200 most commonly prescribed drugs (exam sake version)

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1

CHAPTER 1

ANALGESICS

2

Which of the following is a contraindication to all narcotic analgesics?

a. Severe respiratory disease or depression, including acute asthma (unless patient is
mechanically ventilated)
b. Uncontrolled hypertension
c. Concomitant use of topical steroids
d. Active smoking history

A

3

Which of the following is true regarding buprenorphine?
a. Buprenorphine is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID)
b. Buprenorphine is Pregnancy Category C
c. Buprenorphine is not available in a transdermal patch formulation
d. Buprenorphine does not have hepatic dose adjustments

B

4

Which if the following is false regarding fentanyl?
a. Fentanyl is a Class III controlled substance
b. Dosage Forms of fentanyl include nasal spray, sublingual spray, sublingual tablets, and
injection
c. Fentanyl is Pregnancy Category C
d. Common adverse effects of fentanyl include constipation, nausea, vomiting, and
sedation

A

5

Which of the following is an appropriate starting dose of hydromorphone immediate release
oral formulation?
a. 16 mg PO every 4 hours as needed
b. 9 mg PO every 2 hours as needed
c. 12 mg PO every 6 hours as needed
d. 2 mg PO every 4 hours as needed

D

6

Which of the following is NOT an example of a drug-drug interaction with methadone?
a. Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) and protease inhibitors (PIs):
Reduce methadone levels
b. CYP3A4 inducers: Reduce methadone levels
c. Stavudine and didanosine: increase methadone bioavailability
d. CYP3A4 inhibitors: Increase methadone levels

C

7

Which of the following is NOT a brand name of morphine?
a. Kadian
b. Dolophine
c. MS Contin
d. Oramorph SR

B

8

Which of the following includes all available Dosage Forms of oxycodone?
a. Capsule, oral liquid, oral concentrate, immediate- and controlled-release tablets
b. Capsule, oral liquid, oral concentrate, immediate- release tablets
c. Tablet, oral liquid, immediate-release tablets, transdermal patch
d. Tablet, oral concentrate, immediate-release tablets, transdermal patch

A

9

Zohydro ER and Hysingla ER are brand names of which of the following medications?
a. Methadone
b. Oxycodone
c. Hydrocodone
d. Hydromorphone

C

10

Which of the following is a contraindication of tapentadol?
a. Use of MAO inhibitors within 14 days
b. Concomitant use of ibuprofen
c. Myocardial infarction within the last 30 days
d. Uncontrolled hypertension

A

11

Which of the following would be an appropriate renal dose adjustment for tramadol in a
patient whose creatinine clearance is less than 30 ml/min?
a. Increase to 200 mg every 12 hours
b. Increase dosing interval to every 12 hours (maximum: 200 mg/day)
c. Decrease to 10 mg every 24 hours
d. Decrease to 50 mg every 8 hours

B

12

Which of the following statements is true regarding narcotic–nonnarcotic combinations?
a. The narcotic component binds to opioid μ-receptors, altering the perception and
response to pain. The nonnarcotic analgesic inhibits brain prostaglandin synthesis.
b. The narcotic component is a partial agonist of μ- and κ-receptors, altering the perception
and response to pain. The nonnarcotic analgesic binds to opioid μ-receptors.
c. The narcotic component inhibits brain prostaglandin synthesis, altering the perception
and response to pain. The nonnarcotic analgesic inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine.
d. The narcotic component inhibits brain prostaglandin synthesis, altering the perception
and response to pain. The nonnarcotic analgesic binds to opioid μ-receptors.

A

13

Which of the following is a rare, serious adverse effect of codeine–acetaminophen?
a. Dizziness
b. Xerostomia
c. Pruritus
d. Hallucinations

D

14

Which of the following is an appropriate starting dose of hydrocodone–acetaminophen for a
6-year-old patient weighing 60 kg?
a. 5 mg hydrocodone component every 4 to 6 hours
b. 15 mg hydrocodone component every 4 to 6 hours
c. 5 mg hydrocodone component every 4 to 6 hours
d. 15 mg hydrocodone component every 1 to 2 hours

A

15

Hydrocodone–ibuprofen is contraindicated in which of the following situations?
a. Stroke within the last 30 days
b. Active smoking history
c. Asthma, urticaria, or allergic reactions to aspirin or other NSAIDs
d. Concomitant use of lidocaine patches

C

16

Endocet and Percocet are brand names of which of the following medications?
a. Hydromorphone
b. Methadone
c. Oxycodone–acetaminophen
d. Oxycodone–ibuprofen

C

17

Which of the following is the maximum daily dosage for acute acetaminophen use in most
healthy adults under the supervision of a healthcare provider?
a. 2000 mg
b. 3000 mg
c. 4000 mg
d. 5000 mg

C

18

It is important to account for dosage of acetaminophen from all sources (including common
OTC combination products) because excessive dosing could lead to which adverse effect?
a. Renal toxicity
b. Hepatotoxicity
c. GI bleeding
d. Respiratory depression

B

19

Butalbital is commonly used for which of the following?
a. Fever
b. Gout
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Tension headache

D

20

Which of the following is an advantage of celecoxib over other NSAIDs?
a. Less GI events
b. Safer in pregnancy
c. Fewer CV events
d. Safer in renal impairment

