 X 103 Vp/ 2 X 10-1 A/ 250 ms

e. 82 X 103 Vp/ 2 X 10-1 A/ 250 ms

118

The normal source-to-image receptor distance (SID) for an upright chest radiograph is 180 cm. This is equivalent to:

a. 1.8 m

b. 18 mm

c. 180 mm

d 1800 μm

e. 18,000 μm

a. 1.8 m

119

When the radiographic exposure time is 1/2 s, it is also:

a. 50 ms

b. 200 ms

c. 500 ms

d. 2000 ms

e. 5000 ms

c. 500 ms

120

A fluoroscopic examination is conducted at 1.5 A. This is equivalent to:

a. 15 mA

b. 150 mA

c. 1500 mA

d. 15,000 mA

e. 1500 μA

c. 1500 mA

121

The normal x-ray tube potential for a mammogram is 26 kVp. This is equivalent to:

a. 2.6 X 10-2 Vp

b. 2.6 X 10-1 Vp

c. 2.6 X 102 Vp

d. 2.6 X 103 Vp

d. 2.6 X 104 Vp

d. 2.6 X 104 Vp

122

The SID for a mobil radiograph is often 90 cm. This is equivalent to:

a. 9 X 10-2 m

b. 9 X 10-1 m

c. 9 X 100 m

d. 9 X 102 m

e. 9 X 103 m

b. 9 X 10-1 m

123

A radiographic expsure requires 400 ms. This is also:

a. 0.0004 s

b. 0.004 s

c. 0.04 s

d. 0.4 s

e. 4 s

d. 0.4 s

124

A radiographic exposure is made at 600 mA, 200 ms. This is equivalent to:

a. 1.2 mAs

b. 1.2 X 101 mAs

c. 1.2 X 102 mAs

d. 1.2 X 103 mAs

e. 1.2 X 104 mAs

c. 1.2 X 102 mAs

125

A chest radiograph is conducted at 125 kVp. This is equivalent to:

a. 1.25 X 102 Vp

b. 1.25 X 103 Vp

c. 1.25 X 104 Vp

d. 1.25 X 105 Vp

e. 1.25 X 106 Vp

d. 1.25 X 105 Vp

126

An average annual occupational radiation exposure for a radiographer is approximately 5 mSv. This is equivalent to:

a. 5 X 10-3 Sv

b. 5 X 10-2 Sv

c. 5 X 10-1 Sv

d. 5 X 100 Sv

e. 5 X 102 Sv

a. 5 X 10-3 Sv

127

A lateral chest radiograph will expose a patient to approximately 0.2 mGya. This is equivalent to:

a. 2 X 101 μGya

b. 2 X 102 μGya

c. 2 X 103 μGya

d. 2 X 104 μGya

e. 2 X 105 μGya

b. 2 X 102 μGya

128

The spectrum of visible light extends from approximately 400 nm to 700 nm. This is equal to:

a. (4 to 7) X 10-4 m

b. (4 to 7) X 10-5 m

c. (4 to 7) X 10-6 m

d. (4 to 7) X 10-7 m

e. (4 to 7) X 10-8 m

d. (4 to 7) X 10-7 m

129

Chapter 1-8

Radiological Units

Chapter 1-8

130

A radiation monitoring report would express a radiographer's dose equivalent in which of the following?

a. Becquerel

b. Curie

c. Gray

d. Roentgen

e. Sievert

e. Sievert

131

A posterioranterior (PA) chest radiograph delivers approximately what dose to the patient?

a. 100 eV

b. 100 J

c. 100 mR

d. 100 μGya

e. 100 μGyt

d. 100 μGya

132

To produce death, mice must be irradiated to a total effective dose of approximately:

a. 6 eV

b. 6 Gya

c. 6 Gyt

d. 6 J

e. 6 Sv

c. 6 Gyt

133

The approximate output intensity of a radiographic x-ray tube is:

a. 50 mCi/mAs

b. 50 mJ/mAs

c. 50 μGya/mAs

d. 50 μGyt/mAs

e. 50 μSv/mAs

c. 50 μGya/mAs

134

Tc-99m is the most often used radionuclide in diagnostic nuclear medicine. It is used in quantities of:

a. MBq

b. Ci

c. Gya

d. J

e. Sv

a. MBq

135

The mGya is a unit of measure that specifies which of the following?

a. Absorption of x-rays

b. Attenuation of x-rays

c. Character of x-rays

d. Intensity of x-rays

e. Quality of x-rays

d. Intensity of x-rays

136

Which of the following adequately describes the use of the Gyt?

a. To measure energy absorbed by tissue

b. To measure radiation exposure in air

c. To measure the amount of radioactive material.

d. To measure the occupational exposure received by a radiographer

e. To measure the output intensity of an x-ray machine

a. To measure energy absorbed by tissue

137

Which of the following is a classic radiologic unit?

a. Ampere

b. Coulomb/ kilogram

c. Joule

d. rem

e. Sievert

d. rem

138

if 20 Gyt is delivered to 2g of soft tissue, 1 g of this tissue receives:

a. 0.5 Gyt

b. 10 g-Gyt

c. 10 Gyt

d. 20 g-Gyt

e. 20 Gyt

e. 20 Gyt

139

Absorbed dose can be measured in:

a. ergs

b. Gy

c. J

d. keV

e. kg-Gy

b. Gy

140

Which of the following is not a unit of energy?

a. Calorie

b. Electron volt

c. Erg

d. Gray

e. Joule

d. Gray

141

Which of the following statements is equivalent?

a. 1 Gyt = 1 J/kg

b. 1 mCi = 37 μC/kg

c. 1 Sv = 100 erg/g

d. 200 mrad = 2 cGy

e. 500 mR = 5 mGya

a. 1 Gyt = 1 J/kg

142

Which of the following is a unit of radioactivity?

a. Ci

b. Gy

c. J

d. R

e. Rad

a. Ci

143

Absorbed dose can be expressed in:

a. Bq

b. Ci

c. Erg

d. eV

e. J/kg

e. J/kg

144

Which of the following demonstrate the proper use of air kerma?

a. An angiographer receives an occupational exposure of 10 mGya.

b. 100 Gyt of 131I is administered to image the thyroid.

c. Patient treatment dose with a linear accelerator unit is 6000 R

d. The dose limit (DL) for radiologic technologists is 50 mSv/yr

e. X-ray intensity from linear accelerator unit is 2Gya/min.

e. X-ray intensity from linear accelerator unit is 2Gya/min.

145

In diagnostic radiology, it is acceptable to assume that 1 mGya is equal to:

a. 1 Ci

b. 1 erg

c. 1 J

d. 1keV

e. 1 mGyt

e. 1 mGyt

146

In the SI system:

a. Equivalent dose is expressed in Gy.

b. kVp is equal to keV.

c. 1 J is approximately equal to 1 MeV.

d. 1000 rad is equivalent to 10 Gy.

e. 1000 rad is equivalent to 100 Sv.

d. 1000 rad is equivalent to 10 Gy.

147

Dose rate coul dbe expressed in units of:

a. Ergs/g

b. J/kg/min

c. keV/min

d. kVp/s

e. Sv/min

b. J/kg/min

148

When SI is used, radiation exposure is degined in units of coulombs/kilogram. With regard to this unit of measure, which of the following is true?

a. Coulomb refers to electrons released in ionization.

b. Coulomb refers to energy absorbed.

c. Kilogram refers to mass of radiation.

d. Kilogram refers to the radiation mass.

e. Kilogram refers to the patient's mass.

a. Coulomb refers to electrons released in ionization.