CNS Exam 1

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1

The change from 1 cell type to another is known as what?

Metaplasia

2

Which receptor involves the activation of JAK-STAT?

Cytokine receptor

3

Which receptor involves the inhibition of adenylyl cyclase?

Gi

4

Which receptor involves the stimulation of adenylyl cyclase?

Gs

5

Which receptor has enzymatic activity?

Tyrosine kinase receptor

6

Which receptor is a ligand-receptor dimer that binds to HRE?

Nuclear receptor

7

Which receptor stimulates phospholipase C and involves the formation of DAG and IP3?

Gq

8

What are the 3 main functions of the nervous system?

  1. Sensory
  2. Integration
  3. Motor
9

Which function of the NS involves receiving internal and external input?

Sensory

10

Which function of the NS generates a response?

Motor

11

Which function of the NS involves processing and interpreting sensory stimuli?

Integration

12

What are the 2 divisions of the NS?

  1. CNS
  2. PNS
13

The CNS involves what main components?

  • Brain
  • Spinal cord
14

The PNS is the link between what?

The CNS and the rest of the body

15

Which division correlates to the afferent division?

Sensory division

16

The efferent division correlates to which division?

Motor division

17

Which division of the PNS conducts impulses from the CNS to effectors (muscles and glands)?

Motor (efferent) division

18

Which division of the PNS conducts impulses from receptors to the CNS?

Sensory (afferent) division

19

The Motor (efferent) division is divided into what to subcategories?

  • Somatic NS
  • Autonomic NS
20

Which NS conducts impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles?

Somatic NS

21

Is the somatic NS voluntary or involuntary?

voluntary

22

The Autonomic NS conducts impulses from the CNS to where?

  • Cardiac muscles
  • Smooth muscles
  • Glands
23

Is the ANS voluntary or involuntary?

Involuntary

24

The ANS can be divided into what 2 subcategories?

  • Sympathetic
  • Parasympathetic
25

Which division of the ANS mobilizes body systems during activity?

Sympathetic

26

Which division of the ANS conserves energy and promotes house-keeping functions during rest?

Parasympathetic division

27

The parasympathetic division of the ANS is a.k.a. what?

"Rest and digest"

28

The sympathetic division of the ANS is a.k.a. what?

"Fight or flight"

29

Which Glial cell is most abundant in the body?

Astrocyte

30

What are the main functions of astrocytes?

  • BBB Formation
  • Synaptic formation
  • Recycle ions and transmitters
31

Which Glial cell is "immune-like"?

Microglial cells

32

Which glial cells line ventricles?

Ependymal cells

33

Ependymal cells help circulate what?

CSF

34

Which Glial cells form myelin in the CNS?

Oligodendrocytes

35

Which cells form myelin in the PNS?

Schwann cells

36

Which cells act as a protective barrier, support, and provide nutrients to the nerve cell in the periphery?

Satellite cells

37

Gaps in the myelin sheaths along the axon are known as what?

Nodes of Ranvier

38

Glial cells repeatedly wrap around axon to form what?

Myelin sheaths

39

Glial cells surround axon but do not repeatedly wrap around it are known as what?

Unmyelinated axons

40

Which neurons are the most common?

Multipolar

41

What is an example of a multipolar neuron?

  • Purkinje cell of cerebellum
  • Pyramidal cell
42

Which neurons are associated with sensory organs?

Bipolar

43

List an example of a bipolar neuron:

  • Olfactory cell
  • Retinal cell
44

Which neurons are sensory neurons in the PNS?

Unipolar

45

Neuron cell bodies and unmyelinated axons refers to what?

Gray matter

46

Collection of neuronal cell bodies in brain are known as what?

Nuclei

47

Collection of neuronal cell bodies in the periphery are known as what?

Ganglia

48

Bundles of myelinated axons are known as what?

White matter

49

The Difference in charge across the plasma membrane in an unstimulated state is known as what?

Resting membrane potential

50

List the characteristics of graded potentials:

  • Depolarizations or hyperpolarizations
  • Localized
  • Short duration
  • Proportional to stimulus strength
51

List the characteristics of Action potentials:

  • Brief reversal of membrane potential, from -70mV to +20-30 mV
  • Do not decrease in strength with distance
  • All or none events
52

In what axon type would saltatory conduction (action potential jumps from node to node) occur?

Myelinated axon

53

Based on the characteristics shown below, what group of myelinated fibers does it describe?

–Small diameter

–Unmyelinated

–Conduct action potentials at 2 m/s or less

–SNS and PNS

Group C

54

Based on the characteristics shown below, what group of myelinated fibers does it describe?

–Large diameter

–Thick myelin sheaths

–Conduct action potentials at 15-120 m/s

–Motor neurons to skeletal muscles; sensory neurons

Group A

55

Based on the characteristics shown below, what group of myelinated fibers does it describe?

-Medium diameter

–Lightly myelinated

–Conduct action potentials at 3-15 m/s

–ANS

Group B

56

True or False: Nerve fibers do not differ in speed.

False; do differ

57

The site of communication between two cells is referred to as what?

Synapse

58

Which part of the synapse sends the signal?

Presynaptic cell

59

The space between pre and post synaptic cells is referred to as what?

Synaptic cleft

60

Which part of the synapse receive the signal?

Postsynaptic cell

61

Which synapse type is less common?

Electrical

62

Electrical synapses are related to what?

Gap junctions

63

Electrical synapses are found where?

  • Hippocampus
  • Glial cells
64

Which synapse type releases and receives neurotransmitters?

Chemical synapses

65

These are located in the presynaptic terminal and contain neurotransmitters.

Synaptic vesicles

66

Describe the process of Chemical synaptic transmission:

  1. Action potential arrives at the axon terminal and causes depolarization of the membrane. The depolarization opens voltage-gated Ca2+ channels and Ca2+ enters the axon terminal.
  2. Ca2+ interacts with intracellular proteins which cause vesicles to fuse with the plasma membrane and then exocytosis of neurotransmitters occurs.
  3. Neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft and bind to specific receptors on postsynaptic membrane.
  4. Receptor binding of neurotransmitters causes conformational changes in the receptors that open the ion channels. As a result, graded potentials occur in the postsynaptic cell.
    • Whether the graded potential is excitatory (depolarization) or inhibitory (hyperpolarization) depends on the receptors present on the postsynaptic cell.
  5. Neurotransmitter effects are terminated. In this example, the neurotransmitter is degraded by an enzyme. Neurotransmitter action may also be terminated by reuptake through a transporter or diffusion away from the synapse.
67

An ionic current flows between adjacent cells refers to which synapse type?

Electrical synapse

68

A local depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane is known as a what?

Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential (EPSP)

69

EPSPs help produce an action potential in what location of the postsynaptic neuron?

Axon hillock

70

With EPSPs there is an increase in permeability to what?

Na+

71

A local hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane is referred to as a what?

Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potential (IPSP)

72

IPSPs drive the neuron away from what?

AP threshold

73

In regards to IPSPs there is an increase in permeability to what?

  • K+
  • Cl-
74

The following bullets describe what?

–EPSPs or IPSPs are generated in quick succession

–One (or more) presynaptic neurons can influence the postsynaptic neuron

–2 excitatory stimuli close in time cause EPSPs that add together

Temporal Summation

75

The following bullets describe what?