A

21

Black box warnings for GI events, CV events, and use in CABG surgery apply to all
NSAIDs except which of the following?
a. Aspirin
b. Ibuprofen
c. Ketorolac
d. Meloxicam

A

22

Which of the following risk is the reason NSAIDs should be avoided at ≥ 30 weeks of
pregnancy?
a. Miscarriage
b. Teratogenicity
c. Premature labor
d. Premature closure of the ductus arteriosus

D

23

Concomitant use of NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors can increase the risk of which of the
following?
a. Renal toxicity
b. Hepatotoxicity
c. Bleeding
d. Hypotension

A

24

Which of the following is appropriate ibuprofen dosing for analgesia in children < 12 years?
a. 4–10 mg/kg/dose every 6 to 8 hours
b. 20–30 mg/kg/dose BID
c. 30–50 mg/kg/day every 6 to 8 hours
d. 200 mg PO every 6 to 8 hours

A

25

Which of the following is the drug of choice for patent ductus arteriosus?
a. Celecoxib
b. Ibuprofen
c. Indomethacin
d. Ketorolac

B

26

Which of the following is true regarding systemic ketorolac?

a. Treatment should not exceed 3 days; contraindicated in patients with severe renal
impairment
b. Treatment should not exceed 5 days; maximum single IV dose for healthy adults is 60
mg
c. Oral therapy is only indicated for use as continuation of IM or IV; contraindicated in
patients with severe renal impairment
d. Oral therapy is only indicated for use as continuation of IM or IV; maximum single IV
dose for healthy adults is 15 mg

C

27

Use of NSAIDs with lithium can result in which of the following?
a. Increased concentration of lithium
b. Decreased concentration of lithium
c. Increased concentration of NSAIDs
d. Decreased concentration of NSAIDs

A

28

Which of the following is correct dosing of aspirin for acute MI?
a. 81 mg PO STAT
b. 100 mg PO STAT
c. 325 mg PO STAT
d. 650 mg PO STAT

C

29

Diclofenac comes in which of the following nonoral Dosage Forms?
a. Transdermal patch
b. Transdermal patch, topical gel
c. Transdermal patch, topical gel, ophthalmic solution
d. Transdermal patch, topical gel, ophthalmic solution, intravenous injections

D

30

Which of the following is correct initial dosing of indomethacin for acute gouty arthritis?
a. 25 mg PO two times a day
b. 25 mg PO three times a day
c. 50 mg PO two times a day
d. 50 mg PO three times a day

D

31

Using aspirin in children with viral infections is associated with which of the following severe
adverse effects?
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Renal failure
c. Reye’s syndrome
d. Necrotizing enterocolitis

C

32

CHAPTER 2

ANTIDIABETIC AGENTS

33

Which of the following medications has a warning about a rare but serious metabolic
complication called lactic acidosis?
a. Sitagliptin
b. Metformin
c. Exenatide
d. Pioglitazone

B

34

What is the maximum daily dose of immediate-release metformin?
a. 1000 mg
b. 1500 mg
c. 2000 mg
d. 2550 mg

D

35

A patient’s GFR is 20 ml/min; what is the starting dose of metformin?
a. 500 mg BID
b. 1000 mg BID
c. 2000 mg once daily
d. Use is contraindicated

D

36

What is the mechanism of action of dapagliflozin?
a. Inhibits di-peptidyl peptidase-4
b. Inhibits sodium-glucose Cotransporter-2
c. Acts as a direct GLP-1 agonist
d. Stimulates insulin release from the pancreas

B

37

Which of the following is a brand name of exenatide?
a. Farxiga
b. Jardiance
c. Bydureon
d. Victoza

C

38

Which class of drugs may cause decreased bone mineral density and bone fractures?
a. Biguanide
b. GLP-1 agonist
c. SGLT-2 inhibitor
d. Sulfonylurea

C

39

Which of the following drugs can be used in a patient with a GFR of < 30 ml/min?
a. Liraglutide
b. Exenatide
c. Metformin
d. Canagliflozin

A

40

Acute pancreatitis has been reported with which of the following drugs?
a. Sitagliptin
b. Metformin
c. Basaglar insulin
d. Glipizide XL

A

41

Which of the following is a proper counseling point for a patient taking metformin?
a. Temporarily withhold in patients undergoing radiologic procedures involving iodinated
contrast
b. Use proper SUB-Q injection technique
c. Monitor for urinary tract infections
d. Monitor for signs and symptoms of acute pancreatitis

A

42

Before initiating, which of the following should you perform spirometry (FEV1)?
a. Liraglutide
b. Basaglar insulin
c. Exenatide
d. Afrezza

D

43

What is the typical starting dose of empagliflozin?
a. 5 mg
b. 10 mg
c. 25 mg
d. 100 mg

B

44

Which of the following is NOT a brand name for insulin glargine?
a. Toujeo
b. Lantus
c. Apidra
d. Basaglar

C

45

Which of the following is the average HbA1c reduction with sulfonylureas?
a. 0.7–1%
b. 1–1.5%
c. 1–2 %
d. 1.5–2%

C

46

Which of the following medications can be dosed once weekly?
a. Lantus
b. Toujeo
c. Afrezza
d. Victoza

