Exam 3 Flashcards


Set Details Share
created 5 years ago by brittanyt327
932 views
Angiosperms - Ch. 19, 20, 22
Subjects:
plant morphology
show moreless
Page to share:
Embed this setcancel
COPY
code changes based on your size selection
Size:
X
Show:

1

Which of the following statements about phylum Anthophyta is FALSE?

The two major classes are the monocots and dicots.

2

Which of the following statements about myco-heterotrophic plants is FALSE?

They are indirectly associated with an autotroph.

3

In a myco-heterotrophic relationship, the ___________ transfers carbohydrates to the ___________.

fungus; myco-heterotroph

4

The pedicel of a flower is:

the stalk of a flower in an inflorescence.

5

The fertile parts of a flower are the:

carpels and stamens.

6

The perianth consists of all the __________ of a flower.

sepals and petals

7

Which of the following statements about a stamen is FALSE?

It is part of the gynoecium.

8

The gynoecium consists of all the ______ of a flower.

carpels

9

The portion of a carpel that encloses the ovules is the:

ovary.

10

The style connects the _____ to the ______.

ovary; stigma

11

In axile placentation, the ovules are borne:

on a central column of tissue in a partitioned ovary.

12

A perfect flower contains:

carpels and stamens

13

A monoecious species has:

staminate and carpellate flowers on the same plant.

14

A flower that has only stamens and petals is:

imperfect and incomplete

15

An example of connation is the union of stamens with:

other stamens.

16

By definition, a flower with a aposepalous calyx has:

sepals not joined together.

17

In flowers with sepals, petals, and stamens attached below the ovary, the ovary is said to be:

superior.

18

All bilaterally symmetrical flowers are:

irregular

19

In angiosperms, the mature female gametophyte consists of _____ cells.

7

20

In angiosperms, the ovary develops into a(n):

fruit.

21

The innermost layer of the pollen sac wall is the:

tapetum.

22

Microsporocytes divide by ______, forming ______.

meiosis; haploid microspores

23

Which of the following statements concerning pollen grain apertures is FALSE?

They are located in the intine.

24

Sporopollenin is the primary constituent of the:

exine.

25

When the microspore of an angiosperm divides, it gives rise directly to:

a generative cell and a tube cell.

26

A polymer in the _____ protects the pollen grain against UV radiation, dehydration, and pathogen attack.

exine

27

Which of the following statements about pollen grains is FALSE?

They are poorly represented in the fossil record.

28

About 70% of living angiosperms have a(n) _______ type of megasporogenesis and megagametogenesis.

Polygonum

29

In the most common pattern of embryo sac development in angiosperms, how many nuclei end up at the chalazal end?

3

30

______ are found at the chalazal end of the embryo sac.

Ovules

31

In embryo sac development, the egg apparatus contains the egg cell and the:

synergids.

32

In the center of the embryo sac are the:

polar nuclei

33

The mature female gametophyte is called a(n):

embryo sac.

34

The mature megagametophyte consists of ______ nuclei and _____ cells.

8; 7

35

In the process of pollination, the:

pollen passes from the anther to a stigma.

36

Which of the following statements concerning transmitting tissue is FALSE?

It is classified as being either wet or dry.

37

________ mark the pathways of sperm cell and sperm nucleus migrations within the ovule.

Actin “coronas”

38

In the process of double fertilization, one sperm fuses with the ______, and the other sperm fuses with the ______.

egg; polar nuclei

39

In most angiosperms, the primary endosperm nucleus is:

3n.

40

The process of double fertilization occurs:

only in angiosperms, Ephedra, and Gnetum.

41

The function of the endosperm is to provide ______ for the embryo.

food.

42

In some angiosperms, the food store of the seed is perisperm derived from the:

nucleus.

43

Unlike gymnosperms, the stored food in angiosperms is:

formed after fertilization.

44

As the seed develops, the ovary wall becomes the:

pericarp.

45

Myco-heterotrophs have an obligate relationship with a mycorrhizal fungus.

TRUE

46

A carpel is a leaflike structure that contains ovules.

TRUE

47

A carpel is a leaflike structure that contains ovules.

FALSE

48

In a carpel, the style connects the stigma with the ovary.

TRUE

49

If a single ovule is borne on a central column in an unpartitioned ovary, the placentation is described as parietal.

FALSE

50

A flower that has both stamens and carpels but lacks sepals is described as imperfect and incomplete.