–Postsynaptic neuron is stimulated simultaneously by many presynaptic terminals

–Postsynaptic neuron generates EPSPs or IPSPs based on simultaneous stimulation from more than one presynaptic terminal or neuron

Spatial Summation

76

Repeated or continuous use of a synapse enhances presynpatic neuron’s ability to excite postsynaptic neuron relates to what?

Synaptic Potentiation

77

Ca2+ in presynaptic neuron causes release of more what?

Neurotransmitters

78

Ca2+ influx in postsynaptic neuron activates what?

intracellular proteins

79

Reduction in amount of neurotransmitter released from presynaptic terminal refers to what?

Presynaptic inhibition

80

What is an example of presynaptic inhibition?

enkephalins and endorphins on pain transmission

81

What is an example of synaptic potentiation?

long term potentiation (LTP) in hippocampus

82

The sequential stimulation of neurons that causes an anticipated response refers to what?

Serial processing

83

What is an example of serial processing?

Reflex arcs

84

Information is processed by many parts of the circuitry refers to what?

Parallel processing

85

What is an example of higher level mental functioning?

Parallel processing

86

What type of neuronal circuit involves one input, and many outputs?

Diverging circuit

87

Diverging circuits can be referred to as what?

Amplifying circuits

88

What type of neuronal circuit relates to many inputs, and one output?

Converging circuit

89

Converging circuits can be referred to as what?

Concentrating circuits

90

Give an example of a diverging circuit:

A single brain neuron activating more than 100 motor neurons in the spinal cord and thousands of skeletal muscle fibers.

91

Give an example of a converging circuit:

Different sensory stimuli can all elicit the same memory.

92

A signal travels through a chain of neurons, each feeding back to previous neurons describes what type of neuronal circuit?

Reverberating circuit

93

A reverberating circuit can be referred to as a what?

Oscillating ciruit

94

A reverberating circuit controls what specifically?

Rhythmic activity

95

Which neuronal circuit relates to a signal stimulating neurons arranged in parallel arrays that eventually converge on a single output cell?

Parallel after discharge circuit

96

Give an example of a reverberating circuit:

  • breathing
  • sleep-wake cycle
  • repetitive motor activity (walking)
97

In parallel after-discharge circuit, impulses reach output cell at different times, causing a burst of impulses called what?

after-discharge

98

Give an example of a parallel after-discharge circuit:

May be involved in exacting mental processes such as mathematical calculations

99

Where is Acetylcholine released from?

Vagus nerve

100

Which drug prevents breakdown of ACh by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase?

Donepezil (Aricept)

101

Describe the synthesis of Acetylcholine:

  1. Choline is transported into the axon terminal.
  2. Choline acetyltransferase (ChAT) catalyzes the acetylation of choline with acetyl CoA to form acetylcholine (ACh).
  3. ACh is transported into storage synaptic vesicles via a transporter (VAT).
  4. ACh is released via a Ca2+-dependent mechanism and exocytosis.
  5. ACh is degraded by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE).
102

Which drug inhibits release of ACh by altering fusion proteins?

Botulinum toxin (Botox)

103

What are the main functions of ACh in the CNS?

  • Attention
  • Memory
  • Learning
104

ACh activates which receptors?

  • Nicotinic ACh
  • Muscarinic ACh
105

Nicotinic ACh receptors are what kind of receptors?

ionotropic

106

What is the function of Nicotinic ACh receptors?

Cause an influx of Na+

107

Nicotinic ACh receptors cause what kind of response inside of the cell?

Excitatory

108

Do Nicotinic ACh receptors cause a graded depolarization of hyperpolarization?

depolarization (because of influx of Na+)

109

What is the structure of a Nicotinic ACh receptor?

Pentamer

110

Muscarinic ACh receptors are what?

GPCRs/metabotropic

111

The M1, M3, and M5 muscarinic ACh receptors bind to which G protein?

Gq

112

The M2 and M4 muscarinic ACh receptors bind to which G protein?

Gi

113

Do the M1, M3, and M5 muscarinic ACh receptors have an excitatory or inhibitory affect?

excitatory (because of binding to Gq)

114

Do the M2 and M4 muscarinic ACh receptors have an excitatory or inhibitory affect?

inhibitory (because of binding to Gi)

115

Describe the synthesis of Catecholamines:

  1. Tyrosine is transported into the axon terminal.
  2. Tyrosine is converted to Dopa by tyrosine hydroxylase.
  3. Dopa is converted to dopamine by dopa decarboxylase.
  4. Dopamine is transported into storage synaptic vesicles via a transporter (VMAT).
  5. Dopamine is converted to Norepinephrine (NE) inside the vesicle by dopamine-β-hydroxylase. (NE can be converted to epinephrine (E) by PMNT.)
  6. NE is released via a Ca2+-dependent mechanism and exocytosis.
  7. NE action is primarily terminated by reuptake via NET. Enzymatic degradation can also occur. Reuptake by a transporter on the postsynaptic cell may occur in some cells.
116

Which drugs prevent reuptake of NE by inhibiting the transporter (NET)?

  • Cocaine
  • TCAs
117

What are the 3 Catecholamines?

  • Dopamine
  • Norepinephrine
  • Epinephrine
118

What are the 3 biogenic amines?

  • Catecholamines
  • Serotonin
  • Histamine
119

What is the transporter responsible for reuptake of NE and E?

NET

120

What is the transporter responsible for the reuptake of DA?

DAT

121

Catecholamines can be enzymatically degraded by which two types of enzymes?

  • Monoamine oxidase (MAO)
    • MAO-A
    • MAO-B
  • Catechol-O-methyl (COMT)
122

MAO is located where?

Mitochondria

123

COMT is located where?

Cytoplasm

124

What is the major metabolite produced with enzymatic degradation of NE and E?

VMA

125

What is the major metabolite produced with enzymatic degradation of DA?

HVA

126

Where is NE released from in the CNS?

  • Brainstem
    • locus coeruleus
    • pons and medulla nuclei
127

Where is NE released from in the PNS?

Sympathetic postganglionic fibers of ANS

128

What are the main functions of NE?

  • Arousal
  • Attention
  • Mood
  • Sympathetic Nervous System: blood pressure, heart rate
129

Norepinephrine activates which receptors?

Adrenergic

130

The Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor is a GPCR coupled to which G protein?

Gq

131

The Beta-1,2,3 adrenergic receptors are GPCRs that couple to which G protein?

Gs

132

The Alpha-2 adrenergic receptors are GPCRs that couple to which G protein?

Gi

133

Where is most E found?

Periphery

134

E activates which receptors?

Adrenergic

135

The death of neurons following prolonged excitatory synaptic transmission is known as what?

Excitotoxicity

136

Excitotoxicity is associated with which amino acid?

Glutamate

137

DA is released from where?

Brainstem [Substantia nigra pars compacta & Ventral tegmental area (VTA)]

138

DA is released from the hypothalamus following which pathway?

Tuberoinfundibular

139

The Tuberoinfundibular pathway inhibits what?

prolactin release

140

The release of DA via the substantia nigra pars compacta of the brainstem follows which pathway?

Nigrostriatal pathway

141

The Nigrostriatal pathway is what type of pathway?

Motor

142

The release of DA via the Ventral tegmental area (VTA) of the brainstem relates to which pathways?

  • Mesolimbic
  • Mesocortical
143

The Mesolimbic pathway relates to what?