D

47

What is the correct dose of sitagliptin in a patient with a GFR of 40 ml/min?
a. 100 mg
b. 50 mg
c. 25 mg
d. Use is contraindicated

B

48

Inhibition of di-peptidyl peptidase-4 is the mechanism of action of which drug?
a. Glimepiride
b. Metformin
c. Insulin
d. Sitagliptin

D

49

Insulin inhalation powder is most closely related to which insulin?
a. Aspart
b. Regular
c. NPH
d. Detemir

A

50

All of the following are counseling points regarding insulin EXCEPT
a. Rotate injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy
b. Wear diabetic identification
c. Mild episodes of hypoglycemia should be treated with glucagon
d. Insulin stored at room temperature will be less painful

C

51

All of the following are rapid-acting insulins EXCEPT
a. Lispro
b. Glulisine
c. Aspart
d. Detemir

D

52

Which of the following has been used to treat antipsychotic-induced weight gain?
a. Glyburide
b. Pioglitazone
c. Metformin
d. NPH insulin

C

53

Which class of drugs has rare but serious side effects of arthralgia, bullous pemphigoid,
and Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
a. Biguanide
b. Sulfonylurea
c. DPP-4 inhibitor
d. SGLT-2 inhibitor

C

54

Which drug needs to be avoided in a patient with a personal or family history of medullary
thyroid carcinoma?
a. Canagliflozin
b. Glipizide
c. Exenatide
d. Pioglitazone

C

55

When a patient is stable on a current dose of insulin, how often should you check the
HbA1c?

a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Every 6 months
d. Every 2 years

C

56

Hypoglycemia, cough, and throat irritation are side effects of which of the following?
a. Afrezza
b. Apidra
c. Humalog
d. NovoLog

A

57

Which insulin is commercially available in 200 units/ml?
a. Aspart
b. Lispro
c. Glargine
d. Detemir

B

58

Which class of drugs has a rare but serious side effect of causing ketoacidosis?
a. SGLT-2 inhibitor
b. GLP-1 agonist
c. Biguanide
d. Insulin

A

59

What is the maximum recommended dose of Invokana in a patient with a GFR of 80
ml/min?
a. 50 mg
b. 100 mg
c. 250 mg
d. 300 mg

D

60

Humalog Mix 75/25 contains which of the following?
a. 75% rapid-acting lispro and 25% intermediate-acting lispro suspension
b. 25% rapid-acting lispro and 75% intermediate-acting lispro suspension
c. 75% regular insulin and 25% NPH insulin
d. 25% regular insulin and 75% NPH insulin

B

61

Toujeo is available in which of the following concentrations?
a. 100 units/ml
b. 300 units/ml
c. 500 units/ml
d. Both a and b are correct

D

62

Which of the following statements regarding Bydureon is FALSE?
a. It is a GLP-1 agonist
b. It is administered as a SUB-Q injection
c. It is dosed twice daily
d. It has a rare but serious side effect of acute pancreatitis

C

63

CHAPTER 3

ANTI-INFECTIVES AGENTS

64

Which of the following drugs interacts with alcohol to produce a disulfiram-like reaction?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Flagyl
c. Doxycycline
d. Clindamycin

B

65

Which of the following drugs only has one approved indication: treatment of uncomplicated

urinary tract infection?

a. Biaxin

b. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

c. Nitrofurantoin

d. Rifampin

C

66

Which of the following drugs are known to cause rhabdomyolysis?
a. Cefpodoxime
b. Zithromax
c. Avelox
d. Daptomycin

D

67

Which of the following drugs can be given as a single IV infusion for the treatment of skin
and skin-structure infection?
a. Vancomycin
b. Oritavancin
c. Cubicin
d. Clindamycin

B

68

Which of the following drugs may prolong the QTc interval, especially when administered
with other drugs that prolong the QTc?
a. Clarithromycin
b. Clindamycin
c. Ampicillin
d. Minocycline

A

69

Which of the following drugs may be administered either orally or IV for the treatment of
invasive aspergillosis?
a. Diflucan
b. Isoniazid
c. Amphotericin B
d. Vfend

D

70

Which of the following treatment indications is oseltamivir used for?
a. Genital herpes
b. Urinary tract infection
c. Influenza
d. Hepatitis C virus

C

71

Which of the following drugs have a very long half-life, allowing short-course therapy for
many indications?
a. Azithromycin
b. Cefuroxime
c. Vancomycin
d. Zovirax

A

72

Which of the following drugs has a warning for tendon rupture and CNS toxicities?
a. Linezolid
b. Piperacillin-tazobactam
c. Tobramycin
d. Levofloxacin

D

73

Which of the following drugs is a strong CYP3A4 inducer?
a. Linezolid
b. Rifampin
c. Azithromycin
d. Levofloxacin

B

74

Which of the following drugs can cause oto-toxicity and nephrotoxicity?
a. Tetracycline
b. Amikacin
c. Metronidazole
d. Daptomycin

B

75

Which of the following drugs should be avoided with ledipasvir/sofosbuvir?
a. Digoxin
b. Metoprolol
c. Amiodarone
d. Simvastatin

C

76

Which of the following drugs should be avoided in combination with serotonin modulators?
a. Linezolid
b. Daptomycin
c. Vancomycin
d. Clindamycin

