anatomy exam 3 ch. 9-11 Flashcards

The gland that produces thymosin is indicated by letter __________.

The gland that produces melatonin is indicated by letter __________.

The gland that produces testosterone is indicated by letter __________.

The glands that produce steroids and catecholamines are indicated by letter __________.

The producer of hormones released by the posterior pituitary is indicated by letter __________.

The gland that produces insulin and glucagon is indicated by letter __________.

The glands that act as antagonists to the thyroid gland are indicated by letter __________.

The gland that hangs from a stalk from the hypothalamus is indicated by letter __________.

The gland that is the major producer of female hormones is indicated by letter __________.

The gland that is primarily responsible for body metabolism is indicated by letter __________.

The thymus gland is indicated by letter __________.

The pancreas is indicated by letter __________.

The pineal gland is indicated by letter __________.

The gland situated around the thyroid gland that operates entirely under humoral control is represented by letter __________.

The hormones that operate by direct gene activation are steroid hormones and __________.

Hormones that are released in response to changing blood levels are controlled by __________ stimuli.

The protein hormone released by the anterior pituitary responsible for maintaining milk production in a breast-feeding female is __________.

The target organ of thyrotropic stimulating hormone (TSH) is the __________ gland.

Alcohol suppresses the production of this hormone, __________, which normally promotes water retention and prevents dehydration.

Thyroxine is also known by an alternate name, __________, due to the number of iodine atoms it contains,.

Calcitonin is made by the __________ of the thyroid gland.

Mineralocorticoids regulate the concentration of __________ and __________ ions in our blood.

Cortisone and cortisol and types of __________ produced by the middle cortical layer of the adrenal gland.

The enzyme produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops, which causes the release of aldosterone, is called ________

Male sex hormones produced by the adrenal cortex are called __________.

Generalized hyposecretion of all adrenal cortex hormones leads to __________.

Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids, often caused by a tumor, results in __________.

Another name for epinephrine is __________.

Insulin and glucagon are both hormones that are produced by __________.

Glucagon acts as an antagonist to a hormone called __________

When blood glucose levels are too high, the beta cells of the pancreas release __________ to decrease levels.

A hormone called __________ is believed to play an important role in establishing the body's day-night cycle.

A hormone called __________ plays an important role in incubating a special group of white blood cells.

The hormone produced by male testes which is responsible for sperm production is __________

Home pregnancy tests check for a hormone in the female's urine called __________.

1. Which system produces chemical messengers known as hormones: A) integumentary systemB) nervous systemC) Immune system D) endocrine systemE) muscular system

Which of the following hormones is NOT classified as a steroid hormone

A) mineralocorticoids

B) adrenocorticoids

C) oxytocin

D) estrogen
E) testosterone

1. A) enzymes are activated or inactivated B) mitosis is stimulated C) proteins are synthesized in the cell D) cellular mutations occur E) plasma membrane permeability changes

Prostaglandins are:

1. A) amino acid-based hormones B) glycerol hormones C) steroid hormones D) lipid hormones manufactured in cell plasma membranes E) target organs

Being lipid soluble, steroids can do all the following EXCEPT:

1. A) enter the nucleus B) bind to receptor proteins within the nucleusC) diffuse through the plasma membranes of target cells D) catalyze cyclic AMPE) activate genes to transcribe mRNA for protein synthesis

Most hormones are:

1. A) able to diffuse through the plasma membrane of their target cells B) released upon stimulation by other hormones C) classified as steroids D) regulated by a positive feedback mechanism E) controlled by blood levels of ions or nutrients

Most endocrine organs are prodded into action by other hormones; this type of stimulus is called:

A) receptor-mediated stimulus

B) steroid stimulus

C) hormonal stimulus

D) humoral stimulus

Tropic hormones:
A) stimulate prostaglandins

B) stimulate nervous tissue
C) stimulate other endocrine glands to secrete hormones

D) stimulate the pineal gland to secrete hormones

E) stimulate the thymus gland to secrete hormones

Growth hormone:
A) results in Cushing's disease if produced in excess

B) promotes growth in long bones and skeletal muscles

C) is produced by the thyroid gland

D) prevents urine production
E) is secreted by the thymus gland

Which one of the following is NOT an anterior pituitary hormone:

A) luteinizing hormone

B) follicle-stimulating hormone

C) antidiuretic hormone

D) adrenocorticotropic hormone E) prolactin

The hormone that stimulates follicle development by female ovaries and sperm development by male testes is:

A) prolactin
B) luteinizing hormone

C) progesterone
D) interstitial cell-stimulating hormone

E) follicle-stimulating hormone

Hypersecretion of growth hormone after long bone growth has ended (as an adult) is called:

A) acromegaly

B) Cushing's disease

C) pituitary dwarfism

D) myxedema

E) gigantism

Releasing and inhibiting hormones produced by the hypothalamus influence the activities of the:

A) thyroid gland

B) posterior pituitary gland

C) pineal gland

D) adrenal gland
E) anterior pituitary gland

An enlargement of the thyroid gland resulting from a deficiency of dietary iodine is called: A) acromegaly

B) goiter
C) cretinism

D) exophthalmos

E) myxedema

Which one of the following is NOT a function of oxytocin:

A) stimulation of uterine contractions

B) stimulation of menstruation
C) stimulation of breast milk ejection

D) postpartum bleeding control

E) labor induction

Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of:

A) glucagon

B) parathyroid hormone (PTH)

C) growth hormone

D) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

E) prolactin (PRL)

Which of these hormones prods the thyroid gland to release thyroxine:

A) gonadotropic hormones

B) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C) luteinizing hormone (LH)

D) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

E) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Alcohol inhibits the secretion of:

A) oxytocin

B) prolactin (PRL)
C) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

D) parathyroid hormone (PTH)

E) glucagon

The thyroid gland is located:

A) within the mediastinum

B) below the Adam's apple

C) within the parathyroid glands

D) above the kidneys

E) within the pancreas

The body's major metabolic hormone is called:

A) prolactin

B) growth hormone

C) thyroid hormone

D) adrenaline

E) calcitonin

The element necessary in the diet for proper thyroid function is:

A) sodium

B) iodine

C) calcium

D) potassium

E) bromine

Hyposecretion of thyroxine in childhood leads to a disease known as:

A) goiter

B) myxedema
C) exophthalmos

D) dwarfism

E) cretinism

Which of these hormones regulate calcium levels in the body:

A) oxytocin and prolactin

B) melatonin and glucocorticoids

C) insulin and glucagon

D) T3 and T4
E) calcitonin and parathyroid hormone

Which hormone, released by the heart, prevents aldosterone release in order to lower blood pressure:

A) angiotensin II

B) renin
C) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

D) cortisol
E) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Which of these hormones is released by the adrenal medulla:

A) epinephrine

B) cortisone
C) glucocorticoids

D) sex hormones

E) aldosterone

Rising blood levels of aldosterone cause the kidney tubules to:

A) reabsorb calcium

B) reabsorb iodine

C) reabsorb sodium

D) reabsorb hydrogen

E) reabsorb potassium

Tetany resulting from uncontrolled muscle spasms may indicate a malfunction of the:

A) posterior pituitary

B) adrenal cortex

C) pineal gland

D) thymus
E) parathyroid glands

The enzyme produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops, stimulating a release of aldosterone, is called:

A) cortisone

B) cortisol

C) vasopressin

D) renin

E) angiotensin

Glucocorticoids do all of the following EXCEPT:

A) increase blood glucose levels

B) suppress inflammation

C) decrease edema

D) help resist long-term stress
E) regulate salt content of the blood

Hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex hormones results in skin bronzing, feeling of burn-out, and suppression of the immune system; this condition is known as:

A) Addison's disease

B) Cushing's syndrome

C) cretinism
D) diabetes insipidus

E) Graves' disease

The "fight-or-flight" response triggers the release of:

A) melatonin

B) growth hormone

C) ADH

D) prolactin
E) epinephrine

Which one of the following is NOT an action of the catecholamines:

A) decreased blood pressure

B) increased heart rate
C) dilation of the small passages of the lungs

D) stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

E) increased blood glucose levels

Insulin is produced by cells of the pancreatic islets called:

A) theta cells

B) delta cells

C) gamma cells

D) alpha cells

E) beta cells

Which of the following hormones decreases blood glucose levels:

A) epinephrine

B) insulin
C) glucocorticoids

D) glucagon
E) growth hormone

The pancreas is located:

A) close to the stomach

B) on top of the kidneys

C) beneath the sternum

D) near the hypothalamus in the brain E) around the trachea

Which one of the following is NOT a sign of diabetes mellitus:

A) acidosis

B) polyuria

C) moon face

D) polyphagia

E) polydipsia

The pineal gland produces:

A) cortisol

B) thymosin

C) melatonin

D) insulin

E) estrogen

The hormone that appears to help regulate our sleep-awake cycles is:

A) thyroxine

B) thymosin

C) melatonin

D) progesterone

E) glucagon

The hormone responsible for the maturation of white blood cells known as T lymphocytes is:

A) thyroxine

B) thymosin

C) melatonin

D) aldosterone

E) progesterone

Estrogens do all of the following EXCEPT:
A) prepare the uterus to receive a fertilized egg