Reward (feelings of pleasure)

144

The Mesocortical pathway relates to what?

  • Cognition
  • Social Behavior
145

Dopamine (DA) activates which receptors?

Dopamine receptors

146

D1 and D5 Dopamine receptors couple to which G protein?

Gs

147

Which G protein couples to the Dopamine receptors (D2,D3, & D4)?

Gi

148

Describe the synthesis of Serotonin:

  1. Tryptophan is transported into the axon terminal.
  2. Tryptophan is converted to 5-hydroxytryptophan by tryptophan hydroxylase.
  3. 5-hydroxytryptophan is converted to serotonin (5-HT, 5-hydroxytryptamine) by dopa decarboxylase.
  4. 5-HT is transported into storage synaptic vesicles via a transporter (VMAT).
  5. 5-HT is released via a Ca2+-dependent mechanism and exocytosis.
  6. 5-HT action is primarily terminated by reuptake via SERT. Enzymatic degradation can also occur.
149

The termination of action for Serotonin is what?

Reuptake

150

Serotonin is converted into what in the Pineal gland?

Melatonin

151

Which transporter is responsible for the reuptake of Serotonin?

SERT

152

Where is SERT found?

  • Presynaptic axon terminals in CNS
  • Platelets
153

Serotonin can be enzymatically degraded by which 2 enzymes?

  • MAO-A
  • Aldehyde dehydrogenase
154

What is the major metabolite of Serotonin?

5-HIAA

155

Where is Serotonin released from?

Brainstem (raphe nuclei)

156

What are the main functions of Serotonin?

  • Sleep
  • Wakefulness
  • Mood
  • Eating
157

Which drugs prevent reuptake of 5-HT by inhibiting the serotonin transporter (SERT)?

SSRIs

158

True or False: All 5HT receptors are GPCRs except for one.

True

159

Which 5HT receptor is a ligand gated ion channel (ionotropic receptor)?

5-HT3

160

The 5-HT1 receptors are GPCRs that bind to which G protein?

Gi

161

What are found on the neurons from raphe nuclei?

Autoreceptors

162

5-HT1A receptors are typically found where?

somatodendritic regions (soma and dendritic region)

163

5-HT1D/1B receptors are typically found where?

presynaptic axon terminals

164

True or False: There are no postsynaptic 5-HT1 receptors in other brain regions.

False; there are

165

Which Serotonin receptors are associated with the activation of PLC (and therefore are assoc. w/ Gq)?

  • 5-HT2A
  • 5-HT2C
166

In association with 5-HT2A receptors, how can slow depolarization occur in brain areas such as the pre-frontal cortex and the nucleus accumbens with these receptors?

By the inhibition of K+ channels

167

Which serotonin receptor is associated with a fast depolarization?

5-HT3 (ligand gated ion channel)

168

Where are the 5-HT3 receptors found?

Area postrema of brainstem

169

The Area postrema of the brainstem is associated with what?

Emesis (vomiting)

170

Where is Histamine released from?

Hypothalamus

171

What are the main functions of Histamine in the CNS?

  • Arousal
  • Attention
172

What are the main functions of Histamine in the PNS?

  • Allergic reactions
  • Inflammation
  • Stomach acid release
173

What is the termination of action of Histamine?

Ezymatic degradation

  • MAO-B
  • Histamine methyltransferase
174

Histamine activates what kind of receptors?

Histamine Receptors

175

What are the subtypes of the Histamine receptors?

GPCRs

176

The H1 Histamine receptor couples to which G protein?

Gq

177

The H2 Histamine receptor couples to which G protein?

Gs

178

The H3 Histamine receptor couples to which G protein?

Gi

179

Describe the synthesis of Histamine:

  1. Histidine is transported into nerve terminal.
  2. Histidine decarboxylase catalyzes conversion of histidine to histamine.
  3. Histamine is stored in vesicles.
  4. Histamine is released via exocytosis.
  5. Histamine interacts with its receptors.
  6. Histamine is metabolized by histamine methyltransferase, which is followed by MAO oxidation.
180

Which drugs are first generation H1 antagonists, that cause somnolence (sleepiness)?

  • Diphenhydramine
  • Chlorpheneramine
181

The major inhibitory neurotransmitter in brain is known as what?

GABA

182

Damage or lesions to the Parietal Association Cortex can result in what disorder?

Contralateral neglect syndrome

183

What is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord?

Glycine

184

What is the Major excitatory neurotransmitter in CNS?

Glutamate

185

GABA is an important messenger where?

Inhibitory synapses

186

What converts Glutamate into GABA?

GAD

187

What does GAD use as a cofactor to convert Glutamate into GABA?

Pyridoxal phosphate

188

Describe the synthesis of GABA:

  1. Glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) converts Glutamate to GABA
  2. Vesicular inhibitory amino acid transporter (VIATT) transports GABA into storage synaptic vesicles
  3. GABA is released via a Ca2+-dependent mechanism and exocytosis.
189

What is the termination of action for GABA?

Reuptake

190

Which GABA transporter is responsible for the reuptake?

GAT

191

GABA can also be terminated via metabolism. GABA is metabolized inside the cell by what? Then by what?

GABA transaminase, then semialdehyde dehydrogenase

192

Semialdehyde dehydrogenase is converted to what?

Succinate

193

What is a metabolite of GABA?

GHB

194

Which GABA receptor is a ligand gated chloride channel pentamer?

GABAA

195

Activation of GABAA receptor causes influx of what ions?

Cl- (leading to hyperpolarization)

196

How many molecules of GABA bind to the alpha subunits?

2

197

The gamma subunit associated with GABA allows for the binding of which drugs?

benzodiazepine (BDZ)

198

Which GABA receptor is a heterodimer of R1 and R2 subunits?

GABAB

199

The GABAB receptor is a GPCR that couples to which G protein?

Gi

200

Where is the GABAB receptor located?

  • Presynaptic autoreceptors
  • Postsynaptic receptors
201

Describe the neurotransmission (synthesis) of Glycine:

  1. Serine transhydroxymethylase converts serine to glycine
  2. VIATT transports glycine into storage vesicles
  3. Glycine is released via a Ca2+-dependent mechanism and exocytosis.
  4. Reuptake of glycine by the glycine transporter terminates glycine’s action in the synapse
202

Glycine is a what at glutamate receptors?

co-agonist

203

Glycine activates what kind of receptors?

Glycine

204

True or False: Glycine receptors are GPCRs

False (ligand gated chloride channels)

205

True or False: Glycine is a pentamer (alpha and beta subunits)

True

206

Glycine binds to what subunits?

alpha

207

What is a glycine antagonist that can result in Opisthotonus (spasms of skeletal muscles causing backward arching of the head, neck, and spine)?

Strychnine

208

Describe the Neurotransmission of Glutamate:

  1. Glutaminase converts glutamine to glutamate
  2. VGLUT transports glutamate into storage vesicles
  3. Glutamate undergoes reuptake by EAAT/GATT, an excitatory amino acid transporter
209

Glutamate activates what receptors?

Glutamate

210

What are the 3 subtypes of ionotropic receptors (assoc with Glu)?

  • NMDA
  • Kainate
  • AMPA
211

What are the 8 subtypes of metabotropic receptors assoc. w/ glutamate?

mGluR1-8

212

NMDA receptors involve the flux of what ions through channel?

