A&P II Final Part 1
Cortisol
Which of the following hormones has intracellular receptors?
activation of genes, which increases protein synthesis in the cell
What is the mechanism of action of lipid-soluble hormones?
acts as a transcription factor and binds to DNA, activating a gene
After a lipid-soluble hormone is bound to its intracellular receptor, what does the hormone complex do?
thyroid hormone
Which hormone’s receptor is always bound to DNA, even when the receptor is empty?
chaperone proteins (chaperonins)
What keeps intracellular receptors from binding to DNA before a hormone binds to the receptor?
water-soluble hormones, such as insulin and epinephrine
What type of hormones bind to receptors located on the cell membrane?
Phosphodiesterase
Which intracellular substance degrades cAMP, thus inactivating the response to a hormone?
tyrosine kinase receptors
Growth factor hormones, such as insulin, bind to which type of receptor?
activation of G protein, binding of GTP, activation of adenylate cyclase, conversion of ATP to cAMP
Which is the correct order of events for hormones activating Gs proteins?
IP3
Which second messenger causes the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum?
beta receptors
Which of the following adrenergic receptors increase cAMP levels?
humoral stimuli
The stimuli causing endocrine glands to secrete their hormones in direct response to changing blood levels of certain critical ions and nutrients are called __________.
Cushing's syndrome
Which of the following adrenal gland homeostatic imbalances is characterized by persistent elevated blood glucose levels, dramatic losses in muscle and bone protein, and water and salt retention, leading to hypertension and edema?
antidiuretic hormone
Which of the following hormones helps the body avoid dehydration and water overload?
thyroid hormone
Which hormone is the body's major metabolic hormone?
parathyroid hormone
Which of the following hormones regulates blood calcium ion levels?
zona glomerulosa: mineralocorticoids
Which of the following pairs correctly matches the adrenal gland zone or area with the class of hormones it produces?
The pancreas releases insulin.
When blood glucose levels are high
Taking in glucose and converting it to glycogen.
A liver cell responds to insulin by
Liver cells.
What cells in the body respond to glucagon by breaking down glycogen and releasing glucose?
Liver cells, as well as most other cells of the body.
Body cells that respond to insulin include
The pancreas releases glucagon, which eventually causes blood glucose levels to increase.
When blood glucose levels are low
homeostasis
The body's tendency to maintain relatively constant internal conditions is called
Insulin
Which pancreatic hormone functions to lower blood glucose levels?
lack of enzymes the adrenal gland needs to make cortisol and aldosterone
Two adrenal glands make hormones that are essential for life. However, in adrenogenital syndrome, females develop a beard and a masculine pattern of body hair distribution; this occurs due to ______.
increased secretion of ADH (anti-diuretic hormone)
One can predict that a person suffering from diabetes mellitus would probably have ______.
Thyroxine
What amino acid-based hormone uses the direct gene activation method illustrated in this image?
Permissiveness
__________ is the situation when one hormone cannot exert its full effects without another hormone being present.
type of hormone
Which of the choices below is not a factor required for target cell activation by hormone receptor interaction?
Feedback
Which of the following is not a type of hormone interaction?
G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers
Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because ________.
steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells
Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to ________.
second messengers
Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular ________.
up-regulation
In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as ________.
Hydrocortisones
Eicosanoids do not include ________.
It does not require a second messenger to effect a response.
Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference?
Calcium
What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acid–based hormones?
alter cell activity
What is the primary function of hormones?
TRUE
Both "turn on" factors (hormonal, humoral, and neural stimuli) and "turn off" factors (feedback inhibition and others) may be modulated by the activity of the nervous system.
FALSE
Direct gene activation involves a second-messenger system.
TRUE
All peptide hormone synthesis requires gene activation that produces mRNA.
It causes reabsorption of water by the kidney, resulting in increased blood water volume and a decreased solute concentration.
Why does antidiuretic hormone help regulate an abnormal increase in solute concentration in the extracellular fluid?
Adenoid
Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland?
hyposecretion of dopamine
Hyperprolactinemia may be caused by ______.
They have ducts.
Which of the following is NOT a property of endocrine glands?
adrenocorticotropic hormone
Which of the following hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids that help the body to resist stressors?
TRUE
Major hormones circulate to virtually all tissues.
decreased secretion of renin
Aldosteronism will cause ______.
FALSE
Up-regulation involves the loss of receptors and prevents the target cells from overreacting to persistently high hormone levels.
Synergism
Which of the following occurs in situations where more than one hormone produces the same effects at the target cell and their combined effects are amplified?
Graves' disease
You would predict that iodized salt would have no effect on any cases of ____________.
Graves' disease
Which of the following is NOT a homeostatic imbalance related to underactivity of the thyroid gland?
TRUE
The hypothalamus is known to control the activity of the anterior pituitary, which has traditionally been called the "master endocrine gland."
Tropins
Hormones that regulate the secretory action of other endocrine glands are called __________.
cAMP
Which of the following mechanisms of hormone action is used by neurotransmitters and olfactory receptors?
positive feedback by GH (growth hormone) on the anterior pituitary
Acromegaly may be caused by all EXCEPT which of the following?
leptin
Which of the following hormones suppresses appetite and increases energy expenditure?
anterior pituitary (lobe)
What gland secretes growth hormone?
growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
Which hypothalamic hormone stimulates the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary (lobe)?
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
What hormone, notated by letter B, is released by the anterior pituitary to target the adrenal cortex when we are under stress?
