anatomy exam 3 ch. 9-11

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1
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The gland that produces thymosin is indicated by letter __________.

Answer : F

2
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The gland that produces melatonin is indicated by letter __________.

Answer : A

3
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The gland that produces testosterone is indicated by letter __________.

Answer : J

4
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The glands that produce steroids and catecholamines are indicated by letter __________.

Answer : G

5
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The producer of hormones released by the posterior pituitary is indicated by letter __________.

Answer : B

6
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The gland that produces insulin and glucagon is indicated by letter __________.

Answer : H

7
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The glands that act as antagonists to the thyroid gland are indicated by letter __________.

Answer : E

8
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The gland that hangs from a stalk from the hypothalamus is indicated by letter __________.

Answer : C

9
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The gland that is the major producer of female hormones is indicated by letter __________.

Answer : I

10
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The gland that is primarily responsible for body metabolism is indicated by letter __________.

Answer : D

11
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The thymus gland is indicated by letter __________.

Answer : F

12
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The pancreas is indicated by letter __________.

Answer : H

13
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The pineal gland is indicated by letter __________.

Answer : A

14
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The gland situated around the thyroid gland that operates entirely under humoral control is represented by letter __________.

Answer : E

15

The hormones that operate by direct gene activation are steroid hormones and __________.

Answer : thyroid hormone

16

Hormones that are released in response to changing blood levels are controlled by __________ stimuli.

Answer : humoral

17

The protein hormone released by the anterior pituitary responsible for maintaining milk production in a breast-feeding female is __________.

Answer : prolactin

18

The target organ of thyrotropic stimulating hormone (TSH) is the __________ gland.

Answer : thyroid

19

Alcohol suppresses the production of this hormone, __________, which normally promotes water retention and prevents dehydration.

Answer : antidiuretic hormone or ADH

20

Thyroxine is also known by an alternate name, __________, due to the number of iodine atoms it contains,.

Answer : T4

21

Calcitonin is made by the __________ of the thyroid gland.

Answer : parafollicular cells

22

Mineralocorticoids regulate the concentration of __________ and __________ ions in our blood.

Answer : sodium; potassium

23

Cortisone and cortisol and types of __________ produced by the middle cortical layer of the adrenal gland.

Answer : glucocorticoids

24

The enzyme produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops, which causes the release of aldosterone, is called ________

Answer: ren in

25

Male sex hormones produced by the adrenal cortex are called __________.

Answer: androgens

26

Generalized hyposecretion of all adrenal cortex hormones leads to __________.

Answer: Addison's disease

27

Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids, often caused by a tumor, results in __________.

Answer: Cushing's syndrome

28

Another name for epinephrine is __________.

Answer: adrenaline

29

Insulin and glucagon are both hormones that are produced by __________.

Answer: pancreatic islet cells

30

Glucagon acts as an antagonist to a hormone called __________

Answer: insulin

31

When blood glucose levels are too high, the beta cells of the pancreas release __________ to decrease levels.

Answer: insulin

32

A hormone called __________ is believed to play an important role in establishing the body's day-night cycle.

Answer: melatonin

33

A hormone called __________ plays an important role in incubating a special group of white blood cells.

Answer: thymosin

34

The hormone produced by male testes which is responsible for sperm production is __________

Answer: testosterone

35

Home pregnancy tests check for a hormone in the female's urine called __________.

Answer: human chorionic gonadotropin or hCG

36
  1. Which system produces chemical messengers known as hormones: A) integumentary systemB) nervous systemC) Immune system D) endocrine systemE) muscular system

Answer : D

37

Which of the following hormones is NOT classified as a steroid hormone

A) mineralocorticoids

B) adrenocorticoids

C) oxytocin

D) estrogen
E) testosterone

Answer : C

38
  1. A) enzymes are activated or inactivated B) mitosis is stimulated C) proteins are synthesized in the cell D) cellular mutations occur E) plasma membrane permeability changes

Answer : D

39

Prostaglandins are:

  1. A) amino acid-based hormones B) glycerol hormones C) steroid hormones D) lipid hormones manufactured in cell plasma membranes E) target organs

Answer : D

40

Being lipid soluble, steroids can do all the following EXCEPT:

  1. A) enter the nucleus B) bind to receptor proteins within the nucleusC) diffuse through the plasma membranes of target cells D) catalyze cyclic AMPE) activate genes to transcribe mRNA for protein synthesis

Answer : D

41

Most hormones are:

  1. A) able to diffuse through the plasma membrane of their target cells B) released upon stimulation by other hormones C) classified as steroids D) regulated by a positive feedback mechanism E) controlled by blood levels of ions or nutrients

Answer : B

42

Most endocrine organs are prodded into action by other hormones; this type of stimulus is called:

A) receptor-mediated stimulus

B) steroid stimulus

C) hormonal stimulus

D) humoral stimulus

Answer : C

43

Tropic hormones:
A) stimulate prostaglandins

B) stimulate nervous tissue
C) stimulate other endocrine glands to secrete hormones

D) stimulate the pineal gland to secrete hormones

E) stimulate the thymus gland to secrete hormones

Answer: C

44

Growth hormone:
A) results in Cushing's disease if produced in excess

B) promotes growth in long bones and skeletal muscles

C) is produced by the thyroid gland

D) prevents urine production
E) is secreted by the thymus gland

Answer: B

45

Which one of the following is NOT an anterior pituitary hormone:

A) luteinizing hormone

B) follicle-stimulating hormone

C) antidiuretic hormone

D) adrenocorticotropic hormone E) prolactin

Answer: C

46

The hormone that stimulates follicle development by female ovaries and sperm development by male testes is:

A) prolactin
B) luteinizing hormone

C) progesterone
D) interstitial cell-stimulating hormone

E) follicle-stimulating hormone

Answer: E

47

Hypersecretion of growth hormone after long bone growth has ended (as an adult) is called:

A) acromegaly

B) Cushing's disease

C) pituitary dwarfism

D) myxedema

E) gigantism

Answer: E

48

Releasing and inhibiting hormones produced by the hypothalamus influence the activities of the:

A) thyroid gland

B) posterior pituitary gland

C) pineal gland

D) adrenal gland
E) anterior pituitary gland

Answer: E

49

An enlargement of the thyroid gland resulting from a deficiency of dietary iodine is called: A) acromegaly

B) goiter
C) cretinism

D) exophthalmos

E) myxedema

Answer: B

50

Which one of the following is NOT a function of oxytocin:

A) stimulation of uterine contractions

B) stimulation of menstruation
C) stimulation of breast milk ejection

D) postpartum bleeding control

E) labor induction

Answer: B

51

Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of:

A) glucagon

B) parathyroid hormone (PTH)

C) growth hormone

D) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

E) prolactin (PRL)

Answer: D

52

Which of these hormones prods the thyroid gland to release thyroxine:

A) gonadotropic hormones

B) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C) luteinizing hormone (LH)

D) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

E) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Answer: B

53

Alcohol inhibits the secretion of:

A) oxytocin

B) prolactin (PRL)
C) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

D) parathyroid hormone (PTH)

E) glucagon

Answer: C

54

The thyroid gland is located:

A) within the mediastinum

B) below the Adam's apple

C) within the parathyroid glands

D) above the kidneys

E) within the pancreas

Answer: B

55

The body's major metabolic hormone is called:

A) prolactin

B) growth hormone

C) thyroid hormone

D) adrenaline

E) calcitonin

Answer: C

56

The element necessary in the diet for proper thyroid function is:

A) sodium

B) iodine

C) calcium

D) potassium

E) bromine

Answer: B

57

Hyposecretion of thyroxine in childhood leads to a disease known as:

A) goiter

B) myxedema
C) exophthalmos

D) dwarfism

E) cretinism

Answer: E

58

Which of these hormones regulate calcium levels in the body:

A) oxytocin and prolactin

B) melatonin and glucocorticoids

C) insulin and glucagon

D) T3 and T4
E) calcitonin and parathyroid hormone

Answer: E

59

Which hormone, released by the heart, prevents aldosterone release in order to lower blood pressure:

A) angiotensin II

B) renin
C) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

D) cortisol
E) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Answer: C

60

Which of these hormones is released by the adrenal medulla:

A) epinephrine

B) cortisone
C) glucocorticoids

D) sex hormones

E) aldosterone

Answer: A

61

Rising blood levels of aldosterone cause the kidney tubules to:

A) reabsorb calcium

B) reabsorb iodine

C) reabsorb sodium

D) reabsorb hydrogen

E) reabsorb potassium

Answer: C

62

Tetany resulting from uncontrolled muscle spasms may indicate a malfunction of the:

A) posterior pituitary

B) adrenal cortex

C) pineal gland

D) thymus
E) parathyroid glands

Answer: E

63

The enzyme produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops, stimulating a release of aldosterone, is called:

A) cortisone

B) cortisol

C) vasopressin

D) renin

E) angiotensin

Answer: D

64

Glucocorticoids do all of the following EXCEPT:

A) increase blood glucose levels

B) suppress inflammation

C) decrease edema

D) help resist long-term stress
E) regulate salt content of the blood

Answer: E

65

Hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex hormones results in skin bronzing, feeling of burn-out, and suppression of the immune system; this condition is known as:

A) Addison's disease

B) Cushing's syndrome

C) cretinism
D) diabetes insipidus

E) Graves' disease

Answer: A

66

The "fight-or-flight" response triggers the release of:

A) melatonin

B) growth hormone

C) ADH

D) prolactin
E) epinephrine

Answer: E

67

Which one of the following is NOT an action of the catecholamines:

A) decreased blood pressure

B) increased heart rate
C) dilation of the small passages of the lungs

D) stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

E) increased blood glucose levels

Answer: A

68

Insulin is produced by cells of the pancreatic islets called:

A) theta cells

B) delta cells

C) gamma cells

D) alpha cells

E) beta cells

Answer: E

69

Which of the following hormones decreases blood glucose levels:

A) epinephrine

B) insulin
C) glucocorticoids

D) glucagon
E) growth hormone

Answer: B

70

The pancreas is located:

A) close to the stomach

B) on top of the kidneys

C) beneath the sternum

D) near the hypothalamus in the brain E) around the trachea

Answer: A

71

Which one of the following is NOT a sign of diabetes mellitus:

A) acidosis

B) polyuria

C) moon face

D) polyphagia

E) polydipsia

Answer: C

72

The pineal gland produces:

A) cortisol

B) thymosin

C) melatonin

D) insulin

E) estrogen

Answer: C

73

The hormone that appears to help regulate our sleep-awake cycles is:

A) thyroxine

B) thymosin

C) melatonin

D) progesterone

E) glucagon

Answer: C

74

The hormone responsible for the maturation of white blood cells known as T lymphocytes is:

A) thyroxine

B) thymosin

C) melatonin

D) aldosterone

E) progesterone

Answer: B

75

Estrogens do all of the following EXCEPT:
A) prepare the uterus to receive a fertilized egg

B) stimulate the development of secondary sex characteristics in females

C) stimulate growth of facial hair

D) help maintain pregnancy

E) stimulate menstruation

Answer: C

76

Which of the following is NOT an effect of testosterone:

A) growth of facial hair

B) sperm production
C) deepening of the voice

D) development of heavy bones and muscles

E) maintenance of pregnancy

Answer: E

77

Sex hormones produced by the ovaries and testes:

A) are protein hormones

B) are secreted in response to posterior pituitary hormones
C) are controlled by hormones produced by the adrenal cortex

D) are produced in equal amounts in both males and females

E) promote the formation of sex cells

Answer: E

78

The cells in the testes that produce testosterone are called:

A) beta cells

B) alpha cells
C) interstitial cells

D) gonadotropic cells

E) pancreatic islet cells

Answer: C

79

Which hormone is produced by the placenta that stimulates the ovaries to continue producing estrogen and progesterone:

A) prolactin

B) oxytocin

C) luteinizing hormone (LH)
D) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

E) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Answer: E

80

Cholecystokinin (CCK) and secretin are two hormones produced by the:

A) stomach

B) liver

C) heart

D) cecum of large intestine
E) duodenum of small intestine

Answer: E

81

The study of hormones and endocrine organs is known as immunology.

True or False

False

82

All hormones can arouse and bring about changes in all cells of the human body.

True or False

False

83

Most hormones are regulated by negative feedback mechanisms.

True or False

True

84

Hormones that are secreted in response to other hormones are prodded by hormonal stimuli.

True or False

True

85

The hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary are actually made by the hypothalamus.

True or False

True

86

Hypersecretion of growth hormone during childhood leads to pituitary dwarfism.

True or False

False

87

The target tissue of prolactin is the female breast.

True or False

True

88

Neurosecretory cells transport oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone to the anterior pituitary gland for storage.

True or False

False

89

Antidiuretic hormone inhibits urine production and promotes water reabsorption by the kidney.

True or False

True

90

Vasopressin is another name for antidiuretic hormone.

True or False

True

91

Hyposecretion of FSH or LH leads to sterility in both males and females.

True or False

True

92

Thyroid hormone targets all cells of the body.

True or False

True

93

Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of insulin.

True or False

False

94

Thyroid hormone is actually two iodine-containing hormones called T3 and T4.

True or False

True

95

Thyroxine is converted to triiodothyronine at target tissues to promote metabolism.

True or False

True

96

Calcitonin is produced by the follicular cells of the thyroid gland.

True or False

False

97

Parathyroid hormone is the most important regulator of blood calcium concentration.

True or False

True

98

Calcitonin is a hormone antagonistic to parathormone in the regulation of blood calcium concentration.

True or False

True

99

Mineralocorticoids help regulate both water and electrolyte balance in body fluids.

True or False

True

100

The adrenal glands are similar to the pituitary gland in that they have both glandular and neural tissue.

True or False

True

101

The adrenal cortex is made up of neural tissue.

True or False

False

102

Glucocorticoids, glucagon, and epinephrine are hyperglycemic hormones.

True or False

True

103

The glucocorticoids help the body handle long-term stress primarily by increasing blood glucose levels.

True or False

True

104

Both male and female sex hormones are produced by the adrenal cortex throughout life in relatively small amounts.

True or False

True

105

Hypersecretion of the sex hormones may lead to masculinization in both men and women.

True or False

True

106

The adrenal medulla and posterior pituitary are both composed of nervous tissue.

True or False

True

107

Adrenaline is also known as epinephrine.

True or False

True

108

Aldosterone raises blood glucose levels through the breakdown of fats and proteins.

True or False

False

109

Melatonin production peaks during the night to help regulate the body's day-night cycle.

True or false

True

110

The thymus gland is located in the neck wrapped around the trachea.

True or False

False

111

The ovaries release estrogen and progesterone in response to gonadotropic hormones from the pituitary gland.

True or False

True

112

The placenta is a temporary organ formed in the uterus of pregnant women.

True or False

True

113

Growth hormone is found in what organ?

Anterior pituitary

114

Prolactin is found in what organ?

Anterior pituitary

115

Adrenocorticotropic hormone is found in what organ?

Anterior pituitary

116

Thyroid-stimulating hormone is found in what organ?

Anterior pituitary

117

Luteinizing hormone is found in what organ?

Anterior pituitary

118

Oxytocin is found in what organ ?

Posterior pituitary

119

Antidiuretic hormone is found in what organ ?

Posterior pituitary

120

Follicle-stimulating hormone is found in what organ ?

Anterior pituitary

121

Thyroxine is found in what organ ?

Thyroid gland

122

Calcitonin is found in what organ?

Thyroid gland

123

Parathormone is found in what organ?

Parathyroid glands

124

Aldosterone is found in what organ?

Adrenal cortex

125

Cortisone is what found in what organ?

Adrenal cortex

126

Catecholamines is found in what organ?

Adrenal medulla

127

Glucocorticoids is found in what organ?

Adrenal cortex

128

Insulin is found in what organ?

Beta cells of pancreatic islets

129

Glucagon is found in what organ?

Apha cells of pancreatic islets

130

Melatonin is found in what organ?

Pineal

131

Thymosin is found in what organ?

Thymus

132

Human chorionic gonadotropin is found in what organ?

Placenta

133

Stimulates contraction of the uterus and the milk reflex, what hormone?

xytocin

134

Lowers blood calcium levels, what hormone?

Calcitonin

135

Involved in daily and seasonal biological rhythms, what hormone?

Melatonin

136

Stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine, what hormone?

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

137

Promotes reabsorption of sodium by the kidneys, what hormone?

Mineralocorticoids

138

Lowers blood glucose levels, what hormone?