FALSE

51

In a flower with a superior ovary, the perianth and stamens are epigynous.

FALSE

52

Radially symmetrical flowers are said to be irregular.

FALSE

53

Angiosperms have archegonia but lack antheridia.

FALSE

54

The function of the tapetum is to provide food for developing microspores.

TRUE

55

Sporopollenin protects the microgametophyte against UV radiation.

TRUE

56

The most common type of megasporogenesis and megagametogenesis is the Polygonum type.

TRUE

57

The integuments envelope the nucellus except at the micropyle.

TRUE

58

The central cell contains the egg apparatus.

FALSE

59

The great majority of living angiosperms have mature embryo sacs consisting of seven cells and eight nuclei.

TRUE

60

The first flowering plants had a Polygonum type of embryo sac.

FALSE

61

Wet stigmas have a cuticle that contains a hydrated layer of proteins, carbohydates, and lipids.

FALSE

62

The male germ unit consists of two sperms cells physically associated with the vegetative nucleus.

TRUE

63

The male germ unit consists of two sperms cells physically associated with the vegetative nucleus.

FALSE

64

Synergids produce chemicals that attract the pollen tube.

TRUE

65

Endosperm may be an evolutionary derivative of a second embryo.

TRUE

66

In angiosperms, embryogeny begins with a free nuclear stage.

FALSE

67

Perisperm develops from the proliferation of the nucellus.

TRUE

68

Exocarp, mesocarp, and endocarp are the layers of the ovary wall in a fruit.

TRUE

69

Angiosperms first appear in the fossil record in the ______ period.

Cretaceous

70

The most recent evidence indicates that:

The angiosperms have close relatives among the living gymnosperms.

71

Which of the following is NOT a unique characteristic of the angiosperms?

Stamens with four pairs of pollen sacs

72

The monocots and eudicots comprise approximately _____ percent of living angiosperms.

97

73

Which of the following do NOT have single-pored pollen?

eudicots

74

Which of the following statements concerning Amborella is FALSE?

It belongs to the Mesangiospermae.

75

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Archaefructus?

petals

76

The original angiosperms most likely:

had simple flowers.

77

In most angiosperms, petals are probably evolutionary derivatives of:

stamens.

78

In contrast to living angiosperms, the stamens of archaic angiosperms:

are colored and fleshy.

79

In archaic angiosperms, the carpels:

are leaflike.

80

Which of the following is NOT an evolutionary trend among flowers?

from an inferior ovary to a superior ovary

81

Ray flowers and disk flowers are characteristic of the:

Asteraceae

82

:The largest angiosperm family is the:

Orchidaceae.

83

The pollinium consists of the:

contents of an anther.

84

Which of the following was NOT an evolutionary adaptation of angiosperms in response to insects?

unisexual flowers

85

The most important flower-visiting animals in angiosperm evolution are:

bees.

86

Which of the following is NOT an example of coevolution of bees and flowers?

Flowers pollinated by bees are usually red.

87

Flowers with a long corrolla tube most likely pollinated by:

moths.

88

Which of the following statements concerning pollination by "deception" is FALSE?

"Sex-deception" occurs exclusively in the grasses.

89

Most flowers pollinated by birds:

are red or yellow.

90

Which of the following statements about most bat-pollinated flowers is FALSE?

They are relatively odorless.

91

Flowers pollinated by ___________ are most likely to produce no nectar, have dull colors, are relatively small, and have the sexes separated on the same plant.

wind

92

The red, orange, and yellow pigments of flowers are:

carotenoids.

93

The most important pigments in floral coloration are:

flavonoids.

94

The red and blue pigments stored in vacuoles in flowers are:

anthocyanins.

95

___________ are flavonoids that vary in color with the pH of the cell sap.

Anthocyanins

96

Ultraviolet absorbance in flowers is related to the presence of:

flavonoids.

97

The red color of beets is due to the presence of:

betacyanins.

98

By definition, an accessory fruit develops from:

an ovary plus additional flower parts.

99

By definition, a parthenocarpic fruit lacks:

stamens.

100

Apples and pears are:

simple accessory fruits.

101

A simple fruit in which the inner layer of the fruit wall is fleshy is a(n):

berry.

102

A simple fruit in which the fleshy portion is derived largely from the base of the perianth is a(n):

pome.

103

By definition, an indehiscent fruit:

does not breakopen at maturity.