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
What hormone released into the blood (shown by letter D) by the posterior pituitary inhibits or prevents urine formation?
insulin
Which hormone is involved in diabetes mellitus (DM)?
neurons become more excitable and tingling sensations
Which of the following would result from hypoparathyroidism?
Insulin
Which pancreatic hormone functions to lower blood glucose levels?
humoral stimulation
One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?
direct control of the nervous system
Which of the following is not a change that may be caused by hormonal stimulus?
Enzyme
Which of the following is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus?
possible activation of several different second-messenger systems
Cellular responses to hormones that initiate second-messenger systems include ________.
stimulates production of an action potential
Which of the following is not a change typically produced by a hormonal stimulus?
the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ
The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________.
entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
Steroid hormones exert their action by ________.
Epinephrine
Which of the following is not a steroid-based hormone?
synthesis of glucose from noncarbonhydrate sources
Which of the following best describes gluconeogenesis?
C cells (parafollicular cells) in the thyroid gland
Calcitonin is secreted by which cells?
Aldosterone
The zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex produces what steroid hormone?
epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
The sympathetic nervous system directly stimulates which of the following amine hormones?
atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
What hormone causes the loss of sodium and water, thus lowering blood pressure.
Melatonin
What amine hormone helps coordinate body activities with the light-dark cycle?
Insulin
What hormone promotes glycogen synthesis in liver and muscle?
anterior pituitary
Where is thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) synthesized?
alter cell activity
What is the primary function of hormones?
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
What tropic hormone stimulates cortisol from the adrenal gland?
control secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
What is the function of the ventral hypothalamic neurons?
GH (growth hormone)
Insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) are intermediary hormones stimulated by which of the following hormones?
Oxytocin
Which of the following hormones is regulated by a neuroendocrine (“letdown”) reflex?
Hypothalamus
Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, synthesized?
negative feedback
What is the most important regulatory factor controlling the circulating levels of thyroid hormone?
Prolactin
Which of the following hormones mainly serves to stimulate milk production by the breasts?
none of these
Which of the following is a hormone produced by the posterior pituitary?
Epinephrine
Which of the following hormones is a part of the rapid response (rather than the prolonged response) to stress?
decreased insulin secretion
In response to stress, which of the following changes would happen?
heart palpitations
Which of the following are symptom(s) of pheochromocytoma?
Cushing’s disease
Choose which condition has all of the following symptoms: hypertension, hyperglycemia, and a “moon face.”
ADH (vasopressin)
What hormone also aids the stress response by promoting water retention and acting as a vasoconstrictor?
Lungs
Which of the following structures does/does NOT produce a hormone or hormones?
FALSE
The anatomical effects of acromegaly can usually be reversed by surgically removing the tumor from the anterior pituitary.
parathyroid cells
What cells release parathyroid hormone?
increase in blood glucose levels
Which hormone can indirectly control insulin release?
Enzymatic
Which of the following is NOT a major type of stimulus that triggers endocrine glands to manufacture and release hormones?
causing hypersecretion of ADH
A blow to the head may cause diabetes insipidus by ______.
hormonal stimuli
What is required for the production of anterior pituitary gland hormones?
lower blood glucose levels
Which of the following best describes the main effects of insulin?
Glucocorticoids
Which hormone(s) is/are essential to our ability to deal with stress?
pituitary dwarfism
Hyposecretion of growth hormone
Grave's disease
An autoimmune problem involving the thyroid gland
diabetes mellitus
Hyposecretion of the pancreas
acromegaly
Hypersecretion of growth hormone
Addison's Disease
Hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex
secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic regulatory hormone
ACTH ________.
inhibition of calcitonin synthesis
Which of the following is not a parathyroid gland mechanism to maintain adequate levels of blood calcium?
TRUE
Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that controls blood pressure in part by increasing the urinary excretion of sodium.
binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP
The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________.
TRUE
Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions.
TRUE
ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.
Hormones
Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids and that regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body are called ________.
is inhibited by alcohol
ADH ________.
FALSE
Oxytocin and ADH are produced in the posterior pituitary.
FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.
A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.
Polycythemia
Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?
cretinism
Hyposecretion of the thyroid in infants
myxedema
Hyposecretion of the thyroid in adults
thyroid
Produces the body's major metabolic hormones
Adrenal medulla
The gland that controls the flight-or-fight reaction
hypophysis
The size and shape of a pea; produces hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands.
pancreas
Produces hormones that regulate glucose levels in the body
parathyroid
Produces a hormone that controls blood levels of calcium and potassium by their removal from bone to tissue.
is partly contained within the infundibulum
The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract ________.
SA node
Which part of the conduction system initiates the depolarizing impulse, which spreads throughout the heart?
electrical activity in the heart
What does the ECG wave tracing represent?
ventricular depolarization
What does the QRS complex represent in the ECG wave tracing?
P wave
Contraction of the atria results from which wave of depolarization on the ECG tracing?
AV node
Which part of the intrinsic conduction system delays the impulse briefly before it moves on to the ventricles?
sinoatrial node
The heart's pacemaker is the __________.
intercalated discs
What structures connect the individual heart muscle cells?
Cardiac muscle does not use the sliding filament mechanism for contraction; skeletal muscle does.
Which of the following is NOT a difference between cardiac and skeletal muscle?
TRUE
Blood in the heart chambers provides some nutrients to the heart muscle cells.
left atrium
Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the ________.