  • Na+(influx)
  • K+ (efflux)
  • Ca2+ (influx)
213

AMPA and Kainate receptors involve the flux of what ions through channel?

  • Na+
  • K+
214

Glutamate is an important messenger at inhibitory or excitatory synapses?

excitatory

215

NMDA receptors are ligand gated and what?

Voltage dependent

216

Activation of the NMDA receptor requires what 2 things?

  • glutamate
  • co-agonist glycine
217

The Activation of the NMDA receptor requires what to remove the Mg2+ plug?

graded depolarizations or EPSPs

218

Which glutamate receptors are involved in long term potentiation, a mechanism involved in learning and memory?

NMDA

219

True or False: All glutamate receptors are ionotropic.

False; Group I, II, and III are GPCRs

220

The Death of neurons following prolonged excitatory synaptic transmission refers to what?

Excitotoxicity

221

Excitotoxicity is associated which amino acid?

Glutamate

222
  • VTA DA neurons release DA in the where that leads to feelings of pleasure, reward

Nucleus Accumbens

223

Which neurons can inhibit VTA DA neurons?

GABA

224

Which neurons can activate VTA DA neurons?

Glu

225

Which neurons can inhibit GABA neurons

Opioid

226

Opioid neurons cause WHAT of VTA DA neurons

disinhibition

227

Which receptors are referred to as retrograde messengers?

Endocannabinoids

228

What are the 2 major endocannabinoids?

  • AEA
  • 2-AG (mostly responsible)
229

Describe the synthesis and degradation of Endocannabinoids:

  • AEA is synthesized from NAPE (N-acyl-phosphatidylethanolamine) by NAPE-PLD (NAPE-specific phospholipase D)
  • AEA is degraded by fatty acid amide hydrolase (FAAH) to arachidonic acid (AA) and ethanolamine
  • 2-AG is synthesized from DAG by DAGLα (diacylglycerol lipase-α)
  • 2-AG is degraded by MAGL (monoacylglycerol lipase) to AA and glycerol
230

Endocannabinoids are produced by postsynaptic terminals and travel to presynaptic neuron to activate what?

Cannabinoid receptors

231

Cannabinoid receptors are GPCRs that couple to which G protein?

Gi

232

Majority of CNS cannabinoid effects are thought to be mediated by which receptors

CB1 receptors

233

Activation of CB1 receptors decreases what?

neurotransmitter release

234

CB1 Receptors are located where?

  • Basal ganglia
  • cerebellum
  • hippocampus
  • cerebral cortex
235

CB2 Receptors are located where?

  • Immune system
  • Few brain areas
236

Polypeptides synthesized WHERE are larger than final peptide released at axon terminal

Cell bodies

237

Describe the synthesis of peptides:

  1. Pre-propeptides
    • Synthesized in rough ER
  2. Propeptide packaged into vesicles by the Golgi
  3. Final processing to neuropeptide occurs in vesicles
  4. Released by presynaptic neuron
  5. Inactivated by peptidases
238

These peptides Transmit information about pain

Substance P

239

Substance P is assoc. w/ which receptor?

neurokinin 1 (NK1)

240

NK1 activates what?

PLC

241

These inhibit pain transmission:

Opioids

242

Describe the summary of Substance P:

  1. Pain stimulus leads to action potential generation and causes release of Glu and Sub P from presynaptic neuron.
  2. Glu and Sub P activate their receptors on the postsynaptic neuron, which causes depolarizations and leads to action potential generation, thus the transmission of pain to the brain.
243

Describe the summary of Opioids:

  1. Opioids activate their receptors on the presynaptic neuron, which leads to hyperpolarization and thus prevents the release of Glu and Sub P.
  2. Glu or Sub P receptors are not activated on postsynaptic neuron, thus no action potential generation and no pain transmission.
  3. Opioids can also activate their receptors on the postsynaptic neuron and cause hyperpolarization inside of the cell, which prevents action potential generation, and thus prevents pain transmission to the brain.
244

True or False: Polypeptides synthesized in cell bodies can produce more than one type of neuropeptide.

True

245

Which part of the brain is thought to be involved with making plans, personality, etc.?

Frontal lobe

246

Which part of the brain relates to receiving and integrating sensory sensations/sensory info of the body?

Parietal lobe

247

Which part of the brain corresponds to visual function?

Occipital lobe

248

Which part of the brain relates to hearing or audition?

Temporal

249

Which part of the brain separates the frontal and parietal lobe?

Central sulcus

250

What is just in front of the central sulcus?

Pre-central gyrus

251

What is just behind the central sulcus?

Post-central sulcus

252

A ridge or bump in cortical tissue is known as what?

Gyrus

253

A very deep sulcus is known as a what?

Fissure

254

What separates the cerebral hemispheres (right and left)?

Longitudinal fissure

255

What area of the brain separates the the cerebral hemispheres from the cerebellum?

Transverse fissure

256

Which part of the brain separates the frontal lobe from the temporal and parietal lobe?

Lateral fissure

257

Cavities or hollowed areas found in the brain are referred to as what?

Ventricles

258

When are ventricles formed?

During embryonic development

259

Ventricles in the brain are filled with what?

CSF

260

The lateral ventricles connect to the third ventricle via the what?

Interventricular foramen

261

The third ventricle connects to the fourth ventricle via the what?

Cerebral aqueduct

262

The fourth ventricle of the brain empties into the what?

Central canal

263

What types of cells are found on the walls of the ventricles?

Ependymal (help move CSF)

264

The lateral ventricles are associated with what part of the brain?

Cerebral hemispheres

265

The third ventricle is associated with what part of the brain?

Diencephalon

266

The fourth ventricle is associated with what part of the brain?

Brainstem

267

Small holes or openings that allow for CSF to exit the ventricular system are known as what?

Apertures

268

The fourth ventricle is associated with how many apertures?

3 (2 lateral and 1 median)

269

Once CSF exits the ventricular system via apertures where does it go?

Subarachnoid space

270

Where is our conscious mind found?

Cerebral cortex

271

How thick is the cerebral cortex?

4 mm

272

The subarachnoid space is associated with the what?

Meninges

273

What does the cerebral cortex contain?

  • Neurons
  • Glia
  • Blood vessels
274

How many layers of cells make up the cerebral cortex?

6

275

What are the 2 main cell types found in the cerebral cortex?

  1. Stellate cells (have short axons)
  2. Pyramidal cells (have long axons)
276

What are the 3 functional areas of the cerebral cortex?

  • Motor
  • Sensory
  • Association
277

What is the term used to describe how the right hemisphere controls the left side of the body and how the left hemisphere controls the right side of the body?

contralateral

278

Which cortex of the brain consciously controls skilled movements of skeletal muscles?

Primary motor cortex

279

The primary motor cortex is located where in regards to the central sulcus?

Precentral gyrus

280

Which cortex of the brain plans movements?

Premotor cortex

281

Which cortex of the brain correlates to voluntary eye movements?

Frontal eye field

282

Which cortex of the brain is the motor speech area?

Broca's area

283

What is used to display or represent that the amount of cortical tissue that is devoted to controlling different muscle groups in the body?

Motor Homunculus

284

Which sensory cortex receives information from somatic sensory receptors and propioceptors?

Primary somatosensory cortex

285

Which sensory cortex integrates sensory inputs?

Somatosensory association cortex

286

Which sensory cortex receives visual information from the retina of the eye?