A

77

Which of the follow is a common side effect of atazanavir?
a. Insomnia
b. Dizziness
c. Scleral icterus
d. Renal toxicity

C

78

Which of the following integrase strand transfer inhibitors have a drug-drug interaction
with metformin?
a. Raltegravir
b. Dolutegravir
c. Darunavir
d. Elvitegravir

B

79

Which of the follow nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors requires hepatic
dose adjustments?
a. Lamivudine
b. Emtricitabine
c. Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate
d. Abacavir

D

80

Before initiating darunavir, what must be verified before starting?
a. Sulfa allergy status
b. HLA B*5701 status
c. Renal function
d. Patient weight

A

81

What is a common side effect of all protease inhibitors?
a. Depression
b. Gastrointestinal upset
c. Kidney dysfunction
d. Insomnia

B

82

Which antiretroviral agent cannot be used with proton pump inhibitors?
a. Efavirenz
b. Dolutegravir
c. Rilpivirine
d. Abacavir

C

83

Which antiretroviral agent has the fewest drug-drug interactions?
a. Atazanavir
b. Efavirenz
c. Darunavir
d. Raltegravir

D

84

Which antiretroviral agent should be taken on an empty stomach at bedtime?
a. Rilpivirine
b. Efavirenz
c. Elvitegravir
d. Lamivudine

B

85

Which one of the following medications cause a class drug interaction with all integrase
strand transfer inhibitors?
a. Polyvalent cations
b. Proton pump inhibitors
c. H2 receptor antagonists
d. Warfarin

A

86

Which of the following falsely elevates coagulation tests and its concomitant use with
heparin is contraindicated?
a. Vancomycin
b. Dalbavancin
c. Orbactiv
d. Clindamycin

C

87

Which of the following inhibits two sequential steps in the folate-synthesis pathway,
ultimately inhibiting DNA synthesis?
a. Piperacillin–tazobactam
b. Bactrim
c. Unasyn
d. Valtrex

B

88

Which of the following requires premedication with diphenhydramine and acetaminophen
as well as IV fluids before administration?
a. Voriconazole
b. Diflucan
c. Vancomycin
d. AmBisome

D

89

Which of the following is recommended for the treatment of Gonorrhea?
a. Cefdinir
b. Levofloxacin
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Amoxicillin

C

90

Which of the following antibiotics treats infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
a. Ceftriaxone
b. Moxifloxacin
c. Linezolid
d. Piperacillin–tazobactam

D

91

Which of the following is a topical antibiotic used in the treatment of minor skin infections?
a. Gentamicin
b. Neomycin/polymyxin B
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Amoxil

B

92

Which of the following is a first-generation cephalosporin?
a. Ceftaroline
b. Cefzil
c. Omnicef
d. Keflex

D

93

Which of the following should not be used in a urinary tract infection?
a. Bactrim
b. Avelox
c. Levofloxacin
d. Cipro

B

94

CHAPTER 4

ANTI-NEOPLASTICS

95

Etoposide belongs to which of the following drug classes?
a. Podophyllotoxins
b. Vinca alkaloids
c. Anthracyclines
d. Proteasome Inhibitors

A

96

Ibuprofen must be avoided a couple of days before and after administration of which of the
following antineoplastic drugs?
a. Carboplatin
b. Cyclophosphamide
c. Vincristine
d. Pemetrexed

D

97

Which of the following antineoplastic agents must be administered with prednisone to
prevent mineralocorticoid excess?
a. Abiraterone acetate
b. Bicalutamide
c. Etoposide
d. Ibrutinib

A

98

Which of the following adverse effects of capecitabine is of most concern?
a. Conjunctivitis
b. Neurotoxicity
c. Mucositis
d. Hypertension

C

99

____________ is a rare but serious side effect associated with cisplatin.
a. Cardiotoxicity
b. Immune-mediated pneumonitis
c. Ototoxicity
d. Hypothyroidism

C

100

Nivolumab can be used for the management of which of the following malignancies?
a. Ovarian cancer
b. Glioblastoma multiforme
c. Thyroid cancer
d. Advanced renal cell carcinoma

D

101

Bortezomib belongs to which drug class?
a. Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors
b. Immunomodulators
c. Proteasome Inhibitors
d. Topoisomerase Inhibitors

C

102

Which of the following antineoplastic agents requires blood pressure monitoring at each
visit?
a. Cetuximab
b. Nivolumab
c. Obinutuzumab
d. Bevacizumab

D

103

Which of the following agents target Bruton Tyrosine Kinase (BTK)?
a. Ibrutinib
b. Erlotinib
c. Imatinib
d. Osimertinib

A

104

Which of the following antineoplastic agents can increase the serum concentration of
warfarin, potentially leading to an increased risk of bleeding?
a. Cytarabine
b. Casodex
c. Bortezomib
d. Revlimid

B

105

Mesna may be used as a uroprotective agent for which of the following drugs?
a. Cisplatin
b. Cyclophosphamide
c. Fluorouracil
d. Methotrexate

B

106

Which of the following antineoplastic agents can be administered intrathecally?
a. Bortezomib
b. Vincristine
c. Cytarabine
d. Capecitabine