To maintain the same cardiac output, the heart rate would need to increase to compensate for a decreased stroke volume.
A patient was admitted to the hospital with chest pains. On admission, his pulse was 110 and blood pressure was 96/64. According to his history, his normal pulse rate is usually between 80 and 88 and his blood pressure runs from 120/70 to 130/80. Why did these changes in BP and HR occur?
Left side failure results in shortness of breath. Right side failure results in edema in the extremities.
A 55-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with heart failure. He complains of increasing shortness of breath on exertion, and of needing to sleep on three pillows at night. On physical assessment, the nurse determines that his ankles and feet are very swollen. Which of these symptoms either reflect left-sided and/or right-sided heart failure?
FALSE
Autonomic regulation of heart rate is via two reflex centers found in the pons.
intercalated discs
What structures connect the individual heart muscle cells?
cardiac tamponade
The condition where fluid compresses the heart and limits its ability to contract is called ________.
ventricular diastole
Isovolumetric relaxation and ventricular filling (two phases of the cardiac cycle) take place during __________.
Most blood flows passively into the ventricles through open AV valves.
Which of the following is correct about the filling of the ventricles?
Pressure in the atria would be greater than the pressure in the ventricles.
Describe the pressures in the atria and ventricles that would cause the opening of the AV valves.
greater pressure in the aorta than in the left ventricle
What causes the aortic semilunar valve to close?
isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation
Put the phases of the cardiac cycle in the correct order, starting after ventricular filling.
AV valves only
Increased pressure in the ventricles would close what valve(s)?
refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers
Isovolumetric contraction ________.
A drug that inhibits the entry of calcium ions into the cytoplasm of cardiac cells decreases the force of myocardial contractility, thereby decreasing the oxygen demand, relieving the chest pain.
A patient is prescribed a calcium channel blocker to prevent angina (chest pain) by decreasing the demand for oxygen. What is the explanation for this pharmacological effect?
the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute
If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________.
FALSE
The "lub" sounds of the heart are valuable in diagnosis because they provide information about the function of the heart's pulmonary and aortic valves.
The entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all.
Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells.
closure of the heart valves
Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?
bundle of His
Which of the following is not part of the conduction system of the heart?
when the ventricle is in systole
The tricuspid valve is closed ________.
TRUE
As pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more ventricular pressure is required to open the aortic valve.
thinning of the valve flaps
Which of the following is not an age-related change affecting the heart?
fibrous pericardium
Which of the following is the outermost covering of the heart?
ventricular depolarization
The QRS complex on an electrocardiogram represents __________.
sinoatrial (SA) node
Which of the following pacemaker cells generates impulses of approximately 75 depolarizations per minute in order to control the heart's contraction rate?
pericardial cavity
What separates the parietal and visceral pericardium?
prolonged T wave
Hypercalcemia could cause ______.
increased heart rate and increased stroke volume
Which of the following would increase cardiac output to the greatest extent?
epinephrine and norepinephrine
Which of the following would increase heart rate?
increased contractility
How would an increase in the sympathetic nervous system increase stroke volume?
increased end diastolic volume
By what mechanism would an increase in venous return increase stroke volume?
decreased stroke volume and no change in cardiac output
How would a decrease in blood volume affect both stroke volume and cardiac output?
TRUE
The left side of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump.
sinoatrial (SA) node
Specifically, what part of the intrinsic conduction system stimulates the atrioventricular (AV) node to conduct impulses to the atrioventricular bundle?
Ischemia
Which of the following terms refers to a lack of oxygen supply to heart muscle cells?
cellular respiration
What is the source of ATP for cardiac muscle contraction?
ventricular repolarization
What does the T wave of the electrocardiogram (ECG) represent?
enlarged atria
An abnormal P wave could be indicative of ______.
ventricular diastole
Isovolumetric relaxation and ventricular filling (two phases of the cardiac cycle) take place during __________.
Most blood flows passively into the ventricles through open AV valves.
Which of the following is correct about the filling of the ventricles?
Pressure in the atria would be greater than the pressure in the ventricles.
Describe the pressures in the atria and ventricles that would cause the opening of the AV valves.
greater pressure in the aorta than in the left ventricle
What causes the aortic semilunar valve to close?
isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation
Put the phases of the cardiac cycle in the correct order, starting after ventricular filling.
AV valves only
Increased pressure in the ventricles would close what valve(s)?
left atrium
Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood via the pulmonary circuit?
Myocardium
Which layer of the heart wall contracts and is composed primarily of cardiac muscle tissue?
resting membrane potential
In an ischemic heart, the affected cardiac muscle cells are likely to have an altered ______.
two pumps
The heart is actually (one, two, or three) pumps?
right atrium
Which chamber receives blood from the superior and inferior vena cavae?
left atrium
Which heart chamber receives blood from the pulmonary veins?
right ventricle
Which heart chamber pumps unoxygenated blood out the pulmonary trunk?
left ventricle
Which chamber pumps oxygenated blood out the aorta to the systemic circuit?
pulmonary vein
Which of the following is NOT a vein that returns blood to the right atrium of the heart?
75 beats of the heart per minute
At what rate does the sinoatrial (SA) node ensure depolarization in the heart?
pump blood with greater pressure
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ________.
Aorta
Into what vessel does the left ventricle eject blood?
reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood to the lungs
The presence of an incompetent tricuspid valve would have the direct effect of causing ______.
FALSE
Auricles slightly increase blood volume in the ventricles.