Primary visual cortex

287

Which sensory cortex interprets visual stimuli?

Visual association area

288

Which sensory cortex receives information from the inner ear?

Primary auditory cortex

289

Which sensory cortex is associated with the perception of sound stimulus?

Auditory association area

290

What represents that a certain amount of cortical tissue devoted to a particular body part, the more sensitive that body part is?

Sensory Homunculus

291

Which sensory cortex is a medial aspect of the temporal lobe that detects smells?

Olfactory cortex

292

What 3 sensory cortices are found in the insula?

  1. Gustatory cortex
  2. Visceral sensory area
  3. Vestibular cortex
293

Which sensory cortex relates to internal sensations (ex. full bladder, stomachache, etc.)?

Visceral sensory area

294

Which sensory cortex is associated with the ear and balance?

Vestibular cortex

295

Which sensory cortex is responsible for taste?

Gustatory

296

The insula is sometimes referred to as the what?

5th lobe of the brain

297

What allows us to give meaning to the information we receive, store it in memory, decide on actions, and more?

Association areas

298

Which association area is related to planning for voluntary activity, decision making, personality traits, etc.)?

Prefrontal association cortex (anterior association area)

299

Which association area is mostly on the inner and bottom surface of the temporal lobe and is associated with motivation, emotion, and memory?

Limbic association cortex

300

Which association area correlates to the integration of all sensory input and is important in language?

Parietal-temporal-occipital association cortex (posterior association area)

301

The right hemisphere of the cerebrum relates to what?

  • visual
  • creativity
302

The left hemisphere of the cerebrum relates to what?

  • language
  • math
  • logic
303

Each hemisphere "specializes" in certain functions relates to what in regards to the cerebrum?

Lateralization

304

This refers to one hemisphere of the cerebrum being more inclined to certain functions than the other (ex. the left hemisphere being associated with language more than the right):

Cerebral dominance

305

What connects the hemispheres?

Commissures

306

What connects the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum?

Corpus callosum

307

These connect parts of the same hemisphere:

Association fibers

308

Give an example of short association fibers:

Adjacent Gyri

309

Give an example of long association fibers:

Lobes

310

White matter represents what?

Myelinated axons

311

What connects the cortex to lower brain areas?

Projection fibers

312

Which projection fibers bring info into the cerebral cortex?

Ascending

313

Which projection fibers take info from the cerebral cortices and connect it to lower brain areas?

Descending

314

List some examples of projection fibers:

  • Internal capsule
  • Corona radiata
315

Masses of gray matter deep within cerebral white matter refer to the what?

Basal ganglia

316

What are the functions of the basal ganglia?

  • Control movement
    • Inhibit muscle tone throughout the body
    • Select and maintain purposeful motor activity while suppressing useless or unwanted patterns of movement
    • Monitor and coordinate slow, sustained contractions
  • Modify ongoing activity in motor pathways
  • Do not act directly on motor neurons
317

The Caudate and Putamen of the Basal ganglia are referred to as the what?

Striatum

318

The Putamen and the Globus Pallidus are referred to as the what?

Lentiform nucleus

319

Net effect of activation by glutamate or dopamine:

Excitation of thalamus--> Movement

This refers to which pathway?

Direct Pathway

320

Net effect of activation:

Inhibition of the thalamus--> inhibition of movement

This refers to which pathway?

Indirect pathway

321

Net effect of dopamine is to inhibit the indirect pathway

Allows excitation of the thalamus--> Movement

This refers to which pathway?

Indirect pathway

322

Substantia nigra pars compacta to striatum refers to which pathway?

Nigrostriatal pathway

323

The degeneration of dopaminergic fibers in nigrostriatal pathway refers to what disease?

Parkinson's

324

What 3 components make up the Diencephalon?

  • Thalamus
  • Hypothalamus
  • Epithalamus
325

What is the “relay station” between cortex and rest of the brain and body?

Thalamus

326

The thalamus is associated with what functions?

  • sensation
  • motor activity
  • cortical arousal
  • learning
  • memory
327

What component of the brain helps the body maintain homeostasis?

Hypothalamus

328

The pneumonic HEAL relates to the hypothalamus and what components it relates to. Name each component of the pneumonic.

  • Homeostasis
  • Endocrine
  • Autonomic
  • Limbic
329

What important area of the hypothalamus is directly related to food intake?

Arcuate nucleus

330

The arcuate nucleus are related to what neurons?

POMC

331

POMC is a precursor that is cleaved to what?

Melanocortins

332

What are the functions of melanocortins?

Reduce food intake

333

These neurons are also associated with the arcuate nucleus and promote food intake:

NPY

334

Which drug activates 5-HT2C receptors, which increases production of melanocortins and reduces food intake?

Lorcaserin (Belviq)

335

Locaserin binds to which G protein?

Gq

336

Locaserin binding to Gq, leads to what?

closure of K+ ion channels

337

There are 5-HT2C receptors on what in the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus?

POMC neurons

338

The use of the drug Locaserin leads to a feeling of what?

Satiety

339

Which drug binds to NET (possibly DAT) and causes release of NE (possibly DA) from presynaptic neurons?

Phentermine (Adipex-P)

340

Phentermine is what kind of drug (what is it's class)?

Sympathomimetic (similar to amphetamine)

341

Which neurotransmitters act on hypothalamic areas to reduce food intake and promote satiety?

  • NE
  • DA
342

Which drug is a combination product that has an anticonvulsant that has properties that lead to weight loss?

Qsymia (Phentermine and Topiramate)

343

The sleep-wake cycle is associated with what part of the brain?

Hypothalamus

344

Why is the hypothalamus an important component of the endocrine system?

Releases hormones that act on pituitary gland (either activate or inhibit)

345

There are clusters of groups of neurons that regulate what?

ANS

346

The hypothalamus is associated with what system that relates to emotion?

Limbic system

347

What are the 2 main components of the epithalamus?

  • Pineal body
  • Habenula
348

The pineal body is responsible for secreting what?

Melatonin

349

The habenula is responsible in helping with what?

Emotions (limbic system)- specifically negative emotions

350

What is the oldest part of our brain (in evolutionary terms)?

Brainstem

351

What are the 3 components of the brainstem?

  • Midbrain
  • Pons
  • Medulla Oblongata
352

What are the three main parts of the midbrain?

  • Cerebral peduncles
  • Cerebellar peduncles
  • Corpora quadrigemina (tectum)
353

Which part of the midbrain is associated with the corticospinal motor tracts?

Cerebral peduncles

354

Which part of the midbrain connects the brainstem to the cerebellum?

Cerebellar peduncles

355

What are the different portions of the tegmentum (found in the midbrain)?

  • Periaqueductal gray (PAG)
  • Substantia nigra
  • Red nucleus
  • Cranial nerves
356

Which portion of the tegmentum is associated with pain suppression?

PAG

357

The PAG of the tegmentum links what two things?

Amygdala to ANS

358

The Substantia nigra is associated with what neurotransmitter?

Dopamine (DA)

359

What is the function of the Red Nucleus of the Tegmentum?

Relay nuclei

360

What are the two main portions of the Pons?

  • Pontine nuclei
  • Cranial nerves
361

The Pontine nuclei connects what two things together?

Motor cortex to cerebellum

362

The middle cerebellar peduncles of the pontine nuclei connect to the what?