Insulin

139

Raises blood glucose levels, constricts vessels, increases metabolic rate, what hormone?

Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

140

Stimulates testes and ovaries to produce their hormones, what hormone?

Luteinizing hormone

141
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The neutrophil is indicated by letter __________.

Answer: A

142
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The eosinophil is indicated by letter __________.

Answer: C

143
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The monocyte is indicated by letter __________.

Answer: B

144
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The lymphocyte is indicated by letter __________.

Answer: D

145
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The granulocytes are indicated by letters __________ and __________.

Answer: A; C

146
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The most common type of leukocyte is indicated by letter __________.

Answer: A

147
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The type of leukocyte that fights allergies and parasitic worms is indicated by letter __________.

Answer: C

148

Normal blood pH falls in a range between __________ to __________.

Answer: 7.35; 7.45

149

The plasma protein that contributes to the osmotic pressure of blood is __________.

Answer: albumin

150

The iron-containing protein found in RBCs that transports the majority of oxygen carried in the blood is __________.

Answer: hemoglobin

151

The normal number of erythrocytes in a cubic millimeter of blood is approximately __________.

Answer: 5 million

152

The inherited type of anemia that causes spiky and sharp red blood cells is called __________

Answer: sickle cell anemia

153

The red blood cell disorder caused by life at a high altitude is called __________.

Answer: polycythemia

154

White blood cells are also called __________.

Answer: leukocytes

155

The process by which white blood cells travel through the wall of blood vessels is termed __________.

Answer: diapedesis

156

Abnormally low levels of white blood cells causes a condition known as:

Answer: leukopenia

157

White blood cells containing granules and lobed nuclei are classified as __________.

Answer: granulocytes

158

The stem cell that gives rise to all formed elements is the __________.

Answer: hemocytoblast

159

The process by which bleeding is stopped is called __________.

Answer: hemostasis

160

A thrombus that has broken away from a vessel wall and is freely floating in the bloodstream is called an __________.

Answer: embolus

161

An insufficiency of circulating platelets is called __________.

Answer: thrombocytopenia

162

Hereditary bleeding disorders that result from lack of clotting factors are referred to as __________.

Answer: hemophilia

163

Substances that the body recognizes as foreign are called __________.

Answer: antigens

164

When antibodies bind to antigens on foreign blood types, clumping or __________ occurs.

Answer: agglutination

165

The universal donor blood type that can donate to any blood group is type __________.

Answer: O

166

The blood type that contains antigens A and B is __________.

Answer: AB

167

A person with type B blood can receive blood from blood type(s) __________.

Answer: B; O

168

If you carry the Rh antigen, you are referred to as Rh __________.

Answer: positive

169

The condition in which maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the baby's RBCs is called __________.

Answer: hemolytic disease of the newborn

170

The condition in which fetal RBCs are destroyed faster than the infant liver can rid the body of the breakdown products of hemoglobin is called __________.

Answer: physiologic jaundice

171

The matrix of blood is called:

A) plasma

B) formed elements

C) lymphocytes

D) buffy coat

E) erythrocytes

Answer: A

172

In a centrifuged blood sample, the buffy coat between the formed elements and the plasma contains:

A) platelets and erythrocytes

B) eythrocytes only

C) leukocytes only

D) leukocytes and erythrocytes

E) leukocytes and platelets

Answer: E

173

Which one of the following is NOT a physical characteristic of blood:

A) sticky

B) opaque

C) alkaline

D) sweet tasting
E) heavier than water

Answer: D

174

Hematocrit is the percentage of:

A) platelets in blood

B) formed elements in blood

C) erythrocytes in blood

D) plasma in blood
E) leukocytes in blood

Answer: C

175

Which one of the following formed elements is the most abundant:

A) platelets

B) erythrocytes

C) lymphocytes

D) eosinophils

E) basophils

Answer: B

176

Erythrocytes:
A) travel by diapedesis through the walls of vessels

B) lack a nucleus and most organelles
C) are the least common of all formed elements

D) possess lobed nuclei and cytoplasmic granules E) clot blood

Answer: B

177

Normal whole blood contains __________ g of hemoglobin per 100 mL.

A) 4-8

B) 12-18

C) 15-20

D) 30-35

E) 42-48

Answer: B

178

Which of the following red blood cell disorders may result from life at a higher altitude:

A) polycythemia

B) hemolytic anemia

C) sickle cell anemia

D) pernicious anemia

E) aplastic anemia

Answer: A

179

White blood cells differ from red blood cells because only they contain:

A) the ability to transport both oxygen and carbon dioxide

B) the iron-containing molecule called hemoglobin

C) a biconcave shape

D) cytoplasm
E) a nucleus and most organelles

Answer: E

180

Which of the following values is typical for the number of white blood cells in a cubic millimeter of blood:

A) 1,000

B) 5,000

C) 25,000

D) 50,000

E) 1 million

Answer: B

181

Leukocytosis most likely indicates:

A) low WBC count

B) bone marrow cancer
C) bacterial or viral infection

D) excess RBCs
E) life at a higher altitude

Answer: C

182

Which one of the following cells are classified as granulocytes:

A) neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

B) eosinophils and monocytes

C) basophils and eosinophils

D) lymphocytes and monocytes
E) neutrophils, lymphocytes, and eosinophils

Answer: A

183

Which type of granulocyte produces histamine during the inflammatory response:

A) neutrophils

B) monocytes

C) lymphocytes

D) eosinophils

E) basophils

Answer: E

184

The most numerous white blood cells are the:

A) lymphocytes

B) eosinophils

C) neutrophils

D) monocytes

E) basophils

Answer: C

185

Which type of leukocyte contains heparin, an anticoagulant:

A) neutrophil

B) eosinophil

C) monocyte

D) lymphocyte

  1. Answer: E

E) basophil

Answer: E

186

The type of leukocytes that become macrophages in the tissues are:

A) lymphocytes

B) eosinophils

C) neutrophils

D) monocytes

E) basophils

Answer: D

187

Platelets are fragments of multinucleate cells called:

A) erythrocytes

B) macrophages

C) eosinophils

D) megakaryocytes

E) basophils

Answer: D

188

Where does hematopoiesis produce new red blood cells:

A) epiphyseal line

B) yellow bone marrow

C) red bone marrow
D) articular cartilage

E) synovial membrane

Answer: C

189

Erythropoeitin is a hormone produced by the kidneys in response to low levels of:

A) oxygen

B) platelets

C) leukocytes

D) erythrocytes

E) carbon dioxide

Answer: A

190

The average functional lifespan of an RBC is:

A) 100-120 days

B) one year
C) the body's lifetime

D) 50-75 days

E) 20-30 days

Answer: A

191

An immature RBC which contains some endoplasmic reticulum is called a:

A) agranulocyte

B) megakaryocyte

C) hemocytoblast

D) granulocyte

E) reticulocyte

Answer: E

192

The hormone that regulates the rate of erythrocyte production is called:

A) erythropoietin

B) leukopoietin

C) vasopressin

D) thrombopoietin

E) renin

Answer: A

193

Megakaryocytes pinch off anucleate fragments called:

A) agranulocytes

B) platelets
C) granulocytes

D) erythrocytes

E) neutrophils

Answer: B

194

The series of reactions that stop blood flow following a cut is called:

A) erythropoiesis

B) hemostasis

C) agglutination

D) homeostasis

E) coagulation

Answer: B

195

Which one of the following represents the proper sequence of hemostasis:

A) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation

B) coagulation, platelet plug formation, vascular spasm

C) platelet plug formation, coagulation, vascular spasm

D) vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation

E) coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation

Answer: A

196

Which chemical is released to bring about vasoconstriction during the vascular spasm phase of hemostasis:

A) serotonin

B) interleukin
C) thrombopoietin

D) renin
E) erythropoietin

Answer: A

197

Blood normally clots in approximately: A) 30 minutes

B) 15 minutes

C) 1 minute

D) 3 to 6 minutes

E) 5 to 10 minutes

Answer: D

198

The formation of an insoluble clot during hemostasis is termed:

A) positive chemotaxis

B) agglutination

C) hematopoiesis

D) diapedesis

E) coagulation

Answer: E

199

Which of the following insoluble fibers forms a mesh network and the basis for the formation of a clot during coagulation:

A) hemoglobin

B) fibrinogen

C) fibrin

D) albumin

E) thrombin

Answer: C

200

A clot that breaks away from a vessel wall and circulates freely within the bloodstream is called a(n):

A) fibrin

B) thromboplastin

C) clotting cascade

D) thrombus

E) embolus

Answer: E

201

Which of the following is a blood clotting disorder:

A) anemia

B) hemophilia

C) polycythemia

D) leukocytosis

E) leukopenia

Answer: B

202

Bleeding disorders often result from a lack of which one of the following vitamins:

A) vitamin C

B) vitamin A

C) vitamin D

D) vitamin B12

E) vitamin K

Answer: E

203

The ion essential for blood clotting is:
A) iodine

B) potassium

C) sodium

D) calcium

E) hydrogen

Answer: D

204

The organ largely responsible for the synthesis of clotting factors is the:
A) spleen

B) pancreas

C) kidneys

D) thyroid

E) liver

Answer: E

205

Treatment of hemophilia often involves:
A) transfusion of plasma or injections of missing clotting factor

B) transfusion of plasma and vitamin K supplements

C) vitamin K supplements and B12 injections

D) injections of missing clotting factors and B12 injections

E) vitamin K supplements only

Answer: A

206

Severe shock occurs with blood loss of: A) over 5 percent

B) over 20 percent

C) over 50 percent

D) over 10 percent

E) over 30 percent

Answer: E

207

A substance that stimulates the immune system to release antibodies:

A) antigen

B) antibody

C) fibrinogen

D) prothrombin activator

E) interleukin

Answer: A

208

The process whereby the binding of antibodies to antigens causes RBCs to clump is called:

A) coagulation

B) hemolysis
C) agglutination

D) hemostasis
E) clotting cascade

Answer: C

209

Which blood type contains the A antigen only: A) blood type B

B) blood type AB

C) blood type O

D) blood types A and AB

E) blood type A

Answer: E

210

The most common type of blood in the U.S. population is:

A) A

B) B

C) AB

D) O

E) AO

Answer: D

211

The universal recipient has blood type: A) A

B) B

C) AB

D) O

E) ABO

Answer: C

212

Hemolysis most likely will occur when:
A) an Rh negative person receives the first transfusion of blood that is Rh positive

B) any person receives blood type O during a transfusion
C) an Rh positive person receives the first transfusion of blood that is Rh negative

D) an Rh negative person receives the second transfusion of blood that is Rh positive

E) platelets cling to the ruptured endothelium of a blood vessel

Answer: D

213

Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type O receive: A) blood types A, B, AB, or O

B) blood type A

C) blood type AB

D) blood type B

E) blood type O

Answer: E

214

The immune serum used to prevent maternal sensitization to Rh antigens is:
A) agglutinin

B) HepBIg

C) serotonin

D) interleukin

E) RhoGAM

Answer: E

215

Which of these blood types carries no antigens:

A) blood type AB

B) blood types A, B, and AB

C) blood type A

D) blood type B

E) blood type O

Answer: E

216

Compatibility testing for agglutination of donor RBCs by the recipients' serum is called:

A) hemolysis

B) transfusion reaction

C) hemodialysis

D) blood typing

E) cross matching

Answer: E

217

Physiologic jaundice occurring in newborns results from:

A) erythrocyte mutations

B) a diseased gallbladder that needs to be removed

C) accumulation of destroyed fetal red blood cells

D) liver disorders
E) vitamin deficiencies

Answer: C

218

Normal pH of blood is between 7.35 and 7.45.