FALSE
Cardiac muscle has more mitochondria and depends less on a continual supply of oxygen than does skeletal muscle.
mitral (bicuspid) valve
The structure that prevents backflow of blood into the left atrium is the
aorta
The vessel that carries oxygen-rich blood to tissues is the
systemic capillaries
The capillaries recieving blood from the left side of the heart are
aortic semilunar valve
The structure that is located anatomically between the aorta and the left ventricle is
coronary arteries
The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the ________.
tricuspid valve
Which valve is located between the right atrium and ventricle?
The left ventricle receives a smaller percentage of coronary blood supply than the right ventricle.
Which of the following is NOT a difference between the left and right ventricles?
Angina pectoris. If the coronary arteries are occluded (atherosclerosis), the heart muscle could be deprived of oxygen, resulting in a heart attack.
A man enters the hospital complaining of chest pain. His history includes smoking, a stressful job, a diet heavy in saturated fats, lack of exercise, and high blood pressure. Although he is not suffering from a heart attack, his doctor explains to him that a heart attack is quite possible. What did the chest pain indicate? Why is this man a prime candidate for further complications?
increasing extracellular potassium levels
Which of the following would cause a decrease in the contractility of the heart?
75 mL/beat
Calculate the stroke volume if the end diastolic volume (EDV) is 135 mL/beat and the end systolic volume (ESV) is 60 mL/beat.
pumps blood against a greater resistance
The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it ________.
heart valve closure
What causes normal heart sounds?
TRUE
The myocardium receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries.
FALSE
The papillary muscles contract after the other ventricular muscles so that they can take up the slack on the chordae tendineae before the full force of ventricular contractions sends blood against the AV valve flaps.
Exercise
Which of the following increases stroke volume?
The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts.
Select the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall.
angina pectoris
The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries is ________.
second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
To auscultate the aortic semilunar valve, you would place your stethoscope in the ________.
some calcium enters the cell from the extracellular space and triggers the release of larger amounts of calcium from intracellular stores
During contraction of heart muscle cells ________.
mitral valve
Prevents backflow into the left atrium
mitral valve
AV valve with two flaps
tricuspid valve
Prevents backflow into the right atrium
pulmonary valve
Prevents backflow into the right ventricle
aortic valve
Prevents backflow into the left ventricle
tricuspid valve
AV valve with three flaps
noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls
When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by ________.
Defibrillation would not be effective: it interrupts chaotic electrical activity in the heart, and if there is no electrical activity, then there is nothing to interrupt.
Asystole is the total absence of ventricular electrical activity. Would defibrillation be effective in this situation?
Epicardium
Serous layer covering the heart muscle
myocardium
Heart muscle
endocardium
The inner lining of the heart
partietal layer
The outermost layer of the serous pericardium
epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium
The layers of the heart wall from superficial to deep are: __________.
extrasystole
A premature ventricular contraction is classified as a(n) __________.
four; four
The heart has __________ chambers and __________ valves.
QRS complex
Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the time during which the atria repolarize?
Tricuspid
The __________ valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
prolonged T wave
Hypercalcemia could cause ______.
gap junctions
Action potentials generated by the autorhythmic cells spread to the contractile cells through what structures in the membrane?
Potassium
One of the changes that occurs in the pacemaker potential (unstable resting membrane potential) in the SA node (an autorhythmic cell) is a decreased efflux of what ion?
fast calcium
When threshold is reached at the SA node (an autorhythmic cell), what channels open causing further depolarization of the membrane?
voltage-gated potassium channels
Repolarization of an autorhythmic cell is due to the opening of which channels?
the flow of positive ions from adjacent cells
In order to cause cardiac muscle contraction, the contractile cells must also depolarize. What causes the depolarization of the contractile cells?
prevent the heart from filling properly with blood
Cardiac tamponade results in ineffective pumping of blood by the heart because the excessive amount of fluid in the pericardial cavity will______.
left atrium
Into which chamber do the pulmonary veins send blood?
right ventricle
Which heart chamber sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs?
Ischemia
Which of the following terms refers to a lack of oxygen supply to heart muscle cells?
FALSE
Arterial blood supply to heart muscle is continuous whether the heart is in systole or diastole.
TRUE
Proxysmal atrial tachycardia is characterized by bursts of atrial contractions with little pause between them.
relatively mild blow to the chest that occurs during a vulnerable interval (2 ms) when the heart is repolarizing
Commotio cordis is heart failure due to a ________.
FALSE
An ECG provides direct information about valve function.
right atrium
Into which chamber of the heart do the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus return deoxygenated blood?
Surgery to implant an artificial pacemaker
An older woman complains of shortness of breath and intermittent fainting spells. Her doctor runs various tests and finds that the AV node is not functioning properly. What is the suggested treatment?
TRUE
Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective tissue.
has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium
Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________.
to prevent backward flow of blood
What is the main function of heart valves?
The ventricles are in diastole.
When the atria contract, which of the following is true?
The end diastolic volume (EDV)
Which of the following is equivalent to the ventricular volume during isovolumetric contraction?
The AV valves are closed.
Which of the following is true during ventricular systole?
The semilunar valves are open.