C

107

Which agent causes stabilization of the microtubules, ultimately inhibiting cellular
replication?
a. Erbitux
b. Paclitaxel
c. Carboplatin
d. Methotrexate

B

108

Which of the following agents requires renal dosage adjustments?
a. Tamoxifen
b. Vincristine
c. Cisplatin
d. Rituxan

C

109

An echocardiogram should be obtained prior to initiation of which of the following
antineoplastic agents?
a. Trastuzumab
b. Cisplatin
c. Nivolumab
d. Docetaxel

A

110

Which of the following agents is indicated for mantle cell lymphoma?
a. Cetuximab
b. Lenalidomide
c. Fluorouracil
d. Oxaliplatin

B

111

Which of the following requires women of childbearing age to be on adequate birth
control?
a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Rituximab
c. Tamoxifen
d. Adriamycin

C

112

Which of the following monoclonal antibodies targets the CD20 surface antigen on B-cells?
a. Cetuximab
b. Rituximab
c. Nivolumab
d. Bevacizumab

B

113

Patients with a known deficiency of dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) should not
receive which of the following antineoplastic agents?
a. Capecitabine
b. Irinotecan
c. Cytarabine
d. Bortezomib

A

114

Zytiga is the brand name for which of the following agents?
a. Ibrutinib
b. Bicalutamide
c. Crizotinib
d. Abiraterone acetate

D

115

One of the most common side effects associated with letrozole is _______________.
a. Mucositis
b. Contact dermatitis
c. Peripheral neuropathy
d. Hot flashes

D

116

What agent has both nononcologic and oncologic indications?
a. Cisplatin
b. Trexall
c. Ibrutinib
d. Docetaxel

B

117

The management of immune-mediated toxicities associated with nivolumab may involve which of the following?

a. Folic acid
b. Corticosteroids
c. Leucovorin
d. Thiamine

B

118

Hepatotoxicity is associated with which of the following agents?
a. Opdivo
b. Herceptin
c. Letrozole
d. Carboplatin

A

119

Which of the following agents may be used to manage extravasations involving
Adriamycin?
a. Leucovorin
b. Dexrazoxane
c. Hyaluronidase
d. Corticosteroids

B

120

What class of antineoplastic agents typically interact with strong CYP3A4 inhibitors and
inducers?
a. Aromatase inhibitors
b. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors
c. Monoclonal antibodies
d. Platinum compounds

B

121

Patients started on vincristine should be counseled to report which of the following side
effects?
a. Cough
b. Numbness
c. Headaches
d. Diarrhea

B

122

What counseling points should be emphasized in a patient taking erlotinib?
a. Erlotinib must be taken on an empty stomach
b. Erlotinib can be taken with grapefruit juice
c. Erlotinib must be taken with oral prednisone 10 mg daily
d. Erlotinib tablets must be stored in the refrigerator

A

123

Which of the following statements is true regarding cyclophosphamide?
a. Cyclophosphamide can be administered intrathecally
b. Cyclophosphamide requires renal dosage adjustments in patients with mild renal
impairment
c. Oral cyclophosphamide should be taken early in the day
d. Cyclophosphamide is commonly associated with ototoxicity

C

124

Which of the following agents is available in both oral and intravenous formulations?
a. Topotecan
b. Imatinib
c. Herceptin
d. Tamoxifen

A

125

CHAPTER 5

CARDIOVASCULAR AGENTS

126

Which of the following is a common adverse reaction for alpha-1 adrenergic blockers?
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Intraoperative floppy iris syndrome
c. Orthostatic hypotension
d. Elevated serum creatinine

C

127

Which of the following statements regarding clonidine is incorrect?
a. It is an alpha-2 receptor blocker
b. Abrupt discontinuation of clonidine may result in rebound hypertension
c. Overlapping of oral and transdermal clonidine may be necessary when initiating
transdermal therapy
d. Clonidine may cause CNS depression

A

128

Which of the following agents is a pure alpha-receptor agonist?
a. Dobutamine
b. Dopamine
c. Milrinone
d. Phenylephrine

D

129

Which of the following statements regarding dobutamine are correct?
a. It is not recommended for severe decompensated heart failure
b. It is a beta-1 and alpha-1 receptor agonist
c. It is available as an oral formulation
d. It should not be used with concomitant beta-blockers due to reduced effectiveness

D

130

Epinephrine stimulates which of the following receptors?
a. Alpha-1
b. Beta-1
c. Beta-2
d. All of the above

D

131

Which of the following are monitoring parameters for angiotensin receptor blockers
(ARBs)?
a. Angioedema
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Serum creatinine (renal function)
d. All of the above

D

132

Which of the following is the preferred ARB for patients with heart failure?
a. Bosentan
b. Irbesartan
c. Telmisartan
d. Valsartan

D

133

Which of the following ACE inhibitors can be used for acute hypertension?
a. Captopril
b. Lisinopril
c. Fosinopril
d. Quinapril

A

134

Which of the following ACE inhibitors is available in an IV formulation?
a. Enalaprilat
b. Lisinopril
c. Quinapril
d. Fosinopril

A

135

Which of the following is a potentially dangerous adverse reaction to ranolazine?
a. Torsades de pointes
b. Acute renal failure
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Angioedema

A

136

Which of the following statements regarding ranolazine are correct?