True or False

True

219

Blood plasma makes up the majority of the blood content.

True or False

True

220

The temperature of blood is slightly lower than body temperature.

True or False

False

221

Leukocytes are more numerous in blood than erythrocytes.

True or False

False

222

The amount of hemoglobin contained within a RBC determines its capability to transport oxygen.

True or false

True

223

An excessive or abnormal increase in the number of erythrocytes in blood is termed anemia.

True or False

False

224

Basophils are the most numerous type of leukocyte.

True or False

False

225

All formed elements arise from a common type of stem cell called a hemocytoblast.

True or False

True

226

Normal blood volume in healthy males is 5-6 liters.

True or False

True

227

Erythropoeitin is released to stimulate platelet production in response to inadequate amounts of oxygen in the blood.

True or False

False

228

Antigens are substances the body recognizes as foreign.

True or False

True

229

A phlebotomist collects and processes blood samples for laboratory analysis.

True or False

True

230

Blood type A can receive blood from blood types A and AB during a transfusion.

True or False

False

231

Rh-related problems occur in pregnant Rh- women carrying an Rh+ baby.

True or False

True

232

Universal donors can receive blood groups A, B, AB, and O.

True or False

False

233

Excess numbers of these cells cause leukocytosis, which blood cell?

leukocytes

234

Alternate name for white blood cell, which blood cell?

leukocyte

235

Type of cell that contains a nucleus and organelles, which blood cell?

leukocyte

236

Type of cell that transports carbon dioxide, which blood cell?

erythrocyte

237

Type of cell produced in response to erythropoietin, which blood cell?

erythrocyte

238

Cell fragments that from the rupture of a megakaryocyte, which blood cell?

platelets

239

Immature form of this cell is called a reticulocyte, which blood cell?

erythrocytes

240

Type of cell that contains hemoglobin for gas transport, which blood cell?

erythrocytes

241

Most common type of blood cell?

erythrocytes

242

Type of cell fragment involved in hemostasis, which blood cell?

platelets

243

The blood type that has no antigens, which blood type?

Blood type O

244

The blood type that possesses the A, which blood type?

Blood type A

245

The blood type that can receive blood types B and O only, which blood type?

Blood type B

246

The blood type that forms anti-A and

anti-B antibodies, which blood type?

Blood type O

247

The blood type known as the universal donor, which blood cell?

Blood type O

248

The blood type known as the universal recipient, which blood cell?

Blood type AB

249
card image

The Purkinje fibers are indicated by label __________.

Answer: E

250
card image

The sinoatrial (SA) node is indicated by letter __________.

Answer: A

251
card image

The atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His) is represented by letter __________.

Answer: C

252
card image

The atrioventricular (AV) node is indicated by letter __________.

Answer: B

253
card image

The bundle branches are indicated by letter __________.

Answer: D

254
card image

The layer of the heart wall that receives the stimulus from letter E is called the __________.

Answer: myocardium

255

The partition where the bundle branches are located is called the __________.

Answer: interventricular septum

256

The heart is situated within the medial portion of the thoracic cavity, an indentation known as the __________.

Answer: mediastinum

257

The visceral layer of the serous pericardium is actually the same layer as the __________.

Answer: epicardium

258

The two superior receiving chambers of the heart are known as the __________, while the two inferior discharging chambers of the heart are known as the __________.

Answer: atria; ventricles

259

The valves located between the atria and ventricles are known as the __________ valves.

Answer: atrioventricular or AV

260

Blood leaves the right ventricle through a large artery called the __________

Answer: pulmonary trunk

261

The left atrium receives blood from the lungs via vessels identified as __________.

Answer: pulmonary veins

262

The tiny white cords that anchor the cusps or flaps of endocardium to the walls of the ventricles are called the __________.

Answer: chordae tendineae

263

Blood nourishing the myocardium with oxygenated blood comes from vessels that branch off the aorta called __________.

Answer: coronary arteries

264

The circulation from the heart to the lungs and back is known as __________ circulation.

Answer: pulmonary

265

The bicuspid valve is also referred to as the __________ valve.

Answer: mitral

266

When ventricles __________, the AV valves are closed.

Answer: contract

267

The coronary veins empty blood from the myocardium into a large vein on the posterior side of the heart known as the __________.

Answer: coronary sinus

268

The sinoatrial node, located in the right atrium of the heart, is often called the __________.

Answer: pacemaker

269

A recording of the heart's electrical activity is referred to as a(n) __________.

Answer: electrocardiogram or ECG

270

The electrocardiogram (ECG) wave that results from depolarization of the atria is the __________.

Answer: P wave

271

The first heart sound, "lub," is caused by the closure of the __________ valves.

Answer: atrioventricular or AV

272

The term that means heart contraction is __________

Answer: systole

273

During mid-to-late diastole, the pressure in the heart is __________.

Answer: low

274

The average heart beats about __________ times per minute.

Answer: 75

275

Cardiac output is the product of __________ and __________.