During the ventricular ejection phase of the cardiac cycle, which of the following is true?
ventricular ejection
Most of the decrease in ventricular volume takes place during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
end systolic volume (ESV)
Which of the following is equivalent to the ventricular volume during isovolumetric relaxation?
ventricular filling
Most of the increase in left ventricular volume takes place during what phase of the cardiac cycle?
from a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure
In what direction does blood flow through the heart?
atrial contraction
Atrial pressure is greater than ventricular pressure during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
when ventricular pressure becomes greater than atrial pressure
At what point during the cardiac cycle does the AV valve close?
when ventricular pressure becomes greater than aortic pressure
At what point in the cardiac cycle does the semilunar valve open?
ventricular ejection
Ventricular pressure is greater than aortic pressure during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
when pressure in the ventricle becomes less than aortic pressure
At what point in the cardiac cycle does the semilunar valve close?
The semilunar and AV valves are closed.
Isovolumetric relaxation is characterized by which of the following?
when atrial pressure becomes greater than ventricular pressure
At what point in the cardiac cycle does the AV valve open?
right marginal artery
Which artery serves the myocardium of the lateral right side of the heart?
red pulp
Where are worn-out erythrocytes found in the spleen?
plasma cells
Antibodies are produced by __________.
Macrophages
Within buboes, bacteria are directly attacked by ______.
thickness of the walls
What do collecting lymphatic vessels NOT share in common with veins of the cardiovascular system?
increasing pressure inside the lymph capillary
Which of the following promotes closure of the minivalves associated with lymph capillaries?
Minivalves
Adjacent cells in lymphatic capillaries overlap each other loosely. These cells form a unique structural modification that increases their permeability that is known as the __________.
distal portion of the small intestine
Where are Peyer's patches located?
TRUE
The thymus functions strictly in maturation of T cells.
bone marrow and thymus
Which of the following are primary lymphoid organs?
white pulp of the spleen
Which of the following areas in a secondary lymphoid organ allows intimate contact between blood and the lymphocytes?
deep in the cortex
Where in the lymph node do the T cells first encounter antigens presented by dendritic cells?
Peyer’s patches
Collections of lymphoid tissues, called MALT, are strategically placed throughout the respiratory, digestive, and genitourinary systems. Which one of these is located at the end of the small intestine?
Thymus
There is a decrease in our ability to fight infection as we age. Which lymphoid organ may have a role in this decline?
heart
To what organ do the lymphatic vessels return protein-rich escaped fluids to rejoin circulation?
interstitial fluid
Lymph is most similar to __________.
venous circulation
Once collected, lymph is returned to __________.
increase permeability
What is the role of the mini-valves in lymph capillaries?
Thymus
Which of the following lymphoid tissues/organs does NOT contain reticular connective tissue?
Eosinophil
Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic cell?
They filter lymph.
Which of the following is a role of lymph nodes?
lymph nodes
Which lymphoid organ serves in immune surveillance and in filtering lymph?
thymus gland
Which lymphoid organ serves as the site where T lymphocytes become immunocompetent T cells?
lymph nodes
Which of the following is NOT a part of MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)?
Spleen
Which lymphoid organ provides a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response and provides blood-cleansing functions?
bed rest to allow enhanced blood flow and therefore healing of the affected area
Lymphedema may be treated by all EXCEPT which of the following?
Macrophages
Within buboes, bacteria are directly attacked by ______.
removal of aged and damaged red blood cells from the blood
After surgical removal of the spleen (i.e., a splenectomy), some other organs take over most of its functions. Which of the following spleen functions in the adult can be performed by bone marrow?
FALSE
The most important role of the spleen is to provide a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response.
FALSE
In the spleen, red pulp is involved in the immune functions and white pulp is involved in disposing of worn-out RBCs.
TRUE
If even a small part of the spleen is left in a ten-year-old child, it will most likely regenerate itself.
FASLE
Peyer's patches are clusters of lymphoid tissue found primarily in the large intestine.
lingual tonsils
The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________.
white pulp
Which part of the spleen is the site of immune function?
FALSE
Like blood, lymph flows both to and from the heart.
FALSE
The simplest lymphoid organs are the lymph nodes.
FALSE
The cisterna chyli collects lymph from the lumbar trunks draining the upper limbs and from the intestinal trunk draining the digestive organs.
TRUE
When tissues are inflamed, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that permit uptake of large particles such as cell debris, pathogens, and cancer cells.
TRUE
Because lymph vessels are very low-pressure conduits, movements of adjacent tissues are important in propelling lymph through the lymphatics.
smooth muscle contraction in the lymph capillary walls
Lymph transport involves all but which of the following?
blood vessels
Which of the following is NOT a part of the lymphatic system?
plasma cells
Which of the following lymphoid cells secrete antibodies?
TRUE
The lymphatic capillaries function to absorb the excess protein-containing interstitial fluid and return it to the bloodstream.
thoracic duct
Which of the following delivers lymph into the junction of the internal jugular vein and the subclavian vein?
Tonsils
Of the following lymphoid organs, which is (are) structurally simplest and lack(s) a complete capsule?
cisterna chili
What is the name of the enlarged sac to which the lumbar trunks and the intestinal trunk returns lymph?
red blood cells
Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph?
transporting respiratory gases
Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?
Capsule
Tonsillar crypts are invaginations deep into the interior of the tonsil. What is missing from the tonsil that allows for the presence of tonsillar crypts?
TRUE
Lymphocytes reside temporarily in lymphoid tissue, then move to other parts of the body.
efferent lymphatic vessels
Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________.
capillary smooth muscle contraction
Which of the following is not a method that maintains lymph flow?
It has follicles similar to those in the spleen.
Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is not true?
Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.