Cerebellum

363

What are the main portions of the medulla oblongata?

  • Inferior cerebellar peduncles
  • Inferior olivary nuclei
  • Medial lemniscal tract: ascending sensory tracts
  • Pyramids
364

Which portion of the medulla oblongata relates to sensory info on muscles and joints?

Inferior olivary nuclei

365

Which portion of the medulla oblongata connects to the cerebellum?

Inferior cerebellar peduncles

366

Which portion of the medulla oblongata is associated with Cross-over?

Pyramids

367

What are some centers associated with the medulla oblongata?

  • Cardiovascular center
    • Cardiac Center
    • Vasomotor center
  • Respiratory center
368

What are the 3 lobes of the cerebellum?

  1. Anterior lobe
  2. Posterior lobe
  3. Flocculonodular lobe
369

What lobes of the cerebellum coordinate body movements?

  • Anterior lobe
  • Posterior lobe
370

What is the function of the flocculonodular lobe?

Adjust posture to maintain balance

371

The cerebellum has an outer cortex comprised of what?

gray matter

372

What in the cerebellum are what receive sensory info?

Purkinje cells

373

Once purkinje cells of the cerebellum receive info, where is that info sent?

Deep cerebellar nuclei

374

What are the 3 cerebellar peduncles associated with the cerebellum?

  • Superior
  • Middle
  • Inferior
375

The Superior cerebellar peduncles connect to the what?

midbrain

376

The middle cerebellar peduncles extend from where to where?

pons to cerebellum

377

The inferior cerebellar peduncles extend from where to where?

medulla to cerebellum

378

Networks of neurons in the brain are referred to as what?

Functional brain systems

379

Which system of the brain is known as the "emotional brain"?

Limbic system

380

The pneumonic "HOME" relates to the limbic system and what it is associated with. What does each letter stand for?

  • Homeostasis
  • Olfaction
  • Memory
  • Emotions and Drives
381

Long lasting enhancement of synaptic activity is referred to as what?

Long term potentiation (LTP)

382

LTP is a form of what?

Neuronal plasticity

383

Neural basis for learning and memory is known as what?

Neuronal plasticity

384

What key structure of the limbic system is associated with homeostasis?

Hypothalamus

385

What key structure of the limbic system is associated with olfaction?

Olfactory complex

386

What key structure of the limbic system is associated with Memory?

Hippocampus

387

What key structure of the limbic system is associated with emotions and drives?

Amygdala

388

The reticular formation extends through the what?

brainstem

389

The reticular formation projects to what parts of the brain?

  • Cortex
  • Thalamus
  • Hypothalamus
  • Cerebellum
390

The reticular formation of the brain is related to motor output to where?

spinal cord

391

The reticular activating system (RAS) is associated with what?

  • Alertness
  • Acts as a filter (filters incoming sensory info coming into brain)
392

The raphe nuclei produces what neurotransmitter?

5-HT

393

The locus coeruleus produces what neurotransmitter?

NE

394

The substantia nigra produces what neurotransmitter?

DA

395

What records patterns of neuronal activity in the cortex?

Brain Function Electroencephalogram (EEG)

396

What are regular, rhythmic waves where a person would be awake, but relaxed on an EEG?

Alpha waves

397

If a person is alert, but concentrating, what waves would most likely be displayed on an EEG?

Beta waves?

398

If a person is in deep sleep, then what high amplitude waves would be displayed?

Delta waves

399

Which EEG waves are most common in children?

Theta waves

400

Which stage of sleep relates to where relaxation begins; EEG shows alpha waves; arousal is easy?

NREM stage 1

401

Which stage of sleep relates to EEG being dominated by delta waves; arousal is difficult; bed-wetting, night terrors, and sleepwalking may occur?

NREM stage 4

402

Which stage of sleep relates to sleep deepening; theta and delta waves appear; vital signs decline?

NREM stage 3

403

Which stage of sleep relates to skeletal muscles being inactively inhibited; and most dreaming occurs?

REM

404

Which stage of sleep relates to irregular EEG with sleep spindles; arousal more difficult?

NREM stage 2

405

Storage and retrieval of information or the ability to recall or recognize previous experience is known as what?

Memory

406

Short-term memory (working memory) is limited to how many chunks of info?

7-8 chunks

407

Which memory type has limitless capacity?

Long-term memory

408

Which type of memory is associated with fact?

Declarative

409

Which type of memory is associated with skills?

Procedural

410

Which type of memory is associated with physical activity or "muscle memory"?

Motor

411

Which type of memory would relate to things such as fear, anger, happiness, etc.?

Emotional

412

What are the functions of the meninges?

  • Cover and protect CNS
  • Protect blood vessels
  • Contain CSF
  • Subdivide cranial cavity
413

What are the 3 connective tissue membranes of the meninges?

  • Dura mater
  • Arachnoid mater
  • Pia mater
414

This is where the two layers of the dura mater separate:

Dural sinuses

415

The dural sinuses allow for the collection and drainage of what?

CSF

416

This is where the dura mater extends itself into cranial cavities:

Dural septa

417

Which portion of the dural septa extends into the longitudinal fissure?

Falx cerebri

418

Which portion of the dural septa extends into the vermis?

Falx cerebelli

419

Which portion of the dural septa goes into the transverse fissure?

Tentorium cerebelli

420

What portion of the arachnoid mater contains CSF?

Subsarachnoid space

421

What on the arachnoid mater allow CSF to be absorbed into venous blood?

Arachnoid villi

422

Pia mater is attached to what?

brain

423

What are the functions of the CSF?

  • Liquid cushion
  • Reduces weight of brain
  • Nourishes the brain
  • Removes waste products
424

What manufactures CSF in the brain?

Choroid plexus

425

CSF moves through what?

ventricles

426

What helps the movement of CSF?

Cilia of ependymal cells

427

The CSF leaves lateral ventricles through what?

Intraventricular foramen

428

CSF reaches fourth ventricle via the what?

Cerebral aqueduct

429

CSF leaves the fourth ventricle via what?

medial and lateral apertures

430

Where does CSF enter once it leaves the fourth ventricle?

Subarachnoid space

431

CSF is drained into the blood via what?

arachnoid villi

432

List the characteristics of the structure of the BBB:

  • Continuous capillaries, tight junctions between endothelial cells
  • Thick basement membrane
  • Foot processes of astrocytes encase capillaries
433

What are the functions of the BBB?

  • Facilitated diffusion of nutrients: glucose, essential amino acids, some electrolytes
  • Lipid soluble substances gain entry
  • Restrict entry of large proteins
434

What parts of the brain does the BBB not cover?

  • Brainstem: area postrema
  • Hypothalamus
435

The BBB is where there are what in the brain?

blood vessels

436

What surrounds and protects the spinal cord?

Vertebral column

437

Reflexes are examples of what?

Serial processing

438

The cervical enlargement and lumbar enlargement have groups of nerves that go out to where?

The limbs

439

This is the end of spinal cord tissue:

Conus medullaris

440

This refers to the nerves that extend beyond spinal cord tissue:

Cauda equina

441

What is the connective tissue that helps hold the spinal cord in place?

Filum terminale

442

What becomes the central canal of the spinal cord?

4th ventricle

443

What is the place where the dorsal and ventral root join together?

Spinal nerve

444

Afferent fibers from peripheral sensory neurons refers to which portion of the spinal cord?