B) stimulate the development of secondary sex characteristics in females

C) stimulate growth of facial hair

D) help maintain pregnancy

E) stimulate menstruation

Which of the following is NOT an effect of testosterone:

A) growth of facial hair

B) sperm production
C) deepening of the voice

D) development of heavy bones and muscles

E) maintenance of pregnancy

Sex hormones produced by the ovaries and testes:

A) are protein hormones

B) are secreted in response to posterior pituitary hormones
C) are controlled by hormones produced by the adrenal cortex

D) are produced in equal amounts in both males and females

E) promote the formation of sex cells

The cells in the testes that produce testosterone are called:

A) beta cells

B) alpha cells
C) interstitial cells

D) gonadotropic cells

E) pancreatic islet cells

Which hormone is produced by the placenta that stimulates the ovaries to continue producing estrogen and progesterone:

A) prolactin

B) oxytocin

C) luteinizing hormone (LH)
D) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

E) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Cholecystokinin (CCK) and secretin are two hormones produced by the:

A) stomach

B) liver

C) heart

D) cecum of large intestine
E) duodenum of small intestine

The study of hormones and endocrine organs is known as immunology.

True or False

All hormones can arouse and bring about changes in all cells of the human body.

True or False

Most hormones are regulated by negative feedback mechanisms.

True or False

Hormones that are secreted in response to other hormones are prodded by hormonal stimuli.

True or False

The hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary are actually made by the hypothalamus.

True or False

Hypersecretion of growth hormone during childhood leads to pituitary dwarfism.

True or False

The target tissue of prolactin is the female breast.

True or False

Neurosecretory cells transport oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone to the anterior pituitary gland for storage.

True or False

Antidiuretic hormone inhibits urine production and promotes water reabsorption by the kidney.

True or False

Vasopressin is another name for antidiuretic hormone.

True or False

Hyposecretion of FSH or LH leads to sterility in both males and females.

True or False

Thyroid hormone targets all cells of the body.

True or False

Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of insulin.

True or False

Thyroid hormone is actually two iodine-containing hormones called T3 and T4.

True or False

Thyroxine is converted to triiodothyronine at target tissues to promote metabolism.

True or False

Calcitonin is produced by the follicular cells of the thyroid gland.

True or False

Parathyroid hormone is the most important regulator of blood calcium concentration.

True or False

Calcitonin is a hormone antagonistic to parathormone in the regulation of blood calcium concentration.

True or False

Mineralocorticoids help regulate both water and electrolyte balance in body fluids.

True or False

The adrenal glands are similar to the pituitary gland in that they have both glandular and neural tissue.

True or False

The adrenal cortex is made up of neural tissue.

True or False

Glucocorticoids, glucagon, and epinephrine are hyperglycemic hormones.

True or False

The glucocorticoids help the body handle long-term stress primarily by increasing blood glucose levels.

True or False

Both male and female sex hormones are produced by the adrenal cortex throughout life in relatively small amounts.

True or False

Hypersecretion of the sex hormones may lead to masculinization in both men and women.

True or False

The adrenal medulla and posterior pituitary are both composed of nervous tissue.

True or False

Adrenaline is also known as epinephrine.

True or False

Aldosterone raises blood glucose levels through the breakdown of fats and proteins.

True or False

Melatonin production peaks during the night to help regulate the body's day-night cycle.

True or false

The thymus gland is located in the neck wrapped around the trachea.

True or False

The ovaries release estrogen and progesterone in response to gonadotropic hormones from the pituitary gland.

True or False

The placenta is a temporary organ formed in the uterus of pregnant women.

True or False

Growth hormone is found in what organ?

Prolactin is found in what organ?

Adrenocorticotropic hormone is found in what organ?

Thyroid-stimulating hormone is found in what organ?

Luteinizing hormone is found in what organ?

Oxytocin is found in what organ ?

Antidiuretic hormone is found in what organ ?

Follicle-stimulating hormone is found in what organ ?

Thyroxine is found in what organ ?

Calcitonin is found in what organ?

Parathormone is found in what organ?

Aldosterone is found in what organ?

Cortisone is what found in what organ?

Catecholamines is found in what organ?

Glucocorticoids is found in what organ?

Insulin is found in what organ?

Glucagon is found in what organ?

Melatonin is found in what organ?

Thymosin is found in what organ?

Human chorionic gonadotropin is found in what organ?

Stimulates contraction of the uterus and the milk reflex, what hormone?

Lowers blood calcium levels, what hormone?

Involved in daily and seasonal biological rhythms, what hormone?

Stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine, what hormone?

Promotes reabsorption of sodium by the kidneys, what hormone?

Lowers blood glucose levels, what hormone?

Raises blood glucose levels, constricts vessels, increases metabolic rate, what hormone?