Select the correct statement about lymph transport.
FALSE
All the lymphoid organs are well developed before birth.
produce lymph fluid and cerebro-spinal fluid
Which of the following is not a function of lymph nodes?
erythrocytes
Which of the following is not a part of the lymphatic system?
TRUE
Lymphatic capillaries are permeable to proteins.
FALSE
There are more efferent lymphatic vessels leaving a lymph node than there are afferent vessels entering a lymph node.
the first node to receive lymph from an area suspected to be cancerous
A sentinel node is ________.
TRUE
Lymph capillary permeability is due to minivalves and protein filaments.
TRUE
Chyle is delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system.
right lymphatic duct
Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head and thorax?
lower extremities
Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the ________.
more permeable than blood capillaries
The lymphatic capillaries are ________.
Eosinophil
Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic cell?
A and C
Which of the following are functions of lymphoid tissue?
TRUE
About 3 liters of fluid are lost to the tissue spaces every 24 hours and are returned to the bloodstream as lymph.
lymph
Protien-containing fluid within lymphatic vessels
spleen
stores blood platelets
thoracic duct
Recieves lymph from most of the body
lymph nodes
Small organs intimately associated with lymphatic vessels
spleen
Largest lymphatic organ
Peyer's patches
Isolated clusters of lymph follicles found in the wall of the small intestine.
Childhood
The thymus is most active during ________.
an infected lymph node
What is a bubo?
TRUE
Lymphoid tissue is mainly reticular connective tissue.
TRUE
Digested fats are absorbed from the intestine by the lymph capillaries.
Pancreas
Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?
digestive organs
Lymph capillaries are absent in all except which of the following?
It has follicles similar to those in the spleen.
Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is not true?
Thymus
Which of the following does not contain a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue?
B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.
Select the correct statement about lymphocytes.
thickness of the walls
What do collecting lymphatic vessels NOT share in common with veins of the cardiovascular system?
Minivalves
Adjacent cells in lymphatic capillaries overlap each other loosely. These cells form a unique structural modification that increases their permeability that is known as the __________.
Macrophages
Within buboes, bacteria are directly attacked by ______.
palatine tonsils
The __________ is (are) the most likely to become infected.
an infection
Lymphangitis is caused by ______.
bones and teeth
Which of the following lacks lymph capillaries?
thoracic duct
Lymph from the right leg ultimately is delivered to which duct in the thoracic region?
return tissue fluid to the bloodstream
Lymphatic vessels __________.
The lymphatic system returns leaked fluid and plasma proteins that escape from the bloodstream to the blood.
What is the main function of the lymphatic system?
TRUE
The thymus functions strictly in maturation of T cells.
bone marrow
Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue/organ?
produce plasma cells that secrete antibodies
What is the role of the B lymphocytes (B cells) in lymphoid tissue?
ileum of the small intestine
Peyer's patches are found in the ________.
right side of the head
Which of the following returns lymph to the right lymphatic duct?
capillary beds
Lymphatic collecting vessels are most closely associated with __________.
severe localized edema distal to the blockage of that limb
When the lymphatic structures of a limb are blocked due to tumors, the result is ________.
right upper limb, right side of the head and thorax
Lymph from what regions of the body is drained into the right lymphatic duct?
plasma cells
Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ________.
in the wall of the small intestine
Peyer's patches are located __________.
capture antigens and bring them back to lymph nodes
What is the role of dendritic cells in lymphoid tissue?
the infection has caused inflammation of the nasolacrimal ducts
Patients with rhinitis often have "watery eyes" because ______.
TRUE
The structures within the respiratory system's conducting zone include the trachea and the paranasal sinuses.
partial pressure of oxygen
Which of the following is the primary factor in oxygen attachment to, or release from, hemoglobin?
costal cartilages
Which of the following structures would be the LEAST vulnerable to damage caused by oxygen toxicity?
matching the amount of gas reaching the alveoli to the blood flow in pulmonary capillaries
What is ventilation-perfusion coupling?
All of the listed responses are correct.
Emphysema can result in an ______.
as bicarbonate ions in the plasma
What is the most common method of carbon dioxide transport?
pulmonary arteries; bronchial arteries
Systemic venous blood that is to be oxygenated in the lungs is delivered by the __________, and the __________ provide oxygenated systemic blood to lung tissue.
dynein molecules
Smoking inhibits cilia by inhibiting the movements of ______.
the diaphragm and rib muscles contract.
During inhalation,
Alveoli
From which structures do oxygen molecules move from the lungs to the blood?
In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells.
Which statement is correct?
it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells.
After blood becomes oxygenated,
is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen.
Hemoglobin
FALSE
Emphysema is distinguished by permanent shrinkage of the alveoli.
the Bohr effect
Oxygen is unloaded where it is most needed when blood pH drops, this is a phenomenon known as ___________.
interstitial fluid
During pneumonia, the lungs become "waterlogged"; this means that within the alveoli there is an abnormal accumulation of ______.
All of the listed responses are correct.
The tissue(s) and/or cells that may be affected during laryngitis ______.
Lobules
The smallest subdivisions of the lung visible with the naked eye are the __________, which appear to be connected by black carbon in smokers.
vital capacity
What is the amount of air that can be exhaled with the greatest possible exhalation after the deepest inhalation called?
visceral pleura of the same lung
During pleurisy, the inflamed parietal pleura of one lung rubs against the inflamed ______.
arterial blood carbon dioxide level
What is the most powerful respiratory stimulant in a healthy person?