Dorsal root

445

This is a collection of cell bodies of sensory neurons located on the dorsal root:

Dorsal root ganglia

446

The ventral root of the spinal cord is formed by what?

Motor axons

447

The ventral root has efferent fibers from the ventral (anterior) horn to where?

Skeletal muscle

448

The ventral root has efferent fibers from the lateral horn to where?

Visceral organs

449

Gray matter of the spinal cord is in what locations?

  • Dorsal (posterior) horn
  • Ventral (anterior) horn
  • Lateral horn
450

The Dorsal (posterior) horn contains what?

interneurons

451

The ventral (anterior) horn contains what?

somatic motor neurons (involved with skeletal muscle)

452

The lateral horn contains what?

Autonomic motor neurons (involved with visceral organs)

453

What are the 4 areas of the gray matter?

  • Somatic sensory (SS)
  • Visceral sensory (VS)
  • Visceral motor (VM)
  • Somatic motor (SM)
454

What are the 3 directions in which white matter runs?

  • Ascending
  • Descending
  • Transverse
455

What are the most common directions in which white matter runs?

Ascending and Descending

456

Ascending white matter is involved with what kind of info?

Sensory

457

Descending white matter relates to what kind of info?

Motor info

458

Transverse white matter relates to what?

One side to the other

459

Major ascending or descending pathways cross-over or decussate where?

  • SC
  • Brainstem
460

Major ascending and descending pathways involve how many neurons?

2-3

461

Major ascending and descending pathways are what?

Paired

462

First order neurons are associated with ascending pathways. These go from the skin to where?

SC or brainstem

463

Cell bodies are found where in regards to ascending pathways?

Ganglion

464

Info will be stored where in a cranial nerve (in relation to first order neurons)?

Cranial root ganglion

465

Info will be stored where in the rest of the body (meaning not in a cranial nerve in first order neurons)?

Dorsal root ganglion

466

Second order neurons in ascending pathways will go from the spinal cord to where?

Thalamus or cerebellum

467

In regards to second order neurons, where are the cell bodies found?

Dorsal horn of SC or Medullary nuclei

468

What occurs specifically with a 2nd order neuron?

Crossover

469

Third order neurons go from where to where?

Thalamus to cortex

470

The cell bodies of third order neurons are where?

thalamus

471

Which ascending pathways transmit impulses to the sensory cortex?

  • Spinothalamic
  • Dorsal column-medial lemniscal
472

Which ascending pathway is associated with pain, temperature, crude touch and pressure?

Spinothalamic

473

Which ascending pathway transmits impulses to cerebellum about muscles or tendons?

Spinocerebellar

474

Which ascending pathways are contralateral?

  • Spinothalamic
  • Dorsal column-medial lemniscal
475

Spinothalamic pathways decussate where?

SC

476

Dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathways decussate where?

medulla

477

Which pathways do not decussate or are ipsilateral?

Spinocerebellar

478

Which ascending pathway conduct sensory perception that can be localized?

Dorsal column-medial lemniscal

479

Which descending pathways correlate with speed and precision of fine/skilled movements?

Direct pathways/pyrimidal tracts

480

Indirect pathways/extrapyramidal tracts are associated with what?

  • Balance and posture
  • Coarse limb movements
  • Head, neck and eye movements (for the visual field)
481

Upper motor neurons of descending pathways go from where to where?

cortex or subcortical areas to SC

482

Lower motor neurons of descending pathways are from where?

ventral horn neurons

483

Lower motor neurons of descending pathways innervate what?

skeletal muscles

484

Ventral pyramidal/corticospinal tracts decussate where?

SC

485

Lateral pyramidal/corticospinal tracts decussate where?

pyramids of medulla

486

Pyramidal/corticospinal tracts are associated with what?

skilled movements

487

Neurons of cerebrum and cerebellum synapse with intermediary nuclei relates to which descending pathway?

Indirect/extrapyramidal pathways

488

Axons from intermediary nuclei form the what?

indirect pathway

489

What are 2 examples of indirect pathways?

  • Rubrospinal tract
  • Reticulospinal tract
490

The upper motor neuron comes from where in the rubrospinal tract?

Red nucleus

491

The rubrospinal tract is thought to be involved with what?

muscle tone in distal limbs

492

The upper motor neuron comes from where in the reticulospinal tract?

Reticular formation

493

The reticulospinal tract is thought to be involved with what?

Muscle tone and visceral motor functions

494

This is due to damage to dorsal roots or sensory tracts?

Paresthesias (loss of sensation)

495

Damage to ventral root or lower motor neurons would result in what disorder?

Flaccid paralysis

496

Flaccid paralysis will result in what?

  • No muscle movement
  • Muscle atrophy (shrinking)
497

Damage to upper motor neurons would result in what disorder?

Spastic paralysis

498

Which spinal cord trauma would affect only the lower limbs (damage to thoracic region)?

Paraplegia

499

Which spinal cord trauma would affect all 4 limbs (damage to cervical region)?

Quadriplegia

500

Paralysis of one side of the body (reflecting a brain injury) relates to what?

Hemiplegia

501

Irregular stimulation of muscles by spinal reflex activity (muscles remain healthy longer, but shorten permanently) refers to what type of paralysis?

Spastic

502

Awareness of stimuli relates to what?

Sensation

503

How we interpret stimuli relates to what?

Perception

504

What type of sensory receptors respond to external stimuli?

Exteroceptors

505

What type of sensory receptors respond to stimuli that occur internally?

Interoceptors/visceroceptors

506

Which type of sensory receptor's location is more restricted than interoceptors?

Proprioceptors

507

Which type of sensory receptors are not exposed?

Encapsulated

508

Which type of sensory receptors involve nerve endings that may be exposed?

Nonencapsulated

509

Nonencapsulated (free) nerve endings relate to what types of stimuli?

  • Temperature
  • Pain
  • Itch
510

What are some other free nerve endings?

  • Tactile (Merkel) discs
  • Hair follicle receptors
511

Tactile (Merkel) discs respond to what?

Light touch

512

Hair follicle receptors detect what?

hair bending

513

Which encapsulated nerve endings have the ability to detect simultaneous stimulation at two points on the skin (two-point discrimination)?

Tactile/Meissner's corpuscles

514

Tactile/Meissner's corpuscles are found only in what?

hairless skin

515

Which encapsulated nerve endings correspond to deep pressure and vibration?

Lamellar/Pacinian corpuscles

516

Which encapsulated nerve endings correspond to deep and continuous pressure?

Bulbous corpuscles/Ruffini endings

517

Which encapsulated nerve endings correspond to inhibiting contracting muscle?

tendon organs

518

Which encapsulated nerve endings correspond to detecting muscle stretch and resists stretch?

Muscle spindles

519

Lamellar/Pacinian corpuscles are found where?

  • Dermis
  • SubQ tissue
520

Bulbous corpuscles/Ruffini endings are found where?

  • Dermis
  • SubQ tissue
  • Joints
521

Which encapsulated nerve endings correspond to monitoring stretch of joints?

Joint kinesthetic receptors

522

What are the 4 types of receptors that correspond to joint kinesthetic receptors?

  • lamellar corpuscles
  • bulbous corpuscles
  • free nerve endings
  • tendon organ-like
523

Which level of the sensory system corresponds to sensory receptors?

Receptor level

524

Which level of the sensory system corresponds to ascending pathways?