104

The fruit characteristic of the pea family is a(n):

legume.

105

Which of the following is NOT an indehiscent fruit?

capsule

106

The grains typical of the grass family are a type of fruit known as a:

caryopsis.

107

A __________, characteristic of the pea family and others, splits open at maturity into two or more one-seeded portions.

caryopsis

108

Which of the following is NOT an adaptation specific to wind-borne fruits or seed?

tissue with large air spaces

109

In _________, the seeds are shot aloft from the plant.

Impatiens

110

The function of elaisomes is to:

provide food for ants.

111

What is the apparent function of most secondary plant products?

restricting the palatability of the plant to herbivores

112

A relationship bewtween plants of the mustard family Brassicaceae and larvae of the butterfly family Pierniae has developed such that the larvae:

feed only on those plants.

113

Which of the following statements about the coevolution of angiosperms and insects is FALSE?

Many of the possible coevolution variants have evolved only once within a particular plant family.

114

Gnetophytes are more closely related to angiosperms than to gymnosperms.

FALSE

115

Archaefructus is the earliest angiosperm whole-plant fossil.

TRUE

116

Molecular evidence indicates angiosperm are 125 million years old.

FALSE

117

Like gymnosperms, the earliest angiosperms had pollen grains with a single pore.

TRUE

118

The monocots and eudicots each had a common ancestor.

TRUE

119

The Nymphaeales (water lilies) are classified as basak angiosperms.

TRUE

120

Amborella is a sister group of the Mesangiospermae.

TRUE

121

Archaic members of the waterlily family (Nymphaeceae) arose before the divergence of the monocots and eudicots.

TRUE

122

The magnoliids were the first lineage to diverge within the Mesangiospermae.

TRUE

123

Archaefructus is the first intact fossil of a mature eudicot.

FALSE

124

In the earliest angiosperms, sepals normally have the same number of vascular strands as the leaves of the same plant.

TRUE

125

In angiosperms, there is a general trend from bilateral to radial symmetry.

FALSE

126

A pollinium is a pollen-dispersal unit characteristic of the Orchidaceae.

TRUE

127

"Honey guides" are usually located on the petals of the bee-pollinated flowers.

TRUE

128

The nectary of a moth-pollinated flower is usually at the top of the corolla tube.

FALSE

129

In "food deception", the plant signals the presence of nectar without providing it.

TRUE

130

Wind-pollinated flowers often have feathery outgrowth for intercepting pollen grains.

TRUE

131

Most red and blue pigments are anthocyanins.

TRUE

132

Bougainvillea flowers are red due to the presence of anthocynanins as wells as betacyanins.

FALSE

133

A parthenocarpic fruit is one that developed without seeds.

TRUE

134

A mutiple fruit develops from an apocarpous gynecium.

FALSE

135

Either seeds or fruits may have wings or plumes for wind dispersal.

TRUE

136

An example of a secondary metabolite is caffeine.

TRUE

137

In plants, the main role of chemicals such as cocaine and nicotine seems to be attracting pollinators.

FALSE

138

Many insects that eat noxious plants are brightly colored.

TRUE

139

A plant’s body plan consists of a(n) ______ and a(n) ______ pattern.

apical-basal; radial

140

When the zygote first divides, the two daughter cells are the ______ cell and the ______ cell.

apical; basal

141

Located at the micropylar pole of the embryo is the:

basal cell.

142

Which of the following statements about the polarity of an embryo is FALSE?

It is established only after the zygote has divided.

143

Which primary meristem forms first?

protoderm

144

Which of the following statements concerning primary meristems is FALSE?

An example is the suspensor.

145

The procambium is the precursor of the:

xylem and phloem.

146

During early embryogenesis, the ground meristem surrounds the:

procambium.

147

Which of following lists the correct developmental sequence in eudicots, where I is the globular stage; II, the heart stage; III, the proembryo; IV, the torpedo stage; and V, the zygote?

V, III, I, II, IV

148

In embryogenesis in monocots, globular embryos next become:

cylindrical.

149

The root and shoot apical meristems first become discernible during the transition between the ______ and ______.

globular stage; torpedo stage

150

The cotyledons elongate most dramatically and may become curved during the _______ stage.

torpedo

151

Where does the shoot apical meristem arise in eudicot embryos?

between the two cotyledons

152

Normal development of the ______ prevents formation of extra embryos by the ______.

embryo proper; suspensor

153

During embryogenesis in Arabidopsis, mutants with the twn mutation:

form secondary embryos from the suspensor.