a. It is used for the treatment of chronic angina

b. It increases blood pressure and heart rate

c. It is contraindicated with diltiazem

d. All of the above

A

137

Which of the following statements regarding amiodarone is false?
a. It is a class II antiarrhythmic and it exhibits all four of the Vaughan–Williams
antiarrhythmic medication classes
b. Digoxin levels increase when given concomitantly with amiodarone
c. Amiodarone usually requires a loading dose of 10 grams
d. Patients should be monitored for hypothyroidism

A

138

Which of the following statements regarding digoxin is false?
a. Digoxin levels should be drawn at least 6 hours following administration once the patient
is at steady-state
b. Digoxin drug levels for heart failure should be between 0.5–0.8 ng/dL
c. Dosing should be adjusted for congestive heart failure status, renal function, and weight
d. No dose adjustment is required when adding amiodarone to digoxin

D

139

Which of the following is the appropriate dose of sotalol in patients with a CrCl of 40–60
ml/min?
a. 40 mg twice daily
b. 80 mg daily
c. 80 mg twice daily
d. 160 mg twice daily

B

140

Sotalol is contraindicated in patients with a baseline QTc interval greater than:
a. 300 msec
b. 350 msec
c. 400 msec
d. 450 msec

D

141

Which of the following beta blockers blocks only beta-1 and beta-2 receptors?
a. Atenolol
b. Carvedilol
c. Labetalol
d. Propranolol

D

142

Which of the following beta blockers is recommended for patients with heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction to reduce morbidity and mortality?
a. Atenolol
b. Bisoprolol
c. Labetalol
d. Metoprolol tartrate

B

143

Which of the following beta blockers should be avoided in patients with asthma?
a. Propranolol
b. Bisoprolol
c. Metoprolol
d. Atenolol

A

144

Which of the following antihypertensives are not used in hypertensive crises?
a. Labetalol
b. Hydralazine
c. Nitroprusside
d. Amlodipine

D

145

Which of the following dose not interact with amlodipine?
a. Simvastatin
b. Verapamil
c. Acetaminophen
d. Rifampin

C

146

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding dihydropyridine calcium channel
blockers?
a. Immediate-release formulation of nifedipine is recommended
b. Used for the treatment of hypertension
c. Used for the treatment of angina
d. Peripheral edema is a dose-dependent side effect

A

147

Verapamil belongs to which class of calcium channel blockers?
a. Benzothiazepines
b. Dihydropyridines
c. Phenylalkylamines
d. Verapamil is not a calcium channel blocker

C

148

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication with nondihydropyridine calcium channel
blockers?
a. Cardiogenic shock
b. Third-degree AV block in a patient with a ventricular pacemaker
c. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
d. Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction/left ventricular dysfunction

B

149

Which of the following is a loop diuretic?
a. Chlorthalidone
b. Spironolactone
c. Bumetanide
d. Metolazone

C

150

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication with nitrates?
a. Systolic BP < 90 mmHg
b. Heart rate < 50 bpm
c. Concurrent use with phosphodiesterase inhibitors
d. Concurrent use with hydralazine

D

151

What is a serious adverse effect of milrinone?
a. Ventricular arrhythmias
b. Hypertension
c. Hyponatremia
d. Constipation

A

152

What is a contraindication for spironolactone?
a. Serum creatinine > 1.5 mg/dL in men
b. Serum creatinine > 1.4 mg/dL in women
c. Potassium > 4.5 mEq/L
d. Anuria

D

153

At what CrCl is thiazide diuretic monotherapy considered to be ineffective?
a. < 60 ml/min
b. < 50 ml/min
c. < 45 ml/min
d. < 30 ml/min

D

154

Which of the following is not a monitoring parameter for nitroprusside?
a. Blood pressure
b. Respiratory rate
c. Heart rate
d. Acid-base status

B

155

Which is the most common medication that is used in combination antihypertensive
products?
a. Lisinopril
b. Amlodipine
c. Triamterene
d. Hydrochlorothiazide

D

156

CHAPTER 6

CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM

157

Which of the following seizure medications is commonly used to treat fibromyalgia?
a. Phenytoin
b. Pregabalin
c. Phenobarbital
d. Carbamazepine

B

158

Which of the following antiepileptic drugs can be used in status epilepticus?
a. Lamotrigine
b. Levetiracetam
c. Oxcarbazepine
d. Topiramate

B

159

The target serum concentration for carbamazepine is:
a. 4–12 μg/ml
b. 10–20 μg/ml
c. 10–40 μg/ml
d. 50–100 μg/ml

A

160

Which of the following AEDs is most associated with drug interactions?
a. Gabapentin
b. Valproic acid
c. Lamotrigine
d. Levetiracetam

B

161

Which of the following should be avoided in patients with a sulfonamide allergy?
a. Lamotrigine
b. Oxcarbazepine
c. Topiramate
d. Zonisamide

D

162

Which of the following muscle relaxants is most commonly used to reduce spasticity in
patients with multiple sclerosis?
a. Cyclobenzaprine
b. Baclofen
c. Pyridostigmine
d. Skelaxin

B

163

Which of the following drugs has an active metabolite named MHD?
a. Valproic Acid
b. Phenobarbital
c. Oxcarbazepine
d. Gabapentin