Circuit level

525

Which level of the sensory system corresponds to circuits in the cerebral cortex?

Perceptual level

526

In regards to processing at the receptor level, strength, duration, pattern of stimulus corresponds to frequency of what?

nerve impulses

527

The change in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus relates to what?

Adaptation

528

These receptors adapt to a stimulus quickly:

Fast adapting/phasic receptors

529

These receptors adapt to a stimulus slowly:

Slow adapting/tonic receptors

530

Give an example of fast adapting/phasic receptors:

Lamellar and tactile corpuscles

531

Give and example of slow adapting/tonic receptors:

  • Nociceptors
  • Propioceptors
532

What are the three types of ascending pathways?

  • Nonspecific
  • Specific
  • Spinocerebellar tracts
533

Nonspecific ascending pathways relate to what?

  • Pain
  • Temperature
  • Crude touch
534

Specific ascending pathways relate to what?

  • Discriminative touch
  • vibration
  • pressure
  • conscious proprioception
535

Spinocerebellar tracts relate to what?

Proprioception

536

A detection of a stimulus is referred to as:

Perceptual detection

537

The intensity of a stimulus is referred to as:

Magnitude estimation

538

The site and pattern of a stimulus is referred to as:

Spatial discrimination

539

The complex aspects of a stimulus is referred to as:

Feature abstraction

540

Submodalities of stimulus are referred to as:

Quality discrimination

541

Familiar or unfamiliar patterns are referred to as:

Pattern recognition

542

Bundles of axons surrounded by connective tissue are called what?

Nerves

543

Which nerve types may regenerate?

Peripheral

544

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

12

545

What are the 3 functions of the cranial nerves?

  • Sensory
  • Motor
  • Parasympathetic
546

Olfactory nerves are associated with what?

Smell

547

Damage of the olfactory nerve can result in what?

Anosmia (loss of smell)

548

Optic nerves are associated with what?

Transmitting visual information

549

Damage to the optic nerve can result in what?

  • Anopsia (visual defects)
  • Blindness on affected side
  • Damage beyond optic chiasma: partial visual losses
550

The oculomotor nerves are associated with what?

Moving the eye (motor)

551

What is the parasympathetic function of the oculomotor nerves?

  • Miosis (pupillary constriction)
  • Accommodation (focus for near vision)
552

Damage to the oculomotor nerves can result in what?

  • Strabismus
  • Ptosis (droopy eyelid)
  • Diplopia
553

The trochlear nerves are associated with what?

moving the eye (motor)

554

Damage to the trochlear nerve can result in what?

Diplopia

555

Which cranial nerves are the main sensory nerves for the face and are responsible for chewing?

Trigeminal nerves

556

What are the 3 branches of the trigeminal nerves?

  • Ophthalmic
  • Maxillary
  • Mandibular
557

Damage to the trigeminal nerves can result in what?

Tic doulourex or trigeminal neuralgia (stabbing, excruciating pain)

558

What is the function of the Abducens nerves?

Moving the eye

559

Damage to the abducens nerve can result in what?

Strabismus

560

Which cranial nerves are associated with motor activity of facial muscles:

Facial nerves

561

Damage of the facial nerves can result in what?

  • Bell's palsy (paralysis of facial muscles on affected side)
  • Partial loss of taste
562

What viral infection can cause Bell's palsy?

Herpes Simplex 1

563

The vestibulocochlear nerve is associated with what?

Hearing

564

Damage to the cochlear portion of the vestibulocochlear nerves can result in what?

Deafness

565

Damage to the vestibular portion of the vestibulocochlear nerves can result in what?

loss of balance and equilibrium

566

The Glossopharyngeal nerves have what 3 functions?

  • Motor
  • Parasympathetic
  • Sensory
567

Damage to the glossopharyngeal nerves can result in what?

  • Impaired taste
  • Difficulty swallowing
568

The Vagus nerves have what 3 functions?

  • Motor
  • Parasympathetic
  • Sensory
569

The vagus nerves viscerate a lot of what?

internal organs

570

The vagus nerves are a vital component of what?

PNS

571

If the vagus nerves are damaged, this can result in what?

  • Hoarseness, loss of voice
  • Difficulty swallowing
  • Impaired GI motility
572

What is the function of the accessory nerves?

Movement of head and neck muscles

573

Damage to the accessory nerves can result in what?

Head turns towards injury and difficulty shrugging shoulder

574

The hypoglossal nerve is responsible for what?

Moving the tongue

575

Damage to the hypoglossal nerve can result in what?

  • Difficulty in speech and swallowing
  • Tongue movement
576

Damage to both hypoglossal nerves would result in what?

No protrusion (not being able to stick tongue out)

577

Damage of only one hypoglossal nerve would cause what?

tongue deviates to affected side

578

The branching of the spinal nerve that goes to the POSTERIOR trunk of the body is the:

Dorsal rami

579

The branching of the spinal nerve that goes to the trunk and limbs of the body is the:

Ventral rami

580

The joining of the ventral rami is known as the what?

Nerve plexuses

581

The intercostal nerves innervate what areas?

  • thorax
  • abdominal wall
582

The cervical plexus services what area?

Head and neck

583

What nerve associated with the cervical plexus controls breathing and is associated with the diaphragm?

Phrenic nerve

584

Which plexus is associated with the upper limb?

Brachial plexus

585

Damage to the brachial plexus could result in what?

Limb weakness or paralysis

586

If the radial nerve is damaged, it can result in what?

  • Crutch paralysis
  • Wrist drop
587

If the ulnar nerve is damaged, it can result in what?

Clawhand

588

The ulnar nerve is associated with what?

Funny bone

589

Median nerve damage can lead to what?

  • Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
  • Difficulty with pincer grasp
590

Which plexus is associated with the abdominal wall and the anterior and medial thigh?

Lumbar plexus

591

What are the 2 important nerves associated with the lumbar plexus?

  • Femoral nerve (anterior thigh)
  • Obturator nerve (medial thigh)
592

Damage to the femoral or obturator nerves can result in what?

  • impaired gait
  • pain or numbness
593

Which plexus is associated with the buttock and lower limbs as well as the pelvis and perineum?

Sacral plexus

594

What is the most important nerve associated with the sacral plexus?

Sciatic nerve

595

The sciatic nerve comes from the joining of what two nerves?

  • tibial
  • common fibular
596

Damage to the sciatic nerve can result in what?

  • sciatica
  • footdrop
597

Areas of skin innervated by spinal nerves
 (sensory info) are known as what?

Dermatomes

598

These are rapid, predictable responses to a stimulus:

Reflexes

599

Somatic reflexes activate what?

Skeletal muscle

600

Autonomic reflexes activate what?

Visceral effectors: smooth or cardiac muscle, glands

601

The site of stimulus is known as the what?

receptor

602

What transmits afferent impulses to the CNS?

Sensory neuron

603

What conducts efferent impulses from integration center to effector organ?

Motor neurons

604

A single synapse or multiple synapses in CNS is known as the what?

Integration center

605

What relates to a muscle fiber or gland cell that responds to the efferent impulses (contracts or secretes)?

Effector

606

List the 5 components of a reflex arc in order:

  1. Receptor
  2. Sensory Neuron
  3. Integration Center
  4. Motor Neuron
  5. Effector
607

Reflex Arcs are associated with what type of processing?

Serial processing