Larynx
Tracheal obstruction by a large piece of food typically involves obstruction of the ______.
hemoglobin is transporting four oxygen molecules
Which of the following qualifies as a fully saturated hemoglobin molecule?
TRUE
Although lung cancer is difficult to cure, it is highly preventable.
pulmonary ventilation; external respiration; transport of respiratory gases; internal respiration;
Which of the following represents all of the processes involved in respiration in the correct order?
CO2; alveoli
__________ has a greater partial pressure in the pulmonary capillaries than in the alveoli, so it diffuses into the __________.
Henry’s law
Which gas law explains why there is as much CO2 exchanged between the alveoli and blood as there is O2 exchanged, despite the fact that the partial pressure difference is so much smaller for CO2?
The partial pressure of O2 would decrease, and the partial pressure of CO2 would increase.
How would the partial pressures of O2 and CO2 change in an exercising muscle?
O2 would diffuse into the cells, and CO2 would diffuse into the systemic capillaries.
Which way would O2 and CO2 diffuse during internal respiration?
the molecular weight of the gas
Internal and external respiration depends on several factors. Which of the following is NOT an important factor in gas exchange?
partial pressure of oxygen in the air
Which of the following is NOT a physical factor that influences pulmonary ventilation?
intrapleural pressure is higher than intrapulmonary pressure
In pneumothorax, the lung collapses because ______.
Transpulmonary pressure
__________, the difference between the intrapulmonary and intrapleural pressures, prevents the lungs from collapsing.
FALSE
Dalton's law of partial pressures states that when a gas is in contact with a liquid, that gas will dissolve in the liquid in proportion to its partial pressure.
TRUE
Dalton's law states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures exerted independently by each gas in the mixture.
intrapleural pressure
Which of the following pressures must remain negative to prevent lung collapse?
Epiglottis
What part of the larynx covers the laryngeal inlet during swallowing to keep food out of the lower respiratory passages?
vital capacity
What is the amount of air that can be exhaled with the greatest possible exhalation after the deepest inhalation called?
Ppul < Patm
Which of the following pressure relationships best illustrates when inspiration will occur?
tidal volume (TV) + inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
Which volumes are combined to provide the inspiratory capacity?
The pressure of gas in your lungs is inversely proportional to the volume in your lungs.
Which of the following descriptions accurately describes Boyle’s law?
diaphragm and external intercostals
Which muscles, when contracted, would increase the volume of air in the thoracic cavity?
intrapleural pressure
Which pressure is the result of the natural tendency of the lungs to decrease their size (because of elasticity) and the opposing tendency of the thoracic wall to pull outward and enlarge the lungs?
Epinephrine
During an allergic reaction, which of the following would aid respiration?
lungs will collapse
If the transpulmonary pressure equals zero, what will happen to the lung?
4 mm Hg
Calculate the transpulmonary pressure if atmospheric pressure is 755 mm Hg.
Oropharynx
In which region are the palatine tonsils found?
rising carbon dioxide levels
Which of the following stimuli is the most powerful respiratory stimulant to increase respiration?
adrenal medulla
Which of the following would NOT be involved in causing bronchiolar constriction during an asthma attack?
Lymphocytes
The adenoids normally destroy pathogens because they contain ______.
to destroy pathogens entering the nasopharynx
Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal conchae and mucosa?
diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
Which muscles are activated during normal quiet inspiration?
due to insufficient exocytosis in the type II alveolar cells
In babies born prematurely, pulmonary surfactant may not be present in adequate amounts ______.
4800 ml
What is the volume of the total amount of exchangeable air for a healthy, young adult male?
to assist in taste sensation
Which of the following is NOT a function of the larynx?
bronchial arteries
Which blood vessels supply oxygenated systemic blood to the lung tissue?
Glottis
During the Valsalva's maneuver, what part of the larynx closes to increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as to help with defecation?
simple squamous epithelium
Which of the following respiratory structures is more commonly known as the "throat"?
alveolar macrophages crawl freely along internal alveolar surfaces
Since mucus-producing cells and cilia are sparse in the bronchioles and alveoli, how does the body remove microorganisms that make their way into the respiratory zone?
Hilum
The indentation on the medial surface of each lung through which pulmonary and systemic blood vessels, bronchi, lymphatic vessels, and nerves enter and leave is called the ___________.
FALSE
The alveoli are also known as alveolar sacs.
presence of a superior, middle, and inferior lobe
Which of the following features characterizes the right lung?
Epiglottis
The __________ is also known as the "guardian of the airways."
Alveoli
Which parts of the respiratory system function as the main sites of gas exchange?
intrapulmonary pressure change
What is the most immediate driving force behind pulmonary ventilation?
serving as part of the respiratory zone
Which of the following is NOT a function of the larynx?
routing air and food into proper channels
Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal conchae?
TRUE
Tracheal obstruction is life threatening.
FALSE
Nasal conchae mainly work on inhalation to warm and moisten air. They serve minor functions for exhalation.
TRUE
The parietal pleura lines the thoracic wall.
Alveoli
The main site of gas exchange is the ________.
FALSE
Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia.
internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract
Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract if you were to blow up a balloon?
attached to the heme part of hemoglobin
Which of the following incorrectly describes mechanisms of CO2 transport?
aids in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs
Which of the choices below is not a role of the pleura?
TRUE
The functions of the nasal conchae are to enhance the air turbulence in the cavity and to increase the mucosal surface area exposed to the air.
alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes
The respiratory membrane is a combination of ________.
voluntary cortical control
Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include ________.