Stimulates testes and ovaries to produce their hormones, what hormone?

The neutrophil is indicated by letter __________.

The eosinophil is indicated by letter __________.

The monocyte is indicated by letter __________.

The lymphocyte is indicated by letter __________.

The granulocytes are indicated by letters __________ and __________.

The most common type of leukocyte is indicated by letter __________.

The type of leukocyte that fights allergies and parasitic worms is indicated by letter __________.

Normal blood pH falls in a range between __________ to __________.

The plasma protein that contributes to the osmotic pressure of blood is __________.

The iron-containing protein found in RBCs that transports the majority of oxygen carried in the blood is __________.

The normal number of erythrocytes in a cubic millimeter of blood is approximately __________.

The inherited type of anemia that causes spiky and sharp red blood cells is called __________

The red blood cell disorder caused by life at a high altitude is called __________.

White blood cells are also called __________.

The process by which white blood cells travel through the wall of blood vessels is termed __________.

Abnormally low levels of white blood cells causes a condition known as:

White blood cells containing granules and lobed nuclei are classified as __________.

The stem cell that gives rise to all formed elements is the __________.

The process by which bleeding is stopped is called __________.

A thrombus that has broken away from a vessel wall and is freely floating in the bloodstream is called an __________.

An insufficiency of circulating platelets is called __________.

Hereditary bleeding disorders that result from lack of clotting factors are referred to as __________.

Substances that the body recognizes as foreign are called __________.

When antibodies bind to antigens on foreign blood types, clumping or __________ occurs.

The universal donor blood type that can donate to any blood group is type __________.

The blood type that contains antigens A and B is __________.

A person with type B blood can receive blood from blood type(s) __________.

If you carry the Rh antigen, you are referred to as Rh __________.

The condition in which maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the baby's RBCs is called __________.

The condition in which fetal RBCs are destroyed faster than the infant liver can rid the body of the breakdown products of hemoglobin is called __________.

The matrix of blood is called:

A) plasma

B) formed elements

C) lymphocytes

D) buffy coat

E) erythrocytes

In a centrifuged blood sample, the buffy coat between the formed elements and the plasma contains:

A) platelets and erythrocytes

B) eythrocytes only

C) leukocytes only

D) leukocytes and erythrocytes

E) leukocytes and platelets

Which one of the following is NOT a physical characteristic of blood:

A) sticky

B) opaque

C) alkaline

D) sweet tasting
E) heavier than water

Hematocrit is the percentage of:

A) platelets in blood

B) formed elements in blood

C) erythrocytes in blood

D) plasma in blood
E) leukocytes in blood

Which one of the following formed elements is the most abundant:

A) platelets

B) erythrocytes

C) lymphocytes

D) eosinophils

E) basophils

Erythrocytes:
A) travel by diapedesis through the walls of vessels

B) lack a nucleus and most organelles
C) are the least common of all formed elements

D) possess lobed nuclei and cytoplasmic granules E) clot blood

Normal whole blood contains __________ g of hemoglobin per 100 mL.

A) 4-8

B) 12-18

C) 15-20

D) 30-35

E) 42-48

Which of the following red blood cell disorders may result from life at a higher altitude:

A) polycythemia

B) hemolytic anemia

C) sickle cell anemia

D) pernicious anemia

E) aplastic anemia

White blood cells differ from red blood cells because only they contain:

A) the ability to transport both oxygen and carbon dioxide

B) the iron-containing molecule called hemoglobin

C) a biconcave shape

D) cytoplasm
E) a nucleus and most organelles

Which of the following values is typical for the number of white blood cells in a cubic millimeter of blood:

A) 1,000

B) 5,000

C) 25,000

D) 50,000

E) 1 million

Leukocytosis most likely indicates:

A) low WBC count

B) bone marrow cancer
C) bacterial or viral infection

D) excess RBCs
E) life at a higher altitude

Which one of the following cells are classified as granulocytes:

A) neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

B) eosinophils and monocytes

C) basophils and eosinophils

D) lymphocytes and monocytes
E) neutrophils, lymphocytes, and eosinophils

Which type of granulocyte produces histamine during the inflammatory response:

A) neutrophils

B) monocytes

C) lymphocytes

D) eosinophils

E) basophils

The most numerous white blood cells are the:

A) lymphocytes

B) eosinophils

C) neutrophils

D) monocytes

E) basophils

Which type of leukocyte contains heparin, an anticoagulant:

A) neutrophil

B) eosinophil

C) monocyte

D) lymphocyte

1. Answer: E

E) basophil

The type of leukocytes that become macrophages in the tissues are:

A) lymphocytes

B) eosinophils

C) neutrophils

D) monocytes

E) basophils

Platelets are fragments of multinucleate cells called:

A) erythrocytes

B) macrophages

C) eosinophils

D) megakaryocytes

E) basophils

Where does hematopoiesis produce new red blood cells:

A) epiphyseal line

B) yellow bone marrow

C) red bone marrow
D) articular cartilage

E) synovial membrane

Erythropoeitin is a hormone produced by the kidneys in response to low levels of:

A) oxygen

B) platelets

C) leukocytes

D) erythrocytes

E) carbon dioxide

The average functional lifespan of an RBC is:

A) 100-120 days

B) one year
C) the body's lifetime

D) 50-75 days

E) 20-30 days

An immature RBC which contains some endoplasmic reticulum is called a:

A) agranulocyte

B) megakaryocyte

C) hemocytoblast

D) granulocyte

E) reticulocyte

The hormone that regulates the rate of erythrocyte production is called:

A) erythropoietin

B) leukopoietin

C) vasopressin

D) thrombopoietin

E) renin

Megakaryocytes pinch off anucleate fragments called:

A) agranulocytes

B) platelets
C) granulocytes

D) erythrocytes

E) neutrophils

The series of reactions that stop blood flow following a cut is called:

A) erythropoiesis

B) hemostasis

C) agglutination

D) homeostasis

E) coagulation

Which one of the following represents the proper sequence of hemostasis:

A) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation

B) coagulation, platelet plug formation, vascular spasm

C) platelet plug formation, coagulation, vascular spasm

D) vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation

E) coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation

Which chemical is released to bring about vasoconstriction during the vascular spasm phase of hemostasis:

A) serotonin

B) interleukin
C) thrombopoietin

D) renin
E) erythropoietin

Blood normally clots in approximately: A) 30 minutes

B) 15 minutes

C) 1 minute

D) 3 to 6 minutes

E) 5 to 10 minutes

The formation of an insoluble clot during hemostasis is termed:

A) positive chemotaxis

B) agglutination

C) hematopoiesis

D) diapedesis

E) coagulation

Which of the following insoluble fibers forms a mesh network and the basis for the formation of a clot during coagulation:

A) hemoglobin

B) fibrinogen

C) fibrin

D) albumin

E) thrombin

A clot that breaks away from a vessel wall and circulates freely within the bloodstream is called a(n):

A) fibrin

B) thromboplastin

C) clotting cascade

D) thrombus

E) embolus

Which of the following is a blood clotting disorder:

A) anemia

B) hemophilia

C) polycythemia

D) leukocytosis

E) leukopenia

Bleeding disorders often result from a lack of which one of the following vitamins:

A) vitamin C

B) vitamin A

C) vitamin D

D) vitamin B12

E) vitamin K

The ion essential for blood clotting is:
A) iodine

B) potassium

C) sodium

D) calcium

E) hydrogen

The organ largely responsible for the synthesis of clotting factors is the:
A) spleen

B) pancreas

C) kidneys

D) thyroid

E) liver

Treatment of hemophilia often involves:
A) transfusion of plasma or injections of missing clotting factor

B) transfusion of plasma and vitamin K supplements

C) vitamin K supplements and B12 injections

D) injections of missing clotting factors and B12 injections

E) vitamin K supplements only

Severe shock occurs with blood loss of: A) over 5 percent

B) over 20 percent

C) over 50 percent

D) over 10 percent

E) over 30 percent

A substance that stimulates the immune system to release antibodies:

A) antigen

B) antibody

C) fibrinogen

D) prothrombin activator

E) interleukin

The process whereby the binding of antibodies to antigens causes RBCs to clump is called:

A) coagulation

B) hemolysis
C) agglutination

D) hemostasis
E) clotting cascade

Which blood type contains the A antigen only: A) blood type B

B) blood type AB

C) blood type O

D) blood types A and AB

E) blood type A

The most common type of blood in the U.S. population is:

A) A

B) B

C) AB

D) O

E) AO

The universal recipient has blood type: A) A

B) B

C) AB

D) O

E) ABO

Hemolysis most likely will occur when:
A) an Rh negative person receives the first transfusion of blood that is Rh positive

B) any person receives blood type O during a transfusion
C) an Rh positive person receives the first transfusion of blood that is Rh negative

D) an Rh negative person receives the second transfusion of blood that is Rh positive

E) platelets cling to the ruptured endothelium of a blood vessel

Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type O receive: A) blood types A, B, AB, or O

B) blood type A

C) blood type AB

D) blood type B

E) blood type O

The immune serum used to prevent maternal sensitization to Rh antigens is:
A) agglutinin

B) HepBIg

C) serotonin

D) interleukin

E) RhoGAM

Which of these blood types carries no antigens:

A) blood type AB

B) blood types A, B, and AB

C) blood type A

D) blood type B

E) blood type O

Compatibility testing for agglutination of donor RBCs by the recipients' serum is called:

A) hemolysis

B) transfusion reaction

C) hemodialysis

D) blood typing

E) cross matching

Physiologic jaundice occurring in newborns results from:

A) erythrocyte mutations

B) a diseased gallbladder that needs to be removed

C) accumulation of destroyed fetal red blood cells

D) liver disorders
E) vitamin deficiencies

Normal pH of blood is between 7.35 and 7.45.