C

164

Which of the following drugs does the FDA require a negative pregnancy test prior to
initiation of therapy?
a. Qsymia
b. Valproic Acid
c. Topiramate
d. Zonisamide

A

165

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for use of rizatriptan?
a. History of MI
b. History of stroke
c. Use of MAOI within the past 14 days
d. Uncontrolled diabetes

D

166

Which of the following agents is most likely to cause hyponatremia?
a. Carbamazepine
b. Topiramate
c. Valproic acid
d. Levetiracetam

A

167

Which of the following antidepressants can be used off-label for insomnia?
a. Venlafaxine
b. Citalopram
c. Vortioxetine
d. Trazodone

D

168

The maximum daily dose of citalopram for patients greater than 60 years old is:
a. 40 mg
b. 60 mg
c. 10 mg
d. 20 mg

D

169

Which of the listed agents is the atypical antipsychotic with the highest incidence of causing
QTc-prolongation?
a. Risperidone
b. Haloperidol
c. Ziprasidone
d. Olanzapine

C

170

The risk for extrapyramidal effects with risperidone use is highest at doses above:
a. 2 mg
b. 3 mg
c. 4 mg
d. 6 mg

D

171

Which of the following atypical antipsychotics has the highest incidence of weight gain?
a. Abilify
b. Zyprexa
c. Seroquel
d. Geodon

B

172

Which of the following is a common side effect of cholinesterase inhibitors?
a. Bradycardia
b. Tachycardia
c. Constipation
d. Hypotension

A

173

Which of the following side effects are more common with typical antipsychotics compared
with atypical antipsychotics?
a. Extrapyramidal effects
b. Weight gain
c. Glucose intolerance
d. Sexual dysfunction

A

174

Which of the following antipsychotics is available coformulated with an antidepressant?
a. Olanzapine
b. Risperidone
c. Quetiapine
d. Ziprasidone

A

175

The maximum dose of Ambien for women is:
a. 2.5 mg
b. 5 mg
c. 10 mg
d. 12.5 mg

B

176

Which of the following antidepressants is good for patients with associated loss of appetite
or weight loss?
a. Sertraline
b. Fluoxetine
c. Mirtazapine
d. Duloxetine

C

177

Which of the following agents is a non-benzodiazepine antianxiety agent?
a. Alprazolam
b. Buspirone
c. Clonazepam
d. Lorazepam

B

178

Which of the following agents has a black box warning for serious cardiovascular events,
including sudden death in patients with preexisting structural cardiac abnormalities or other
serious heart problems?
a. Buspirone
b. Diazepam
c. Dextroamphetamine and amphetamine
d. Modafinil

C

179

Which of the following agents is contraindicated with concomitant use of MAOIs or within 14
days of MAOI use?
a. Methylphenidate
b. Ambien
c. Citalopram
d. Lorazepam

A

180

Which of the following agents used for narcolepsy has a lower abuse potential compared
with other CNS stimulants, therefore, is a Class IV controlled substance instead of a Class
II controlled substance?
a. Modafinil
b. Methylphenidate
c. Amphetamine/dextroamphetamine
d. Lisdexamfetamine

A

181

A drug interaction between lorazepam and CNS depressants/alcohol can potentially result
in:
a. Increase in CNS depression
b. Decrease in CNS depression
c. Increase in CNS stimulation
d. Decrease in CNS stimulation

A

182

Which of the following benzodiazepines has a risk of propylene glycol toxicity occurring
when using the parenteral formulation for a prolonged period of time?
a. Temazepam
b. Lorazepam
c. Alprazolam
d. Clonazepam

B

183

Which of the following agents has a black box warning for concomitant use with opioids as
it may result in profound sedation, respiratory depression, coma, and death?
a. Duloxetine
b. Eletriptan
c. Methylphenidate
d. Temazepam

D

184

What is an indication for guanfacine?
a. Seizures
b. ADHD
c. Neuropathic pain
d. Major depressive disorder

B

185

Which selective alpha-2A adrenoreceptor agonist, has an adverse effect of potentially
causing hypotension, especially when used in combination with an antihypertensive?
a. Metaxalone
b. Rivastigmine
c. Guanfacine
d. Levetiracetam

C

186

Which of the following agents has a black box warning concerning a maximum IV infusion
rate of 50 mg/min due to a risk of hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias?
a. Levetiracetam
b. Fosphenytoin
c. Phenytoin
d. Lorazepam

C

187

CHAPTER 7

ENDOCRINE AGENTS

188

Which of the following statements about NuvaRing is correct?
a. It is a progesterone only product
b. It needs to be left in place for 3 weeks
c. It needs to be left in place for 1 week
d. The ring should be disposed of in the toilet

B

189

All of the following are common side effects of Actonel except?
a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Abdominal pain
d. Nausea

B

190

Which of the following is an appropriate dose of alendronate for the treatment of
osteoporosis?
a. 5 mg daily
b. 70 mg weekly
c. 35 mg weekly
d. Both A and C

B

191

Which of the following medications interact with Ortho-Tri-Cyclen?
a. Rifampin
b. Phenytoin
c. Carbamazepine
d. All of the above

D

192

Which of the following is an example of a monophasic combined oral contraceptive?
a. Yaz
b. Triphasil
c. Mircette
d. Ortho-Novum 7/7/7