Alveoli
Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?
FASLE
The Hering-Breuer reflex is a potentially dangerous response that may cause overinflation of the lung.
0.5 to 1 micrometer thick
For gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be ________.
The auditory tube drains into the nasopharynx.
Select the correct statement about the pharynx.
the thyroid cartilage
The larynx contains ________.
number of red blood cells
Which of the choices below is not a factor that promotes oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin?
partial pressure gradient
Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?
Pressure gradient equals gas flow over resistance.
Which of the following is not possible?
Oxygen dilates pulmonary arterioles, increasing perfusion and worsening an already poor ventilation-perfusion mismatch. In addition, oxygen drives more CO2 off of hemoglobin, dumping it into alveoli from which it cannot be removed.
A patient was admitted to the hospital with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His PO2 was 55 and PCO2 was 65. A new resident orders 54% oxygen via the venturi mask. One hour later, after the oxygen was placed, the nurse finds the patient with no respiration or pulse. She calls for a Code Blue and begins cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Why did the patient stop breathing?
FALSE
The paired lungs occupy all of the thoracic cavity.
TRUE
Ventilation perfusion coupling means that more blood flows past functional alveoli than past nonfunctional alveoli.
Dalton's law
The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases ________.
TRUE
Labored breathing is termed dyspnea.
The paranasal sinuses
Jane had been suffering through a severe cold and was complaining of a frontal headache and a dull, aching pain at the side of her face. What regions are likely to become sites of secondary infection following nasal infection?
surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity
The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are ________.
as the direct initiator of the cough reflex
The nose serves all the following functions except ________.
Respiratory rate will increase.
How will the lungs compensate for an acute rise in the partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood?
Friction
The major nonelastic source of resistance to air flow in the respiratory passageways is ________.
More CO2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs.
Which statement about CO2 is incorrect?
TRUE
The lungs are perfused by two circulations: the pulmonary and the bronchial. The pulmonary circulation is for oxygenation of blood. The bronchial circulation supplies blood to the lung structures (tissue).
pressure within the alveoli of the lungs
Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________.
ciliated mucous lining in the nose
Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________.
the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid
Which of the choices below describes the forces that act to pull the lungs away from the thorax wall and thus collapse the lungs?
FALSE
Increased temperature results in decreased O2 unloading from hemoglobin.
Diffusion
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ________.
the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid
Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. Expiration, however, depends on two factors. Which of the choices below lists those two factors?
The pons is thought to be instrumental in the smooth transition from inspiration to expiration.
Select the correct statement about the neural mechanisms of respiratory control.
blood pH adjustment
Which of the following is not an event necessary to supply the body with O2 and dispose of CO2?
pontine respirator group (PRG)
Which center is located in the pons?
FALSE
The largest amount of carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream in the form of carbonic anhydrase.
FALSE
Oxygenated hemoglobin releases oxygen more readily when the pH is more basic.
TRUE
The alveolar ventilation rate is the best index of effective ventilation.
TRUE
Atelectasis (lung collapse) renders the lung useless for ventilation.
greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.
Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is
FALSE
As carbon dioxide enters systemic blood, it causes more oxygen to dissociate from hemoglobin (the Haldane effect), which in turn allows more CO2 to combine with hemoglobin and more bicarbonate ion to be generated (the Bohr effect).
diver holds his breath upon ascent
Gas emboli may occur because a ________.
FALSE
During normal quiet breathing, approximately 750 ml of air moves into and out of the lungs with each breath.
FALSE
The average individual has 500 ml of residual volume in his lungs.
increase of carbon dioxide
The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ________.
Boyle's law
The relationship between gas pressure and gas volume is described by ________.
TRUE
Strong emotions and pain acting through the limbic system activate sympathetic centers in the hypothalamus, thus modulating respiratory rate and depth by sending signals to the respiratory centers.
TRUE
Valsalva's maneuver involves closing off the glottis (preventing expiration) while contracting the muscles of expiration, causing an increase in intra-abdominal pressure.
TRUE
Changes in arterial pH can modify respiration rate and rhythm even when carbon dioxide and oxygen levels are normal.
TRUE
The olfactory mucosal lining of the nasal cavity contains the receptors for the sense of smell.
interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.
Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption by increasing the number of Na+-K+ ATPase pumps in the luminal membrane of the proximal tubule.
Which of the following statements about aldosterone is NOT correct?
ADH is released by the posterior pituitary gland.
Which of the following statements about ADH (antidiuretic hormone) is correct?
isotonic – 300 mOsm
What is the osmolarity of the filtrate at the end of the proximal tubule?
ADH – low; 100 mOsm (urine)
In overhydration, what would be the levels of ADH (high, normal, or low) and what would be the osmolarity of the urine?
ADH – high; low urine flow rate (0.25 ml/min)
In severe dehydration or blood loss, what would be the levels of ADH and what would be the urine flow rate?
Under normal conditions, the large renal arteries deliver one-fourth of the total cardiac output (about 1200 ml) to the kidneys each minute.
Which of the following promotes the formation of dilute urine?
decreased osmolarity of extracellular fluids
Which of the following promotes the formation of urine?
renal fascia; fibrous capsule
The __________ is an outer layer of dense fibrous connective tissue that anchors the kidney and the adrenal gland to surrounding structures. The __________ prevents infections in surrounding regions from spreading to the kidneys.