True or False

Blood plasma makes up the majority of the blood content.

True or False

The temperature of blood is slightly lower than body temperature.

True or False

Leukocytes are more numerous in blood than erythrocytes.

True or False

The amount of hemoglobin contained within a RBC determines its capability to transport oxygen.

True or false

An excessive or abnormal increase in the number of erythrocytes in blood is termed anemia.

True or False

Basophils are the most numerous type of leukocyte.

True or False

All formed elements arise from a common type of stem cell called a hemocytoblast.

True or False

Normal blood volume in healthy males is 5-6 liters.

True or False

Erythropoeitin is released to stimulate platelet production in response to inadequate amounts of oxygen in the blood.

True or False

Antigens are substances the body recognizes as foreign.

True or False

A phlebotomist collects and processes blood samples for laboratory analysis.

True or False

Blood type A can receive blood from blood types A and AB during a transfusion.

True or False

Rh-related problems occur in pregnant Rh- women carrying an Rh+ baby.

True or False

Universal donors can receive blood groups A, B, AB, and O.

True or False

Excess numbers of these cells cause leukocytosis, which blood cell?

Alternate name for white blood cell, which blood cell?

Type of cell that contains a nucleus and organelles, which blood cell?

Type of cell that transports carbon dioxide, which blood cell?

Type of cell produced in response to erythropoietin, which blood cell?

Cell fragments that from the rupture of a megakaryocyte, which blood cell?

Immature form of this cell is called a reticulocyte, which blood cell?

Type of cell that contains hemoglobin for gas transport, which blood cell?

Most common type of blood cell?

Type of cell fragment involved in hemostasis, which blood cell?

The blood type that has no antigens, which blood type?

The blood type that possesses the A, which blood type?

The blood type that can receive blood types B and O only, which blood type?

The blood type that forms anti-A and

anti-B antibodies, which blood type?

The blood type known as the universal donor, which blood cell?

The blood type known as the universal recipient, which blood cell?

The Purkinje fibers are indicated by label __________.

The sinoatrial (SA) node is indicated by letter __________.

The atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His) is represented by letter __________.

The atrioventricular (AV) node is indicated by letter __________.

The bundle branches are indicated by letter __________.

The layer of the heart wall that receives the stimulus from letter E is called the __________.

The partition where the bundle branches are located is called the __________.

The heart is situated within the medial portion of the thoracic cavity, an indentation known as the __________.

The visceral layer of the serous pericardium is actually the same layer as the __________.

The two superior receiving chambers of the heart are known as the __________, while the two inferior discharging chambers of the heart are known as the __________.

The valves located between the atria and ventricles are known as the __________ valves.

Blood leaves the right ventricle through a large artery called the __________

The left atrium receives blood from the lungs via vessels identified as __________.

The tiny white cords that anchor the cusps or flaps of endocardium to the walls of the ventricles are called the __________.

Blood nourishing the myocardium with oxygenated blood comes from vessels that branch off the aorta called __________.

The circulation from the heart to the lungs and back is known as __________ circulation.

The bicuspid valve is also referred to as the __________ valve.

When ventricles __________, the AV valves are closed.

The coronary veins empty blood from the myocardium into a large vein on the posterior side of the heart known as the __________.

The sinoatrial node, located in the right atrium of the heart, is often called the __________.

A recording of the heart's electrical activity is referred to as a(n) __________.

The electrocardiogram (ECG) wave that results from depolarization of the atria is the __________.

The first heart sound, "lub," is caused by the closure of the __________ valves.

The term that means heart contraction is __________

During mid-to-late diastole, the pressure in the heart is __________.

The average heart beats about __________ times per minute.

Cardiac output is the product of __________ and __________.

The hormones epinephrine and thyroxine will cause the heart rate to __________.

Larger blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called __________.

The type of tissue composing the tunica intimate is __________.

Arteries are normally depicted as red while veins are colored blue. The exceptions to this rule are the __________ arteries and veins.

The amount of blood being pumped out of each side the heart in one minute is called __________.

Larger veins have __________ to prevent the backflow of blood.

The flow of blood through a capillary bed is called __________.

The largest artery in the body is the __________.