Answer: heart rate; stroke volume or HR, SR

276

The hormones epinephrine and thyroxine will cause the heart rate to __________.

Answer: increase

277

Larger blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called __________.

Answer: arteries

278

The type of tissue composing the tunica intimate is __________.

Answer: squamous epithelial tissue

279

Arteries are normally depicted as red while veins are colored blue. The exceptions to this rule are the __________ arteries and veins.

Answer: pulmonary or lungs

280

The amount of blood being pumped out of each side the heart in one minute is called __________.

Answer: cardiac output

281

Larger veins have __________ to prevent the backflow of blood.

Answer: valves

282

The flow of blood through a capillary bed is called __________.

Answer: microcirculation

283

The largest artery in the body is the __________.

Answer: aorta

284

The organs served by the renal arteries and veins are the __________.

Answer: kidneys

285

The longest veins in the body drain the leg and are the __________.

Answer: great saphenous veins

286

The __________ veins join to form the superior vena cava before emptying into the right atrium.

Answer: brachiocephalic

287

The single vessel that drains blood from the digestive tract organs to the liver is the __________.

Answer: hepatic portal vein

288

Branches of the common carotid arteries, known as the __________, travel through the neck into the skull through the temporal bone to supply the brain and cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis) with blood

Answer: internal carotid arteries

289

The vessel that carries oxygenated and nutrient-rich blood to the fetus is the umbilical __________

Answer: vein

290

The flaplike opening in the interatrial septum of the fetus through which blood is shunted directly from the right atrium to the left atrium is the __________.

Answer: foramen ovale

291

The pressure blood exerts against the inner walls of the blood vessels is known as __________.

Answer: blood pressure

292

The amount of friction blood encounters as it flows through the blood vessels is known as __________

Answer: peripheral resistance

293

The narrowing of blood vessels is known as __________.

Answer: vasoconstriction

294

A systolic blood pressure reading below 100 mm Hg is called __________.

Answer: hypotension

295

Fluid tends to be forced out of a capillary bed by __________ while __________ tends to draw fluid into the capillary bed.

Answer: blood pressure; osmotic pressure

296

The pointed apex of the heart is oriented toward the:

A) right hip

B) right shoulder

C) left hip

D) umbilicus
E) left shoulder

Answer: C

297

The layer of the heart wall synonymous with the visceral layer of the serous pericardium is:

A) epicardium

B) myocardium
C) either endocardium or epicardium

D) parietal layer of the serous pericardium

E) endocardium

Answer: A

298

Pulmonary circulation involves blood flow to and from the heart and the:

A) digestive organs

B) lungs

C) brain

D) body

E) skin

Answer: B

299

The right AV valve is known as the:

A) tricuspid valve

B) mitral valve
C) aortic semilunar valve

D) bicuspid valve
E) pulmonary semilunar valve

Answer: A

300

Pulmonary veins:
A) return blood to the right atrium of the heart

B) split off the pulmonary trunk
C) transport oxygenated blood to the heart

D) transport blood rich in carbon dioxide to the lungs

E) transport oxygenated blood to the lungs

Answer: C

301

What structure divides the left from the right ventricle:

A) interventricular septum

B) interatrial septum

C) tricuspid valve

D) chordae tendineae

E) bicuspid valve

Answer: A

302

When the ventricles contract, the bicuspid (mitral) valve prevents blood from flowing from the:

A) left ventricle to the right ventricle

B) right atrium to the left atrium

C) left ventricle to the left atrium

D) right ventricle to the right atrium

E) left atrium to the right atrium

Answer: C

303

The tricuspid valve is located between the:

A) left ventricle and pulmonary artery

B) left ventricle and aorta
C) right atrium and right ventricle

D) right atrium and left atrium
E) right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk

Answer: C

304

Deoxygenated blood is returned to the right side of the heart by the:

A) pulmonary arteries

B) pulmonary veins

C) aorta

D) superior and inferior vena cavae

E) pulmonary trunk

Answer: D

305

Which one of the following blood vessels carries oxygenated blood:

A) pulmonary artery

B) coronary sinus
C) superior vena cava

D) pulmonary vein

E) inferior vena cava

Answer: D

306

Which valve guards the base of the aorta and opens when the ventricles are contracting:

A) bicuspid valve

B) tricuspid valve
C) pulmonary semilunar valve

D) mitral valve
E) aortic semilunar valve

Answer: E

307

Which one of the following are direct branches of the left coronary artery:

A) posterior interventricular and marginal arteries

B) anterior interventricular and marginal arteries

C) anterior interventricular and circumflex arteries

D) circumflex and marginal arteries
E) anterior and posterior interventricular arteries

Answer: C

308

The sinoatrial node is located in the:

A) right atrium

B) interventricular septum

C) right ventricle

D) aorta
E) left atrium

Answer: A

309

Which one of the following represents the correct path for the transmission of an impulse in the intrinsic conduction system of the heart:

  1. A) (SA) node, (AV) node, (AV) bundle, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
  2. B) (AV) node, (AV) bundle, sinoatrial (SA) node, Purkinje fibers, right and left bundle branches
  3. C) (AV) node, (SA) node,(AV) bundle, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
  4. D)(SA) node,(AV) bundle, (AV) node, Purkinje fibers, right and left bundle branches
  5. E)(SA) node, (AV) bundle,AV) node, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

Answer: A

310

Chest pain resulting from the loss of oxygen to heart cells is called:

A) endocarditis

B) heart block
C) angina pectoris

D) stroke
E) myocardial infarction

Answer: C

311

Which of these events is NOT associated with ventricular systole:

A) blood rushes out of the ventricles

B) heart is relaxed
C) pressure in ventricles rises

D) atrioventricular valves close

E) semilunar valves open

Answer: B

312

The mitral valve is normally closed:

A) when the atrium is contracting

B) when the ventricle is contracting

C) when the ventricle is in systole

D) by the movement of blood from the atrium to the ventricle

E) when the ventricle is in diastole

Answer: C

313

A person with a heart rate of 75 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 60 mL per beat has a cardiac output of:

A) 6000 mL/minute

B) 120 mL/minute

C) 1.25 mL/minute

D) 0.8 mL/minute

E) 4500 mL/minute

Answer: E

314

Which one of the following is true concerning the "lub-dup" sounds of the heart:

A) the first sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the AV valves; the second sound is

shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the semilunar valves

B) they are caused by contraction of the ventricles, followed by contraction of the atria

C) the first sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the semilunar valves; the second sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the AV valves

D) the first sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the tricuspid valve; the second sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the mitral valve

E) the first sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the tricuspid valve; the second sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the mitral valve

Answer: A

315

The volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle with each beat of the heart is called the:

A) heart rate

B) stroke volume

C) cardiac cycle

D) cardiac output
E) diastolic pressure

Answer: B

316

The path of blood flow within the systemic vascular system is:

A) arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, veins, venules
B) arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, venules, veins
C) arterioles, arteries, venules, veins, capillary beds
D) arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, venules, veins
E) arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, veins, venules

Answer: D

317

Which of the following is common for right sided congestive heart failure:

A) coronary atherosclerosis

B) suffocation
C) pulmonary congestion and edema

D) myocardial infarction
E) peripheral congestion and edema

Answer: E

318

Which of the following increases heart rate:

A) epinephrine

B) cold
C) parasympathetic nervous system stimulation

D) vagus nerve stimulation

E) low levels of potassium

Answer: A

319

Veins:

A) branch into smaller vessels called arterioles

B) often have valves to prevent the backflow of blood

C) operate under high pressure

D) transport oxygen-rich blood

E) carry blood away from the hear

Answer: B

320

Which one of the following is caused by a decrease in venous return to the heart:

A) a decrease in stroke volume and an increase in cardiac output

B) a decrease in stroke volume and cardiac output
C) an increase in stroke volume and a decrease in cardiac output

D) an increase in stroke volume and cardiac output

E) no change in stroke volume and cardiac output

Answer: B

321

Which one is the correct sequence going from the outermost to the innermost layer of a blood vessel wall: A) tunica media, tunica externa, tunica intima

B) tunica externa, tunica intima, tunica media

C) tunica media, tunica intima, tunica externa

D) tunica externa, tunica media, tunica intima

E) tunica intima, tunica media, tunica externa

Answer: D

322

Which of the following blood vessels is a direct branch of the ascending aorta: A) left coronary artery

B) carotid artery
C) right subclavian artery

D) right coronary artery
E) both the right and left coronary arteries

Answer: E

323

Which one of the following does NOT receive blood directly from the aortic arch:

A) brachiocephalic artery

B) thoracic aorta
C) right common carotid artery

D) left subclavian artery
E) left common carotid artery

Answer: C

324

Which of the following arteries supplies the first half of the large intestine:

A) superior mesenteric artery

B) celiac artery

C) hepatic artery

D) splenic artery

E) femoral artery

Answer: A

325

Which of these pathways correctly traces blood as it travels from the aortic arch to the left arm:

A) aortic arch, brachiocephalic trunk, right common carotid artery

B) ascending aorta, right coronary arteries
C) abdominal aorta, celiac trunk, left gastric artery

D) aortic arch, left subclavian artery, left axillary artery, left brachial artery

E) aortic arch, left common carotid artery, left internal carotid artery

Answer: D

326

The external carotid artery serves the skin and muscles of the head and:
A) groin

B) leg

C) neck

D) abdomen

E) armpit

Answer: C

327

Which of these veins returns blood to the superior vena cava:

A) common iliac veins

B) renal veins
C) brachiocephalic veins

D) hepatic portal vein
E) great saphenous veins

Answer: C

328

The right and left renal veins empty blood from the:

A) kidneys

B) hepatic portal vein

C) vertebral vein

D) inferior vena cava

E) common iliac vein

Answer: A

329

The external iliac vein receives blood from all of the following EXCEPT:

A) femoral vein

B) vertebral vein

C) fibular vein

D) anterior tibial vein

E) popliteal vein

Answer: B

330

The brachial vein:
A) drains blood from the popliteal vein, then empties that blood into the femoral vein

B) drains blood from the axillary vein, then empties that blood into the superior vena cava
C) drains blood from the radial and ulnar veins, then empties that blood into the axillary vein

D) drains blood from the popliteal vein, then empties that blood into the external iliac vein
E) drains blood from the internal jugular vein, then empties that blood into the superior vena ca

Answer: C

331

The umbilical vein carries:
A) oxygen and nutrients from the fetus to the placenta

B) metabolic wastes and carbon dioxide from the fetus to the placenta

C) oxygen and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus

D) metabolic wastes and carbon dioxide from the placenta to the fetus

E) blood from the navel into the inferior vena cava

Answer: C

332

Which fetal shunt bypasses the lungs by directly connecting the right atrium and the left atrium:

A) ligamentum arteriosum

B) foramen ovale

C) umbilical vein

D) ductus arteriosus

E) ductus venosus

Answer: B

333

Which one of the following areas is NOT a pressure point:

A) posterior tibial artery

B) dorsalis pedis artery

C) radial artery

D) facial artery

E) renal artery

Answer: E