A

193

All of the following statements about Forteo are true except:
a. Used for the treatment of osteoporosis
b. Given subcutaneously
c. It is a synthetic thyroid hormone
d. Transient hypercalcemia is common

C

194

Which of the following medications will decrease the absorption of Synthroid?
a. Metoprolol
b. Iron
c. Penicillin
d. Warfarin

B

195

Which of the following statements about levothyroxine is correct?
a. It is available only as a tablet
b. Weight gain is a common adverse effect
c. It is used for the treatment of myxedema coma
d. It should be taken with antacids to increase absorption

C

196

When should we evaluate thyroid levels (TSH, T4, T3) after Synthroid is started?

a. 5 to 7 days

b. 1 to 2 weeks

c. 6 to 8 weeks

d. Every 6 months

C

197

How often is Reclast given for the treatment of osteoporosis?
a. Every month
b. Every 6 months
c. Every year
d. Reclast is not indicated for the treatment of osteoporosis

C

198

All of the following statements about Calcitonin are correct except?

a. It is considered first line for the treatment of osteoporosis

b. It is available as an intranasal spray and injection

c. It is used in the treatment of Paget’s disease

d. It directly inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption

A

199

All of the following medications are indicated for the treatment of vasomotor symptoms in
postmenopausal women except?
a. Premarin
b. Prempro
c. Depo-Provera
d. Climara

C

200

All of the following are indications for the use of Seasonale except?
a. Prevention of pregnancy
b. Treatment of vasomotor symptoms
c. Treatment of dysmenorrhea
d. Treatment of menorrhagia

B

201

All of the following statements about Evista are true except:
a. Normal dose is 60 mg daily
b. Used for the prevention of osteoporosis
c. Patient should take calcium and vitamin D supplements if daily intake is inadequate while
on the medication
d. A common adverse effect is fluid retention

D

202

What type of contraceptive is Micronor?
a. Monophasic combined oral contraceptive
b. Biphasic combined oral contraceptive
c. Progestin-only contraceptive
d. Estrogen-only contraceptive

C

203

Which of the following glucocorticoids is (are) available as an injection?
a. Prednisone
b. Methylprednisolone
c. Dexamethasone
d. B and C are correct

D

204

Which of the following is (are) adverse effects of Depo-Provera?
a. Decrease in bone mineral density
b. Breakthrough bleeding
c. Nausea
d. All of the above

D

205

All of the following are estradiol formulation except?
a. Estrace
b. Estraderm
c. Megace
d. Vivelle-Dot

C

206

What is the interaction between warfarin and levothyroxine?
a. Levothyroxine increases warfarin anticoagulation effects
b. Warfarin decreases levothyroxine concentrations
c. Warfarin increases levothyroxine concentrations
d. There is no interaction between warfarin and levothyroxine

A

207

All of the following statements about Climara are correct except?
a. Should be applied to the breast area once a week
b. Using a sauna may decrease Climara’s efficacy
c. Indicated for the treatment of vasomotor symptoms
d. Rotate the sites of application

A

208

All of the following are indications for the use of glucocorticoids except?
a. Acute asthma
b. Status epilepticus
c. Allergic rhinitis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis

B

209

Premarin is indicated for all of the following conditions except?
a. Vulvar and vaginal atrophy
b. Female hypoestrogenism
c. Contraception
d. Prevention of osteoporosis

C

210

All of the following are true about glucocorticoids except?
a. Can increase glucose concentrations
b. Dexamethasone is more potent than methylprednisolone
c. GI irritation is a common adverse effect
d. Prednisone is more potent that methylprednisolone

D

211

All of the following are common adverse effects of Solu-Medrol except?
a. Drowsiness
b. Increased appetite
c. Nervousness/restlessness
d. Acne

A

212

All of the following are important counseling points about the use of combined oral
contraceptives except?
a. Take at exactly the same time every day for maximum effectiveness
b. Missing pills may cause spotting or light bleeding
c. If one dose is missed a new package needs to be started
d. Spotting or breakthrough bleeding may occur during the first few months of therapy

C

213

All of the following are important counseling points for Fosamax except?
a. Take with food first thing in the morning
b. Notify your physician if new symptoms of heartburn or difficulty swallowing appear
c. Do not lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication
d. Take supplemental calcium and vitamin D if dietary intake is inadequate

A

214

Which of the following is a contraindication to raloxifene?
a. Hypersensitivity to sulfa
b. History of thromboembolism
c. History of diabetes mellitus
d. History of hypertension

B

215

Which of the following medications has been associated with an increased risk of
osteosarcoma?
a. Raloxifene
b. Levothyroxine
c. Teriparatide
d. Dexamethasone

C

216

All of the following are Black Box Warnings for the use of estrogen and conjugated
estrogens except?
a. Increased risk of invasive breast cancer was observed in postmenopausal women using
conjugated estrogens (CE) in combination with medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA)
b. Estrogens with or without progestin should not be used to prevent dementia
c. The use of unopposed estrogen in women with a uterus is associated with an increased
risk of skin cancer
d. Estrogens with or without progestin should not be used to prevent cardiovascular
disease

C

217

How many days of therapy are in a Medrol-Dosepak?
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12

B