The organs served by the renal arteries and veins are the __________.

The longest veins in the body drain the leg and are the __________.

The __________ veins join to form the superior vena cava before emptying into the right atrium.

The single vessel that drains blood from the digestive tract organs to the liver is the __________.

Branches of the common carotid arteries, known as the __________, travel through the neck into the skull through the temporal bone to supply the brain and cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis) with blood

The vessel that carries oxygenated and nutrient-rich blood to the fetus is the umbilical __________

The flaplike opening in the interatrial septum of the fetus through which blood is shunted directly from the right atrium to the left atrium is the __________.

The pressure blood exerts against the inner walls of the blood vessels is known as __________.

The amount of friction blood encounters as it flows through the blood vessels is known as __________

The narrowing of blood vessels is known as __________.

A systolic blood pressure reading below 100 mm Hg is called __________.

Fluid tends to be forced out of a capillary bed by __________ while __________ tends to draw fluid into the capillary bed.

The pointed apex of the heart is oriented toward the:

A) right hip

B) right shoulder

C) left hip

D) umbilicus
E) left shoulder

The layer of the heart wall synonymous with the visceral layer of the serous pericardium is:

A) epicardium

B) myocardium
C) either endocardium or epicardium

D) parietal layer of the serous pericardium

E) endocardium

Pulmonary circulation involves blood flow to and from the heart and the:

A) digestive organs

B) lungs

C) brain

D) body

E) skin

The right AV valve is known as the:

A) tricuspid valve

B) mitral valve
C) aortic semilunar valve

D) bicuspid valve
E) pulmonary semilunar valve

Pulmonary veins:
A) return blood to the right atrium of the heart

B) split off the pulmonary trunk
C) transport oxygenated blood to the heart

D) transport blood rich in carbon dioxide to the lungs

E) transport oxygenated blood to the lungs

What structure divides the left from the right ventricle:

A) interventricular septum

B) interatrial septum

C) tricuspid valve

D) chordae tendineae

E) bicuspid valve

When the ventricles contract, the bicuspid (mitral) valve prevents blood from flowing from the:

A) left ventricle to the right ventricle

B) right atrium to the left atrium

C) left ventricle to the left atrium

D) right ventricle to the right atrium

E) left atrium to the right atrium

The tricuspid valve is located between the:

A) left ventricle and pulmonary artery

B) left ventricle and aorta
C) right atrium and right ventricle

D) right atrium and left atrium
E) right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk

Deoxygenated blood is returned to the right side of the heart by the:

A) pulmonary arteries

B) pulmonary veins

C) aorta

D) superior and inferior vena cavae

E) pulmonary trunk

Which one of the following blood vessels carries oxygenated blood:

A) pulmonary artery

B) coronary sinus
C) superior vena cava

D) pulmonary vein

E) inferior vena cava

Which valve guards the base of the aorta and opens when the ventricles are contracting:

A) bicuspid valve

B) tricuspid valve
C) pulmonary semilunar valve

D) mitral valve
E) aortic semilunar valve

Which one of the following are direct branches of the left coronary artery:

A) posterior interventricular and marginal arteries

B) anterior interventricular and marginal arteries

C) anterior interventricular and circumflex arteries

D) circumflex and marginal arteries
E) anterior and posterior interventricular arteries

The sinoatrial node is located in the:

A) right atrium

B) interventricular septum

C) right ventricle

D) aorta
E) left atrium

Which one of the following represents the correct path for the transmission of an impulse in the intrinsic conduction system of the heart:

1. A) (SA) node, (AV) node, (AV) bundle, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
2. B) (AV) node, (AV) bundle, sinoatrial (SA) node, Purkinje fibers, right and left bundle branches
3. C) (AV) node, (SA) node,(AV) bundle, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
4. D)(SA) node,(AV) bundle, (AV) node, Purkinje fibers, right and left bundle branches
5. E)(SA) node, (AV) bundle,AV) node, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

Chest pain resulting from the loss of oxygen to heart cells is called:

A) endocarditis

B) heart block
C) angina pectoris

D) stroke
E) myocardial infarction

Which of these events is NOT associated with ventricular systole:

A) blood rushes out of the ventricles

B) heart is relaxed
C) pressure in ventricles rises

D) atrioventricular valves close

E) semilunar valves open

The mitral valve is normally closed:

A) when the atrium is contracting

B) when the ventricle is contracting

C) when the ventricle is in systole

D) by the movement of blood from the atrium to the ventricle

E) when the ventricle is in diastole

A person with a heart rate of 75 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 60 mL per beat has a cardiac output of:

A) 6000 mL/minute

B) 120 mL/minute

C) 1.25 mL/minute

D) 0.8 mL/minute

E) 4500 mL/minute

Which one of the following is true concerning the "lub-dup" sounds of the heart:

A) the first sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the AV valves; the second sound is

shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the semilunar valves

B) they are caused by contraction of the ventricles, followed by contraction of the atria

C) the first sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the semilunar valves; the second sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the AV valves

D) the first sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the tricuspid valve; the second sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the mitral valve

E) the first sound is longer and louder and is caused by closure of the tricuspid valve; the second sound is shorter and sharper and is caused by closure of the mitral valve

The volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle with each beat of the heart is called the:

A) heart rate

B) stroke volume

C) cardiac cycle

D) cardiac output
E) diastolic pressure

The path of blood flow within the systemic vascular system is:

A) arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, veins, venules
B) arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, venules, veins
C) arterioles, arteries, venules, veins, capillary beds
D) arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, venules, veins
E) arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, veins, venules

Which of the following is common for right sided congestive heart failure:

A) coronary atherosclerosis

B) suffocation
C) pulmonary congestion and edema

D) myocardial infarction
E) peripheral congestion and edema

Which of the following increases heart rate:

A) epinephrine

B) cold
C) parasympathetic nervous system stimulation

D) vagus nerve stimulation

E) low levels of potassium

Veins:

A) branch into smaller vessels called arterioles

B) often have valves to prevent the backflow of blood

C) operate under high pressure

D) transport oxygen-rich blood

E) carry blood away from the hear

Which one of the following is caused by a decrease in venous return to the heart:

A) a decrease in stroke volume and an increase in cardiac output

B) a decrease in stroke volume and cardiac output
C) an increase in stroke volume and a decrease in cardiac output

D) an increase in stroke volume and cardiac output

E) no change in stroke volume and cardiac output

Which one is the correct sequence going from the outermost to the innermost layer of a blood vessel wall: A) tunica media, tunica externa, tunica intima

B) tunica externa, tunica intima, tunica media

C) tunica media, tunica intima, tunica externa

D) tunica externa, tunica media, tunica intima

E) tunica intima, tunica media, tunica externa

Which of the following blood vessels is a direct branch of the ascending aorta: A) left coronary artery

B) carotid artery
C) right subclavian artery

D) right coronary artery
E) both the right and left coronary arteries

Which one of the following does NOT receive blood directly from the aortic arch:

A) brachiocephalic artery

B) thoracic aorta
C) right common carotid artery

D) left subclavian artery
E) left common carotid artery

Which of the following arteries supplies the first half of the large intestine:

A) superior mesenteric artery

B) celiac artery

C) hepatic artery

D) splenic artery

E) femoral artery

Which of these pathways correctly traces blood as it travels from the aortic arch to the left arm:

A) aortic arch, brachiocephalic trunk, right common carotid artery

B) ascending aorta, right coronary arteries
C) abdominal aorta, celiac trunk, left gastric artery

D) aortic arch, left subclavian artery, left axillary artery, left brachial artery

E) aortic arch, left common carotid artery, left internal carotid artery

The external carotid artery serves the skin and muscles of the head and:
A) groin

B) leg

C) neck

D) abdomen

E) armpit

Which of these veins returns blood to the superior vena cava:

A) common iliac veins

B) renal veins
C) brachiocephalic veins

D) hepatic portal vein
E) great saphenous veins

The right and left renal veins empty blood from the:

A) kidneys

B) hepatic portal vein

C) vertebral vein

D) inferior vena cava

E) common iliac vein

The external iliac vein receives blood from all of the following EXCEPT:

A) femoral vein

B) vertebral vein

C) fibular vein

D) anterior tibial vein

E) popliteal vein

The brachial vein:
A) drains blood from the popliteal vein, then empties that blood into the femoral vein

B) drains blood from the axillary vein, then empties that blood into the superior vena cava
C) drains blood from the radial and ulnar veins, then empties that blood into the axillary vein

D) drains blood from the popliteal vein, then empties that blood into the external iliac vein
E) drains blood from the internal jugular vein, then empties that blood into the superior vena ca

The umbilical vein carries:
A) oxygen and nutrients from the fetus to the placenta

B) metabolic wastes and carbon dioxide from the fetus to the placenta

C) oxygen and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus

D) metabolic wastes and carbon dioxide from the placenta to the fetus

E) blood from the navel into the inferior vena cava

Which fetal shunt bypasses the lungs by directly connecting the right atrium and the left atrium:

A) ligamentum arteriosum

B) foramen ovale

C) umbilical vein

D) ductus arteriosus

E) ductus venosus

Which one of the following areas is NOT a pressure point:

A) posterior tibial artery

B) dorsalis pedis artery

C) radial artery

D) facial artery

E) renal artery