154

In Arabidopsis, embryonic development is thought to be coordinated by at least ______ distinct genes.

750

155

The stem-like axis above the cotyledon(s) is the:

epicotyl.

156

Which of the following CANNOT be part of the plumule?

radicle

157

In some embryos, below the hypocotyl the _________ is found.

radicle

158

In eudicots, in which most of the endosperm is absorbed by the embryo, the cotyledons:

are large and fleshy.

159

The cotyledon of grasses is called a(n):

scutellum.

160

In monocots, the cotyledon can have all of the following functions EXCEPT:

protection of the plumule.

161

In a grass embryo, the coleorhiza encloses the:

radicle

162

The integuments develop into the:

seed coat.

163

Which of the following statements about the seed coat is FALSE?

It develops from the ovary.

164

In grasses, the pericarp consists of the:

mature ovary and remnants of the seed coat only.

165

The scar left on the seed coat after the seed has separated from its stalk is called the:

hilum.

166

Which of the following statements concerning the maturation phase of seed development is FALSE?

Cell division in the embryo accelerates.

167

Which of the following events is NOT associated with seed germination?

synthesis of food reserves

168

When the seed coat is ruptured during germination, the seed:

switches to aerobic respiration.

169

A quiescent seed is different from a dormant seed in that a quiescent seed will germinate:

when hydrated.

170

Which of the following would not typically cause coat-imposed dormancy?

prevention of the release of growth promoters from the seed

171

Embryo dormancy would typically be caused by:

an increase in abscisic acid concentrations.

172

The process of after-ripening involves:

enzymatic modification of a dormant seed so that it will germinate.

173

In temperate regions of the world, after-ripening is triggered by:

low temperature.

174

What induces the seeds of manzanita and other plants of the California chaparral to germinate?

fire

175

The _________ is usally the first structure to emerge from germinating seed.

root

176

In monocots, the root system commonly develops from:

stem-borne roots.

177

In epigeous germination, which structure emerges above ground first?

hypocotyl

178

In the pea (Pisum sativum), the ________ forms the hook that pushes to the soil surface during seed germination.

epicotyl

179

Which of the following statements about seed germination in onion (Allium cepa) is FALSE?

Germination is hypogeous.

180

In maize (Zea mays), the first structure to emerge from the seed during germination is the:

coleorhiza

181

The radial pattern of embryogenesis consits of concentrically arranged tissue systems.

TRUE

182

In most angiosperms, the first division of the zygote is symmetrically and longitudinal to the long axis of the zygote.

FALSE

183

In angiosperms, polarity can be either with the first division of the zygote or before.

TRUE

184

The suspensor anchors the embryo at the micropyle.

TRUE

185

The root and shoot apical meristems are two of the primary meristems.

FALSE

186

The protoderm is formed by anticlinal divisions of the outermost cells of the embryo proper.

FALSE

187

In the heart stage of development, the lobes of the "heart" are the cotyledons.

TRUE

188

The apical meristems are the source of virtually all of the tissues of the seedling and adult plant.

TRUE

189

The suspensor is an example of a structure that undergoes programmed death.

TRUE

190

The embryonic root is called the radicle.

TRUE

191

Seeds with large cotyledons typically have little or no endosperm.

TRUE

192

The cotyledon of grasses is called a scutellum.

TRUE

193

The coleoptile and coleorhiza are typically found in monocots and eudicots.

FALSE

194

In a grass embryo, the coleoptile encloses the plumule.

TRUE

195

In grasses, the pericarp is found immediately inside the seed coat.

FALSE

196

The funiculus is the stalk of the seed.

TRUE

197

Metabolism increases toward the end of the maturation phase of seed development.

FALSE

198

Before the seed coat ruptures during germination, glucose breakdown may be entirely anerobic.

TRUE

199

A quiescent seed will not germinate even when external conditions are favorable.

False

200

An example of a coat-imposed dormancy is a mechanically rigid seed coat.

TRUE

201

The dormancy acquired during seed maturation is called primary dormancy.

TRUE

202

In temperate regions, after-ripening ensures that seeds will germinate in the fall rather than in the spring.

FALSE

203

In hypogeous germination, the cotyledons remain in the soil.

TRUE

204

In maize, the pericarp functions as the seed coat.

TRUE